Hormones are proteins that act as chemical-signaling molecules in the body. Each hormone plays a unique role in regulating processes such as growth, development, and reproduction. The diagram shows the hormones oxytocin and vasopressin.

The amino acid sequence of Oxytocin consists of six amino acids connected in sequence, in the shape of a hexagon: T-y-r, I-l-e, G-l-n, A-s-n, C-y-s, and C-y-s. Attached to one of the C-y-s amino acids is a chain of three amino acids: P-r-o, L-e-u, G-l-y. The amino acid sequence of Vasopressin consists of six amino acids connected in sequence, in the shape of a hexagon: T-y-r, P-h-e, G-l-n, A-s-n, C-y-s, and C-y-s. Attached to one of the C-y-s amino acids is a chain of three amino acids: P-r-o, A-r-g, G-l-y.

Using the diagram, which THREE sentences correctly describe the hormones?

A
The hormones perform the same function.

B
The hormones perform different functions.

C
The hormones have the same amino acids.

D
The hormones have two unique amino acids.

E
The hormones have the same number of amino acids.

F
The hormones have the same sequence of amino acids.

Hormones Are Proteins That Act As Chemical-signaling Molecules In The Body. Each Hormone Plays A Unique

Answers

Answer 1

The hormones have the same amount of amino acids and different actions, as well as two different amino acids.

In what hormones does the hormonal signalling system function?

The gonadotropins (LH and FSH), growth hormone (GH), thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), prolactin, antidiuretic hormone, and oxytocin are the hormones secreted by the pituitary gland. Thyroid gland: Located at the base of the windpipe in the neck.

What purpose does hormone signalling serve?

via promoting their production and release, mediating the synthesis of other hormones. encouraging the movement of hormones into target cells so they can exert their effects through the cells.

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Related Questions

Photosystem II A) has P700 at its reaction center. B) is reduced by NADPH. C) passes electrons to photosystem I. D) does not have a reaction center. E) releases CO2 as a by-product.

Answers

Photosystem II has P700 at its reaction center. This is a photosystem composed of chlorophyll and other accessory pigments that absorb light energy. P700 is the type of chlorophyll that acts as the reaction center for this photosystem.

Photosystem II is reduced by NADPH. This is a coenzyme that carries electrons and is responsible for providing the electrons necessary for Photosystem II's function. Photosystem II passes electrons to Photosystem I. Photosystem I then passes electrons to an enzyme known as Ferredoxin, which in turn passes electrons to NADP+. Photosystem II does not have a reaction center. This is because the reaction center is composed of P700 chlorophyll, which is only found in Photosystem II. Photosystem II releases CO2 as a by-product. This happens when energy from light is absorbed by the reaction center and the electrons from Photosystem II are passed to Photosystem I. The CO2 is then released as a result of the electron transfer.

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Darwin is famous for his observations of the Galapagos Finches. Explain why these birds all had different lengths and shapes of beaks.

Answers

Answer:

The Galapagos Finches are a group of small birds native to the Galapagos Islands, which are located off the coast of Ecuador in South America. These birds are perhaps most famous for their unique beak shapes and sizes, which vary significantly from species to species. The reason for these differences in beak shape and size has to do with the ecological niches in which these birds live.

Each species of Galapagos Finch is adapted to a particular ecological niche, which is a specific role or position that an organism occupies within an ecosystem. For example, some species of finch feed primarily on insects, while others feed on seeds. Still others have evolved to feed on the nectar of flowers. These different food sources require different beak shapes and sizes to efficiently extract the food.

Darwin observed that the beak shapes and sizes of the finches varied from island to island, and that this variation was closely related to the available food sources on each island. For example, the finches on islands with primarily seed-based diets had larger, stronger beaks that were better able to crack open tough seed casings. On islands where insects were the primary food source, the finches had thinner, more pointed beaks that were better able to probe into crevices to extract insects.

The concept of ecological niches and adaptation is not unique to the Galapagos Finches. In fact, it is a fundamental principle in evolutionary biology. Organisms that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on their advantageous traits to future generations. Over time, this can result in the evolution of new species.

The Galapagos Finches are a perfect example of this process in action. By adapting to different ecological niches, these birds have evolved a remarkable diversity of beak shapes and sizes. This diversity has helped them to thrive in the unique environment of the Galapagos Islands, and it serves as a powerful illustration of the adaptive power of natural selection.

[tex]\large\underline{\red{ \textsf{ Darwin's observation on Galapagos Islands :-}}}[/tex]

Darwin during his voyage in ship HMS Beagle went to Galapagos islands . There he observed some birds which were similar except the shape and size of the beaks , later those birds were called Darwin's finches.

He observed that the birds had different feeding habits, some of them were insectivorus , and some were frugivorous , he conjectured that all the birds had evolved from the original seed eating finches .

Due to adaptive radiation ( Darwin's finches are one of best examples ) there beaks got modified for different feeding habits , so they had different lengths and shapes of the beaks .

please help me i need to know how many amino acids are different and what kind of mutation each mutated dna sequence is

Answers

Base substitutions, deletions, and insertions are the three forms of DNA mutations.

Define mutation.

A mutation is a change in the sequence of genes. Mutations can be as simple as replacing a single DNA building block, or nucleotide base, with another nucleotide base. Larger mutations, on the other hand, can influence multiple genes on a chromosome. A point mutation occurs when one base in the DNA is changed to another. A missense mutation arises when that point mutation results in the placement of a different amino acid from that codon. Due to the fact that numerous codons code for the same amino acid, not all point mutations result in a missense mutation.

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Weathering by abrasion, could
occur with what

Answers

Moving water causes abrasion as particles in the water collide and bump against one another.

FILL IN THE BLANK Please match the stages of the population growth curve with the statements that most accurately describe them. 1. lag phase ____ 2. exponential growth phase ____ 3. stationary growth phase ____ 4. death phase ____ v

Answers

The following are the statements that most accurately describe the stages of the population growth curve. The correct order is 1 - Lag phase, 2 - Exponential growth phase, 3 - Stationary growth phase, and 4 - Death phase

Lag phase: The initial phase of growth in which the population is acclimating to its new environment and growth is slow.

Exponential growth phase: This phase is characterized by the rapid, exponential growth of the population. The growth rate is at its maximum, and the population size is increasing at its greatest rate.

Stationary growth phase: In this phase, the population growth rate slows down, and the size of the population stabilizes. This phase occurs when the population reaches the carrying capacity of the environment.

Death phase: This phase occurs when the population size starts to decline. It can be due to limited resources, increased competition for resources, or environmental factors such as disease or predation.

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select observations and inferences that charles darwin made in support of natural selection. multiple select question.

Answers

Answer:

There is competition among individuals for scarce resources, more people are born than can survive to reproduce, and natural selection can alter the characteristics of a population. Individuals are diverse and some variations are inherited. Some individuals survive due to inherited characteristics, making them more likely to reproduce.

Explanation:

Evolution is simply _ ______ __ ___ _______ ______ __ _ __________ ____ ____.

Answers

Evolution is simply the differential survival and reproduction of better-adapted organisms in a population.

What is the process of natural selection associated with evolution?

The process of natural selection associated with evolution refers to the differential survival and reproduction of the fittest adaptive phenotypes in a given population, which leads to the change in the morphological and genetic features of organisms in a population and also among species.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that process of natural selection associated with evolution lead to the emergence of new phenotypes in the population.

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Evolution is simply the process of change in living organisms over time. It is a fundamental concept in biology that describes how species can undergo genetic and phenotypic changes across generations. Through mechanisms such as natural selection, genetic mutation, genetic recombination, and genetic drift, populations can accumulate and pass on advantageous traits while losing or modifying less beneficial ones.

Evolution is driven by the interaction between organisms and their environment. Individuals with traits that provide a survival advantage or reproductive success are more likely to pass on their genes to future generations. Over time, this can lead to the emergence of new species, the extinction of others, and the diversification of life forms on Earth.

Evolution is supported by a wide range of evidence, including fossil records, comparative anatomy, embryology, molecular biology, and genetic studies. It provides a powerful framework for understanding the complexity and diversity of life on our planet and how species adapt and change in response to their surroundings.

are the following statements descriptions of the innate immune system, adaptive immune system, or both?

Answers

The innate immune system, which is present from birth, is the first line of protection against invading pathogens.

a. The innate immune system reacts to an infection within minutes to hours of exposure, providing quick but non-specific defense against a broad range of pathogens.

b. Outline the innate and adaptive defense systems. Both innate and adaptive immune cells can identify and respond to pathogens, but they do so via different mechanisms.

c. Outline the innate and adaptive defense systems. To mount a reaction against invading pathogens, both innate and adaptive immune cells can be recruited to the site of infection.

d. Explain the natural immune system. The innate immune system responds to pathogens in a non-specific manner, meaning that it does not differentiate between different kinds of pathogens and reacts in the same way to any invading organism.

e. The adaptive immune system is described. The adaptive immune system is capable of detecting and responding to a specific pathogen.

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Complete question

Are the following statements descriptions of the innate immune system, adaptive immune system, or both?

a. responds to an infection within minutes to hours.

b. cells can detect pathogens.

c. can be recruited to the site of infection.

d. response is non-specific.

e. response to specific pathogen.

What is the relationship between tropic level and population size

Answers

Explanation:

A trophic level refers to the position of an organism in a food chain, based on what it eats and what eats it. The first trophic level consists of primary producers, such as plants, that convert energy from the sun into organic matter through photosynthesis. The second trophic level consists of herbivores that feed on primary producers, while the third trophic level consists of carnivores that feed on herbivores, and so on.

The size of a population at a particular trophic level can be influenced by a variety of factors, such as the availability of food, the presence of predators, competition for resources, and environmental conditions. For example, if the population of primary producers in an ecosystem is large and healthy, this can support a larger population of herbivores that feed on them. Similarly, if the population of herbivores is large and healthy, this can support a larger population of carnivores that feed on them.

the relationship between trophic level and population size is complex and can be influenced by a variety of factors. The size of a population at a particular trophic level is dependent on the availability of resources and environmental conditions, as well as the interactions between different species in the ecosystem.

Explanation:

I think you mean - Trophic Level not 'tropic level'

In general, as you move up the trophic levels, there tends to be a decrease in population size. This is because each level of the food chain supports a smaller number of organisms than the level below it, due to the transfer of energy and nutrients from one level to the next.

See in the pyramid below, energy is lost in this transfer between trophic levels (usually around 90%).  

name 5 ways of controlling the spread of Hiv Aids

Answers

Answer:

Hiv stands for the acronym HUMAN IMMUNO DEFICIENCY VIRUS while aids stand for ACQUIRED IMMUNO DEFICIENCY SYNDROME.

Explanation:

How to control HIV aids

1: Use sterilized needles

2: Don’t share needles

3: Consider intimate activities that don’t involve the exchange of bodily fluids

4: You can use strategies such as abstinence (not having sex), never sharing needles, and using condoms the right way every time you have sex. You may also be able to take advantage of HIV prevention medicines such as pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) and post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP).

Move the descriptions into the correct boxes to assess your understanding of the differences between endospores and vegetative cells.

Answers

The endospore can be viewed as a dormant form of the cell, whereas the vegetative cell, which is the active form for bacterial cells (growing, metabolizing, etc.), is the active form.

Although it enables survival in difficult circumstances, it prevents the cell from expanding or procreating. A vegetative cell is a cell that is active and capable of procreation. An endospore is a spore in a capsule that can survive under difficult circumstances. Although being alive or active, it cannot create offspring or ATP (metabolize).

Vegetative cells that have lost their pigment pick up the counterstain and take on a pink hue; endospores are light green. Endospores are typically light green oval or spherical structures after staining; they can be seen inside or outside of the vegetative cells, which are pink.

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Correct Question:

What are the differences between vegetative cells and endospores?

explain the socio-economic challenges that exist in rural areas​

Answers

Answer:

Rural communities face challenges related to demographic changes, workforce development, capital access, infrastructure, health, land.

Explanation:

Some of the most significant examples of socio-economic issues would include things like: Income levels within a community. The kind of educational opportunities that exist. The employment situation of a community. Safety within a community.

Some socioeconomic challenges that exist in rural areas are things like education. Quality education may not be provided due to limited resources

Why does a microscope stage have a small hole in it?

Answers

Answer : it allows light to pass from the light source underneath the stage through the slide specimen.

Answer:  to allow light to pass through

Explanation:

Which of the following abbreviations does NOT refer to a type of diabetes?
NIDDM
GDM
DI
CGM
DM

Answers

The abbreviation "DI" does not refer to a type of diabetes.

Diabetes Insipidus, also known as DI, is a relatively uncommon illness in which the body has trouble controlling its water balance.

The remaining acronyms all denote different forms or methods of treating diabetes:

Insulin resistance and a relative insulin deficit are features of Type 2 diabetes, also known as NIDDM (Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus).

Pregnancy-related diabetes called gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).

A gadget called a CGM (Continuous Glucose Monitor) is used by diabetics to continuously monitor their blood glucose levels.

A class of metabolic illnesses known as DM (Diabetes Mellitus) are characterized by elevated blood sugar levels.

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the last stage of one complete turn of the calvin cycle involves regeneration of . group of answer choices sugar co2 g3p rubp

Answers

Regeneration of rubp occurs in the last phase of a single calvin cycle rotation. RuBP is renewed at the last step of the Calvin Cycle, allowing the system to get ready to fix additional CO2. Option 4 is Correct.

The light-independent processes are started and carbon dioxide is fixed in the first phase of the Calvin cycle. The C3 cycle's second step involves the reduction of 3PGA to G3P by ATP and NADPH. After that, ATP and NADPH are changed into ATP and NADP+. RuBP is renewed in the last phase.

Three phases make up the Calvin cycle. Stage 1 of the process involves the enzyme RuBisCO adding carbon dioxide to an organic molecule. The organic molecule is decreased in stage two. RuBP, the cycle's initiator molecule, appears in stage 3. Hence, Option 4 is Correct.

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Correct Question:

The last stage of one complete turn of the calvin cycle involves regeneration of . group of answer choices

1. sugar

2. co2

3. g3p

4. rubp

The T cell receptor (TCR) on T helper cells most likely recognizes:
A. short peptides inside a non-enzymatic protein.
B. long peptides inside an enzymatic protein.
C. short polysaccharides inside an enzymatic protein.
D. long-chain fatty acids inside a non-enzymatic protein. ​

Answers

Option A. The T cell receptor (TCR) on T helper cells most likely recognizes:  short peptides inside a non-enzymatic protein.

What are  T cell receptor (TCR)?

The T cell receptor (TCR) on T helper cells most likely recognizes short peptides inside a non-enzymatic protein.

T helper cells play a critical role in the adaptive immune response, specifically by recognizing and responding to foreign antigens displayed on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs). The TCR on T helper cells binds to antigenic peptides that are displayed on the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on the surface of APCs.

In general, the antigenic peptides recognized by TCRs are short peptides (usually 8-20 amino acids in length) that are derived from proteins that have been degraded within the APC. These peptides can come from non-enzymatic proteins or enzymatic proteins, but they are typically not long enough to constitute entire protein sequences.

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select molecules that have stored potential energy and that can be used in aerobic respiration to generate atp.

Answers

Carbohydrates, lipids, and protein have potential energy, and can be used in aerobic respiration to generate .

Carbohydrate- A carbohydrate is a naturally occurring substance or a derivative of one, made composed of molecules of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. The most prevalent organic compound is a carbohydrate, and all life depends on them.

Lipids- Fatty, waxy, or oily molecules are referred to as lipids. They are soluble in organic solvents but insoluble in polar solvents like water.

Amino acids: Amino acids can be used to generate ATP in aerobic respiration as well. They are broken down into intermediates that can enter the Krebs cycle to generate ATP.

Protein- Large, intricate molecules known as proteins serve a variety of vital functions in the body. They are crucial for the construction, operation, and control of the body's tissues and organs and carry out the majority of their job inside cells

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The following question may be like this:

Select all the molecules that have stored potential energy and that can be used in aerobic respiration to generate atp.

a) lipids carbohydrates

b) water proteins

c) carbon dioxide

In pea plants, green pods are dominant to yellow pods. If a green pea pod plant, that had a yellow pea
pod parent, is crossed with a yellow pea pod plant, what percentage of the offspring will have green pea
pods?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Assuming the green pea pod plant is heterozygous (Gg) and the yellow pea pod plant is homozygous recessive (gg), the Punnett square for the cross can be set up as follows:

        G g

g Gg gg

g Gg gg

The possible genotypes of the offspring are: Gg and gg.

Therefore, 50% of the offspring will have green pea pods (Gg) and 50% will have yellow pea pods (gg

fill in the blank. the type of viral infection in which a virus enters a host cell, immediately replicates, and causes the host cell to burst is a___infection.

Answers

The type of viral infection in which a virus enters a host cell immediately replicates and causes the host cell to burst is a lytic infection.

During lytic infection, the virus injects its genetic material into the host cell and uses the host cell's machinery to replicate its own genetic material and produce new viral particles. Once the new viral particles are produced, they cause the host cell to burst or lyse, releasing the viral particles into the surrounding environment where they can infect new host cells.

Lytic infections can occur in a variety of organisms, including bacteria, plants, and animals. They are often associated with acute infections that result in the rapid onset of symptoms and can lead to severe disease or even death if left untreated.

In contrast, latent infection is a type of viral infection in which the virus enters a host cell and integrates its genetic material into the host cell's DNA, remaining dormant until it is reactivated at a later time.

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What is the main interaction between the respiratory and circulatory
systems?
A. They send hormones to each other.
B. They exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.
C. They communicate through neuroendocrine cells.
D. They exchange information across synapses.

Answers

Answer:

B. They exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Explanation:

The main interaction between the respiratory and circulatory systems is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The respiratory system takes in oxygen through inhalation and releases carbon dioxide through exhalation. The circulatory system then transports oxygen-rich blood to the body's tissues and organs, while also picking up carbon dioxide waste to be eliminated from the body. This exchange occurs through the walls of the alveoli in the lungs and the walls of capillaries in the circulatory system. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. The other options, such as sending hormones or exchanging information across synapses, are not directly related to the interaction between the respiratory and circulatory systems.

11 Introduction to Genetics
Information and Heredity
Q: How does biological information poss from one
Big
The diagram below shows what you will read about in this chapter and here the dates in
Chapter Summary
organized Study the diagram. Then answer the questions that follow.
11.3 The Work of
Gregor Mendel
11.2 Applying
Mendel's
10
What is the main concept?.
What will you learn about in Lesson 2?.
Probably and Pur squares
Independent pres
A summary of Mendel's principles
Q Search
L
JL

Answers

The main concept is genetics and how biological information is passed from one generation to the next.

What is genetics ?

Genetics is the study of genes, heredity, and genetic variation in living organisms. It involves the examination and manipulation of genes and the way they are passed down from one generation to the next. Genetics plays a crucial role in understanding how living organisms inherit traits from their parents and how these traits are expressed in different individuals. The study of genetics has many applications in medicine, agriculture, and other fields.

What is  medicine ?

Medicine is a broad term that refers to substances or treatments used to diagnose, cure, treat, or prevent disease, illness, or injury in humans and animals. Medicines can be in the form of drugs, vaccines, medical devices, surgical procedures, and more. They work by targeting specific biological processes or structures in the body to help restore health, relieve symptoms, or prevent disease. Some examples of common medicines include painkillers, antibiotics, chemotherapy drugs, insulin, and vaccines.

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kathy's annuity is currently experiencing tax-deferred growth until she retires. which phase is this

Answers

The phase in which Kathy's annuity is currently experiencing tax-deferred growth until she retires is known as the accumulation phase.

What is meant by the term accumulation phase?

During the accumulation phase, funds invested in the annuity grow tax-deferred, which means that any gains are not taxed until the funds are withdrawn. This allows for potentially greater investment growth over the time, as more of the investment earnings can be reinvested and compounded without being reduced by taxes. Once Kathy retires and begins taking withdrawals from the annuity, it will enter the distribution phase, during which the tax treatment of the funds may change.

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True/False: The Heimlich maneuver is a procedure in which air in the lungs is used to expel a piece of food that obstructs the opening to the trachea.

Answers

False.The Heimlich maneuver, also known as abdominal thrusts, is a first aid procedure used to dislodge an obstruction from a person's windpipe, or trachea.

What is a trachea ?

The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that connects the larynx, or voice box, to the bronchi in the lungs. It is located in the neck and chest and is an important part of the respiratory system.

The trachea is composed of a series of C-shaped rings of cartilage that provide structural support and prevent the trachea from collapsing. The walls of the trachea are lined with a mucous membrane that secretes mucus to help trap and remove foreign particles and microbes from the air before they reach the lungs.

The trachea also contains cilia, tiny hair-like structures that beat in coordinated waves to move mucus and trapped particles up and out of the respiratory system. This helps to protect the lungs from infection and other respiratory diseases.

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[!] which type of neuron would exhibit the pattern of action potentials as seen above in response to a stimulus?

Answers

When exposed to a stimuli, tonic type neurons would respond with the pattern of action potentials seen above. As a neuron transfers information away from the cell body and down an axon, it experiences an action potential.

The action potential is sometimes referred to as a "spike" or a "impulse" by neuroscientists. A neuron's response to threshold or suprathreshold stimuli results in an action potential. Depolarization, overshoot, and repolarization are the three steps that make up this process.

A neuron's action potential is a fast, transient shift in membrane potential (electrical charge) brought on by the quick inflow of sodium and outflow of potassium. Neurons have the capacity to transmit impulses, react to stimuli (such as touch, sound, light, and so on), and interact with one another.

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If a person has a mutation in the GLUT-1 gene that results in diminished transport capacity, which of the following is most likely to result?A. Cognitive difficultiesB. Type I diabetes mellitusC. Type II diabetes mellitusD. An increase in the production of GLUT-2 transport proteins in the body

Answers

Cognitive problems are almost certainly going to result from a glut-1 gene mutation that causes diminished transport capacity.Most people refer to it as GLUT1 deficient syndrome.

Developmental delay, intellectual incapacity, mobility issues, and frequent seizures are just a few of the neurological symptoms that can result from this condition (epilepsy). The function of the GLUT1 protein is diminished or lost as a result of the mutations that produce GLUT1 deficiency syndrome.

The head size of infants with common GLUT1 deficiency syndrome is normal at birth, but the brain and skull generally grow slowly, which might cause an abnormally small head size (microcephaly ). Some symptoms of GLUT1 deficient syndrome can include intellectual impairment or developmental delay.

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A farmer wanted to control wind erosion across a 1200 foot field. The wind blows predominately in that direction (i.e., across the 1200 foot field). She decided to plant a windbreak that would be 20 ft tall at maturity. How many windbreaks should she plant, assuming that the windbreaks are perpendicular to the predominate wind direction? Recall from the Lecture 7 slides that the downwind area protected by a tree is 20 times greater than the height of the tree.
Group of answer choices

6

15

10

3​

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The downwind area protected by a tree is 20 times greater than the height of the tree. Therefore, a windbreak that is 20 ft tall at maturity would protect an area of 20 x 20 = 400 ft downwind.

To cover a 1200 ft field, the farmer would need to divide it into sections of 400 ft and plant a windbreak at the end of each section. This would require a total of 1200/400 = 3 windbreaks.

Therefore, the farmer should plant 3 windbreaks to control wind erosion across her 1200 foot field. The answer is option D.

What type of organisms first move into an area after a primary disturbance?
A. Small animals that need shade to survive B. Plants that cannot live in severe conditions C. Organisms that reproduce quickly
D. Animals that prey on small animals​

Answers

Organisms that arrive first in a region following a disturbance are known as pioneer species.

What is pioneer species?Pioneer species are hardy species that are the first to colonise arid regions or previously biodiverse steady-state ecosystems that have been disturbed, such as by wildfire. Pioneer species are the first creatures to appear in areas of primary succession (usually lichens or mosses). They are the first species to exist. They must be hardy and powerful. The growth of a new community is succession.Fungi and lichen are the most prevalent pioneer species during initial succession on land. They create soil by dissolving rock's minerals, allowing later populations to settle the area. Pioneer species are those that enter a freshly formed environment initially. By their interactions, these species develop a basic beginning biological community.

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which of the following are among the first carbohydrates formed by algae and green plants when exposed to light?

Answers

The first carbohydrates formed by algae and green plants when exposed to light are typically simple sugars such as glucose and fructose.

These sugars are produced during the process of photosynthesis, which occurs in specialized organelles called chloroplasts. In photosynthesis, light energy is used to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen. Glucose is then used as a source of energy for the plant or stored as starch for later use.

Fructose can also be produced from glucose through a series of chemical reactions. These simple sugars are essential building blocks for the more complex carbohydrates that plants and algae produce as they grow and mature.

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which of the following are among the first carbohydrates formed by algae and green plants when exposed to light?

complete the following chart to describe the characteristics of the fungal phyla. each label can only be used once.

Answers

The six fungal phyla with their key features and methods of reproduction,

a. Ascomycota - Ascus with spores, sexual.

b. Basidiomycota - Basidiocarp fruiting body, sexual.

c. Chytridiomycota - Zoospores, the life cycle is an alternation of generations.

d. Neocallimastigomycota - Zoospores, strictly anaerobic.

e. Glomeromycota - Spores, asexual.

f. Blastocladiomycota - Zoospores, some exhibit alternation of generations.

This is a list of the six fungal phyla with their key features and methods of reproduction are:

a. Phylum - Ascomycota

Reproduction - Ascus with spores, sexual

Key Features - Ascocarp fruiting body (mushroom), yeasts, molds

b. Phylum - Basidiomycota

Reproduction - Basidiocarp fruiting body, sexual

Key Features - Symbiotic with plants, decomposers

c. Phylum - Chytridiomycota

Reproduction - In zoospores, the life cycle is an alternation of generations

Key Features - Simplest fungi, aquatic

d. Phylum - Neocallimastigomycota

Reproduction - Zoospores, strictly anaerobic

Key Features - Lack mitochondria; live exclusively in the guts of herbivores

e. Phylum - Glomeromycota

Reproduction - Spores, asexual

Key Features - Symbiotic with plants, mycorrhizal fungi

f. Phylum - Blastocladiomycota

Reproduction - Zoospores, some exhibit alternation of generations

Key Features - Terrestrial or aquatic; includes Physoderma plant pathogen

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The question is -

Complete the following chart to describe the characteristics of the fungal phyla. Each label can only be used once.

In fruit flies, brown bodies are dominant to black bodies. Cross two heterozygous fruit flies. Determine
the phenotypic and genotypic ratios. Then determine how many fruit flies, if 200 are born, will have
black bodies.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

In this case, we can use Punnett square to determine the genotypic and phenotypic ratios of the offspring:

             B               b

B BB (brown) Bb (brown)

b Bb (brown) bb (black)

So, when we cross two heterozygous fruit flies (Bb x Bb), we get the following genotypic ratios:

25% BB (brown)

50% Bb (brown)

25% bb (black)

And the following phenotypic ratios:

75% brown bodies

25% black bodies

Therefore, if 200 fruit flies are born, we can estimate that 25% of them will have black bodies, which is:

0.25 x 200 = 50 fruit flies

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