(x-y)²-(x+y)² a)0 b)2y² c)-2y² d)-4xy e)-2(x+y)²

Answer:

10.9

Step-by-step Explanation:

The Mean Absolute Deviation of a given data set tells us how far apart, on average, each data value is to the mean of the data set.

The smaller the Mean Absolute Deviation of a given data set is, the closer each data value is to the mean. This also implies less variability of the data set.

Invariably, the smaller the M.A.D, which connotes less variability, the more consistent the data set is.

Therefore, a M.A.D of 10.9 represents more consistency than a M.A.D of 15.2

[tex](f+g)(f)=f(x)+g(x)\\\\\\f(x)=\dfrac{x}{2}-2\\g(x)=2x^2+x-3\\\\(f+g)(x)=\dfrac{x}{2}-2+2x^2+x-3\\(f+g)(x)=2x^2+\dfrac{x}{2}+\dfrac{2x}{2}-5\\(f+g)(x)=2x^2+\dfrac{3x}{2}-5\\(f+g)(x)=2x^2+\dfrac{3}{2}x-5[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the length of the base of a square based pyramid as 12 units and the vertical height of the pyramid to be 15units, the height of one of its triangular faces can be gotten by using the pythagoras theorem.

Let the height of one of the triangular sides be s (it is also the slant height of the pyramid)

The vertical height of the pyramid to be h = 15units

The base of the right angled trangle will be half of the length of the base = 12/2 r  = 6 units

According to the pythagoras theorem; s² = h² + r²

Substituting the given values into the formula we will have;

s² = 15² + 6²

s² = 225 + 36

s = 261

s = 16.16 units

s ≈ 16units (to the nearest tenth)

Hence the length of the height of one of the triangular faces is 16units

Answer:

16.2 units

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex] 23x - 10 [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

To the find the equivalent of [tex] 9(2x - 3) + 5x + 17 [/tex], evaluate the expression. Start by opening the bracket.

[tex] 9*2x - 9*3 + 5x + 17 [/tex]

[tex] 18x - 27 + 5x + 17 [/tex]

Pair like terms

[tex] 18x + 5x - 27 + 17 [/tex]

[tex] 23x - 10 [/tex]

The equivalent of [tex] 9(2x - 3) + 5x + 17 [/tex] is [tex] 23x - 10 [/tex]

Answer:

3 or at least i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a= 138/59 - 8√5b B=69√5/1180 - a√5/40

Step-by-step explanation:

yuh

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{x = 8}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\sf -18 = -3x+6\\Subtracting \ 6 \ to \ both \ sides\\-18-6 = -3x\\-24 = -3x\\Dividing \ both \ sides \ by \ -3\\8 = x\\OR\\x = 8[/tex]

Answer:

x = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, -3x = -24

x = 8

hope that helps you

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1/20 of 700:  1/20•700 = 35

700 + n•35 = 1050

n•35 = 350

n = 10

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Firstly, we will use the formula π × d

Which will be 22\7 × 28 (this is the radius multiplied by 2)

After multiplying you will get 88 cm as your perimeter

=88 cm

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

To find the surface area of a sphere, here is what you do.

You square the radius.

4²=16

You multiply by 4.

16×4=64

And you multiply by pi!

64×π=64π

Therefore, the surface area of the sphere is A. 64π units². It's that easy!

Now you can find the surface area of a sphere! Have a wonderful day! :D

Question :-

Answer :-

[tex] \rule{180pt}{3pt}[/tex]

Diagram :-

[tex]\setlength{\unitlength}{1.2cm}\begin{picture}(0,0)\thicklines\qbezier(2.3,0)(2.121,2.121)(0,2.3)\qbezier(-2.3,0)(-2.121,2.121)(0,2.3)\qbezier(-2.3,0)(-2.121,-2.121)(0,-2.3)\qbezier(2.3,0)(2.121,-2.121)(-0,-2.3)\qbezier(-2.3,0)(0,-1)(2.3,0)\qbezier(-2.3,0)(0,1)(2.3,0)\thinlines\qbezier (0,0)(0,0)(0.2,0.3)\qbezier (0.3,0.4)(0.3,0.4)(0.5,0.7)\qbezier (0.6,0.8)(0.6,0.8)(0.8,1.1)\qbezier (0.9,1.2)(0.9,1.2)(1.1,1.5)\qbezier (1.2,1.6)(1.2,1.6)(1.38,1.9)\put(0.2,1){\bold{4 \: units}}\end{picture}[/tex]

Solution :-

As per the provided information in the given question, we have been given that the radius of the sphere is 4 units. We have been asked to find or calculate the surface area of the sphere.

To calculate the surface area of the sphere, we will use the formula below :-

[tex]\bigstar \:\:\:\boxed{\sf{\:\:Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 4\pi r^2 \:\:}}[/tex]

Substitute the given values into the above formula and solve for surface area:

[tex]\sf:\implies Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 4\pi r^2[/tex]

[tex]\sf:\implies Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 4 \times \pi \times (4 \: units)^2[/tex]

[tex]\sf:\implies Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = (4 \: units)^2 \times 4 \times \pi[/tex]

[tex]\sf:\implies Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 16 \: units^2 \times 4 \times \pi[/tex]

[tex]\sf:\implies \bold{Surface \: Area_{(Sphere)} = 64\pi \: units^2}[/tex]

Therefore :-

[tex]\\[/tex]

Learn more about the surface area of the sphere at https://brainly.com/question/28988747

Have a great day! <33

Answer:

the slope is 60

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope is the number multiplying the x value, or t in this case.

Answer:

The slope is 60, and create the graph by dragging one point to (0,0) and one point to (1,60).

Step-by-step explanation:

If we have the proportional relationship [tex]d=60t[/tex], then the slope will be what we multiply t by to get d, therefore the slope is 60.

Since there is no y-intercept, the line WILL pass through the origin (0,0), so a point goes there.

If we make t 1, then d will be at point (1,60) because  [tex]60\cdot1=60[/tex].

Hope this helped!

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

its 50% it will land on head and 50% it will land on tails since there is only two sides on a coin

Answer:

1/2 or .5

p(1/2)

Step-by-step explanation:

its simple, there are 2 sides to a coin, so there are 2 possible outcomes. and the question asks what is the probability of the coin landing on one or in other wrds, its asking what is te probilitity of one of the two heads to be up. SO the probility is 1/2

Answer:

18 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

To to this you would just divide 54 by 3 and you would get how far away from the endpoint which is 18 inches

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y < -4

Step-by-step explanation:

-5y+6>26

subtract 6 from each side

-5y+6-6>26-6

-5y > 20

Divide each side by -5. remembering to flip the inequality

-5y/-5 < 20/-5

y < -4

Answer:

well just do area, and since it's the same in each side 12×4= 144

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

it is Pythagoras theorem

6*6=36

8*8=64

64+36=100

square root of 100 is 10

(0,8)+(7,-52) eso es la problema

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

(-1 - 3i)(-1 + 3i) = 1 - 3i + 3i -9i²

1 - 9i²; i² = -1, therefore 1 - 9(-1) = 1 + 9 = 10

Answer:

25,886.01 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of shaded region = Area of the outter circle (the larger circle) - area of the inner circle (the smaller circle)

Area of a circle = πr²

Radius of larger circle = PO = 93.4 in

Area of the larger circle = 3.14*93.4² = 27,391.98 in²

Radius of smaller circle = PO - RQ = 93.4 - 71.5 = 21.9

Area of smaller circle = 3.14*21.9² = 1,505.97 in²

Area of shaded region = 27,391.98 - 1,505.97 = 25,886.01 in²

Answer: 7√2

Step-by-step explanation: To simplify a square root where the number inside the radical is not a perfect square like the square root of 98, we start by making a factor tree for the number inside.

98 factors as 2 · 49 and if you know your perfect squares,

you should be able to recognize 49 as 7 · 7.

What we are looking for in our factor tree

are pairs of factors that are the same.

If a factor pairs up, it will come out of the radical.

If a factor does not pair up, then it stays inside the radical.

So here, since our 7's pair up, a 7 will come out of the radical.

Since the 2 does not pair up, it stays inside the radical.

So our answer is 7√2.

Answer:

To make only 12% profit, the discount should be increased to 16%

Step-by-step explanation:

The given information are;

The percentage discount on goods = 10%

The profit made from the sale of the watch = 20%

The amount the watch was sold = Rs.10,710

The percentage VAT included = 13%

Let the recommended selling price of the watch = X

Therefore, we have;

The price after 10% discount = 0.9×X

Which gives;

The amount the watch was sold = Price after 10% discount + Price after 10% discount ×VAT

The amount the watch was sold = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×13% = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×0.13

Rs.10,710 = 0.9×X + 0.9×X×0.13 = 1.017×X

X = Rs.10,170/1.017 = Rs. 10,000

The recommended selling price of the watch = Rs. 10,000

The profit was 20% of selling price which gives;

Profit = Selling price - Cost price = Rs. 9,000  - Rs. X = 0.2 × Rs. X

9000 - X = 0.2×X

9000 = X + 0.2×X  = 1.2×X

X = 9000/1.2 = Rs. 7,500

To make only 12% profit, we have;

12% of Rs. 7,500 = 0.12 × Rs.7,500 = Rs. 900

Selling price = Cost price + Profit = Rs. 7,500 + Rs. 900 = Rs. 8,400

Percentage discount from Rs.10,000 to get Rs. 8,400 is given as follows;

Percentage discount = Y%

Therefore;

Y = (10,000 - 8,400)/10000 × 100 = 0.16 × 100 = 16%

Y = 16%

Therefore, to make only 12% profit, the discount should be increased to 16%.

Answer:

Option B is the correct option.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \mathrm{ - \frac{4}{5} \div 2}[/tex]

[tex] \mathrm{dividing \: a \: negative \: and \: a \: positive \: equals \: a \: negative \:. \: ( - ) \div ( + ) = ( - )}[/tex]

[tex] \mathrm{ - \frac{4}{5} \div 2}[/tex]

[tex] \mathrm{dividing \: is \: equivalent \: to \: multiplying \: with \: the \: reciprocal}[/tex]

[tex] \mathrm{ - \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{1}{2} }[/tex]

[tex] \mathrm{reduce \: the \: numbers \: with \: G.C.F \: 2}[/tex]

[tex] \mathrm{ - \frac{2}{5} }[/tex]

Hope I helped!

Best regards!

The quotient of  -4 /5 divide 2 would be equal to -2/5 in simplified form.

Quotients are the number that is obtained by dividing one number by another number. We can use the fact that division can be taken as multiplication but with the denominator's multiplicative inverse.

We have been given that  -4 /5 divide 2

Thus, we have to divide the terms as;

-4 /5   ÷ 2

Therefore,  -4 /5 x 1/ 2

-2/5

Hence, the quotient of  -4 /5 divide 2 would be equal to -2/5 in simplified form.

Learn more about the quotient;

brainly.com/question/26913992

#SPJ2

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

B sqrtb is right in front of 2, so 2 squared is 4, so a little bit more than 2 squared will be a little more than four.

Answer:

C) C < 4

Step-by-step explanation:

because c is on the right side of four on the number line

Answer:

the result is 4.5 minutes.

- Erica runs 1/6 km in a minute.

- The school is 3/1 km away from her home.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

99

Step-by-step explanation:

x = 90 x 10/100 + 90

=> x = 900/100 + 90

=> x = 9 + 90

=> x = 99

Answer:

parallel lines

Step-by-step explanation:

Lines IJ and KL are parallel. Since in a dilation there is no rotation, a line becomes either the same line or a parallel line.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the price of the item = Rs x

13% of x = 390

[tex]\frac{13}{100}*x=390\\\\\\x = 390*\frac{100}{13}\\\\\\[/tex]

x = Rs. 3000

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

36=2×2×3×3

factors of 36 are 2,3,4,6,9,12,18,36

when N+2=2,N=0 (0 is neither positive nor negative.)

N+2=3,N=3-2=1

N+2=4,N=4-2=2

N+2=6,N+6-2=4

N+2=9,N=9-2=7

N+2=12

N=12-2=10

N+2=18,N=18-2=16

N+2=36,N=36-2=34

so for 7 positive integer values of N,36/(N+2)is a positive integer.

Since there are 8 factors of 36 hence 8 positive integers are possible for the expression 36/N + 2 to be an integer

Learn more on factors here: https://brainly.com/question/25829061

Answer:

38.5 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Proportions:

4 inches ⇔ 10 miles

15.4 inches ⇔ M miles

M = 15.4*10/4

M = 38.5 miles

Answer:  38.5    

Step-by-step explanation: cuz im smart