What is it called when a foreign gene is inserted into an organism?
When a foreign gene is inserted into an organism, it is referred to as genetic engineering.
Genetic engineering is the method of modifying the genetic material of an organism, either by direct gene transfer or by selective breeding, to obtain desirable traits or to get a better understanding of the organism's genetics. It entails inserting, deleting, or changing genes in an organism's genetic code.The foreign gene is introduced into the organism by a vector. A vector is a carrier that carries genetic material from one organism to another. Plasmids, bacteriophages, and viral vectors are some of the most common vectors used in genetic engineering.
The foreign gene, for example, is isolated from its original organism and then inserted into a vector, which then carries it into the host organism.The new genetic material is then incorporated into the host organism's DNA. If it is carried out in a gamete, it will be inherited by the organism's progeny, resulting in genetic modification or genetic engineering of the species. The introduced gene might come from a different species, a natural variant of the organism, or a totally artificial construct, such as a gene designed to treat a genetic illness. The technique has a variety of uses, including biotechnology, agriculture, and medicine.
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Where are the low-energy electrons located after the electron transport chain is completed?- They are recycled to earlier steps in the process.- They are added to H+ to form H.- They are located in the cytoplasm, where they contribute to the overall negative charge of the cell.- They are located in the bonds of H2O.- They are located in the bonds of ATP after chemiosmosis.
The low energy electrons after the electron transport chain (ETC) is completed: (4) They are located in the bonds of H₂O.
ETC is a series of electron transporters present in the inner mitochondrial membrane and the thylakoid of chloroplast through which the electrons are transported. This process is coupled with the formation of proton gradient which is used to generate energy components like ATP and NADPH.
The low energy electrons are the same high energy electrons at the beginning of the ETC. After passing through the series of transporters they lose their energy and complete the process by reducing the available oxygen molecule by the formation of water (H₂O).
Therefore the correct answer is option 4.
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what do researchers think is one cause of memory impairment related to growing older
One cause of memory impairment related to growing older, according to researchers is the decline in cognitive processing speed.
As we age, the rate at which we process information gradually slows down, resulting in difficulties with tasks that require us to process information quickly and accurately.
This cognitive slowing is thought to be related to changes in the brain that occur as we age, such as reduced brain volume and reduced connectivity between different regions of the brain. Additionally, factors such as stress, poor sleep, and certain medical conditions can also contribute to memory impairment.
To help maintain memory and cognitive function as we age, it is important to engage in activities that challenge the brain, such as learning new skills, reading, and engaging in social activities.
A healthy lifestyle, including a balanced diet, regular exercise, and good sleep habits, can also help support brain health and reduce the risk of cognitive decline.
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A teenager swears at the dinner table, and as a result, her parents take away her iPad for one week. The teenager is now much less likely to swear at the dinner table, illustrating:
A) positive punishment.
B) positive reinforcement.
C) negative punishment.
D) negative reinforcement.
The teenager is now much less likely to swear at the dinner table, illustrating negative punishment. Therefore, the correct option will be C.
What is Negative Punishment?Negative punishment is a behavior-reducing process. It entails the removal of a desirable stimulus or a reduction in the availability of it, resulting in a reduction in behavior's likelihood to occur. Negative punishment is demonstrated when a specific action leads to the withdrawal of a stimulus, making it less likely for that action to occur in the future.
The best example of negative punishment is where the parents of the teenage girl took away her iPad for a week after she swore at the dinner table.
Thus, the correct option will be C.
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The neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called _____ neurons. sensory contractile inhibitory → motorassociation
The neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called motor neurons. Neurons are specialized cells that communicate with one another and transfer information from one region of the brain to another.
In the nervous system, these cells are the building blocks. Neurons are responsible for transmitting electrical and chemical signals in the body, and they make up the nervous system. When it comes to transmitting signals, neurons are divided into three categories. They are sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons.Motor neurons:Motor neurons are a type of neuron that helps in the transmission of signals from the brain or spinal cord to muscles or other organs. They are responsible for sending messages from the central nervous system (CNS) to the body's effector organs (muscles and glands).
The neuron that stimulates muscle contraction is known as a motor neuron. Motor neurons are involved in generating voluntary or involuntary movement of muscles. The central nervous system's motor neurons are involved in activities such as movement and posture control, while the peripheral nervous system's motor neurons control muscle contractions. In conclusion, the neurons that stimulate muscle contraction are called motor neurons.
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After analyzing the Hydroponic Plant setup, consider what can be ELIMINATED from the list of candidates of where food molecules in plants are coming from.
Look at the Hydroponic Plant Food (HPF) nutritional value. What is the HPF supposed to do? What is it for?
Does HPF have food molecules in it?
So what does this mean?
Your complete answer should be 3-5 sentences. Use the guiding questions to develop your response!
The Hydroponic Plant Food (HPF) is a nutrient solution used to provide necessary minerals and elements to plants. HPF does not contain food molecules. Therefore, it can be eliminated as a candidate for where food molecules in plants come from.
What is Hydroponic Plant Food?
Hydroponic Plant Food (HPF) is a specially formulated nutrient solution designed for hydroponic plant systems. It contains a balanced blend of essential minerals and nutrients that plants need to grow and thrive, such as nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, and magnesium. HPF is typically added to the water in the hydroponic system to provide plants with the necessary nutrients for healthy growth.
What are the nutrients?
Nutrients are substances that are essential for the growth, development, and maintenance of living organisms. In the context of hydroponic plant growth, nutrients refer to the essential mineral elements that are required by plants for healthy growth and development. These include macronutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium, as well as micronutrients such as iron, manganese, and zinc.
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To help explain how it might be that Jonah could have lost voluntary motor function of his legs and still be able to feel, the doctor drew out a simple sensory and motor pathway.
Drag and drop the labels to describe the proper order of sensory input and motor output.
Labels read as:
1.) Somatic sensory neuron to dorsal horn of spinal cord
2.) Internueron between thalamus and primary somatosensory cortex
3.) Internueron from primary motor cortex to ventral horn of spinal cord in lumbar region
4.) Internuerons through white matter of spinal cord to thalamus
5.) Somatic motor neuron from ventral horn of spinal cord to skeletal muscles of leg.
The correct order of sensory input and motor output:
1.) Somatic sensory neuron to dorsal horn of spinal cord.
4.) Internuerons through white matter of spinal cord to thalamus.
2.) Internueron between thalamus and primary somatosensory cortex.
3.) Internueron from primary motor cortex to ventral horn of spinal cord in lumbar region.
5.) Somatic motor neuron from ventral horn of spinal cord to skeletal muscles of leg.
Sensory input is the transmission of impulses from the peripheral sensory receptors to the central nervous system (CNS) where they are processed and analyzed. The neurons that respond to stimuli and transmit the information to the CNS are called sensory neurons.
Motor output, on the other hand, refers to the transmission of impulses from the CNS to the effectors such as muscles, glands, and organs. Motor neurons, also known as efferent neurons, transmit information from the CNS to the periphery of the body.
The order of sensory input and motor output is as follows:
Somatic sensory neuron to dorsal horn of spinal cord. This neuron responds to a stimulus and sends an impulse to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, which is the first site of synaptic processing.Internuerons through white matter of spinal cord to thalamus. These neurons relay the impulse to the thalamus, where it is processed and filtered before being transmitted to the cortex.Internueron between thalamus and primary somatosensory cortex. This neuron receives the impulse from the thalamus and carries it to the primary somatosensory cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting somatic sensory information.Internueron from primary motor cortex to ventral horn of spinal cord in lumbar region. This neuron receives motor commands from the primary motor cortex and sends them to the ventral horn of the spinal cord, which contains motor neurons that control the muscles of the body.Somatic motor neuron from ventral horn of spinal cord to skeletal muscles of leg. This neuron receives the motor command from the spinal cord and sends it to the skeletal muscles of the leg, which are the effectors that produce the desired response.Learn more about Sensory input:
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is the genetic code is said to be because more than one codon can specify the same amino acid?
Yes. The genetic codes have degenerates and multiple codes can specify a single amino acid.
The genetic codesYes, the genetic code is said to be degenerate or redundant because more than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
There are 20 different amino acids commonly found in proteins, but there are 64 possible codons in the genetic code, which means that most amino acids are specified by more than one codon.
This redundancy provides a degree of error tolerance to the genetic code, as a mutation in a single nucleotide may not necessarily result in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein.
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The point at which the indicator in the reactant solution changes color is the _____ of the titration.
A. end point
B. equivalence point
C. reaction point
D. standard point
The point at which the indicator in the reactant solution changes color is the end point of the titration. Therefore the correct option is option A.
Titration is a laboratory procedure used to determine the concentration of a known reactant or solute in a sample using a known quantity of another reactant or solute. This known reactant is known as the titrant. A standard solution is a solution of a known concentration of a reagent that is utilized in a titration.
In a titration, the endpoint is the point at which the titration is complete. The endpoint of a titration is often determined by a chemical change in the solution, such as a color change or precipitation.
The titrant's endpoint is determined by the titration's endpoint. The point at which the indicator in the reactant solution changes color is the endpoint of the titration. Therefore the correct option is option A.
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suppose all poaching could be stopped and no more elephants would be slaughtered for Tusk ivory. what would future populations of African forest elephants look like? would any elephants be Born tuskless? explain.
Comparing historical videos to contemporary footage revealed an increase from 19% to 51% in the percentage of female elephants lacking tusks, despite the population declining.
TuskThirty percent of females born after the war lack tusks.A pair of information chromosomes—XX for females and XY for males—determines the sex of mammals. The Princeton biologists hypothesized that the tuskless feature was connected to the X since tusks are almost universally present in male elephants. If the genes responsible for developing tusks are fatal when found on a male's single X chromosome, a female with two Xs may be saved provided they inherit one healthy copy of the gene. Such theory is supported by the tuskless trait's genetic inheritance pattern.For more information on elephant poaching kindly visit to
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In birds ,males are homogametic sex(XX),females are heterogametic (XY)
Light Sussex have mostly white plumage(feathers)and Rhode Island fowls have mostly red
The character white feathered (R) is dominant to the character red (r)
2. 1 Explain why on mating Rhode Island cockerels with white Sussex hens,all male offspring have white plumage and all females red
When mating the white feathered trait is dominate while the red feathered is resesive so both parents would have to have red feathers for there offspring to have red feathers.
Dominant refers to the transmission of qualities that are normally carried vertically from parent to kid, where both the parent and the child are impacted by the trait or disorder linked to that gene. The most prevalent form is autosomal dominant, in which the affected person carries both the pathogenic and benign alleles of the linked gene, which is located on one of the 22 non-sex chromosomes. One harmful allele is enough to provide the characteristic in this inheritance pattern. The 50% likelihood of passing on the trait to kids is caused by an affected person having just one of two copies of the pathogenic gene.
Recessive, as it relates to genetics, describes the connection between an observed trait and the two inherited forms of a gene associated with that trait. Each gene has two alleles that an individual receives from each parent. When a trait is recessive, both of the (recessive) alleles of the gene that causes it must be present for the trait to manifest. When there is only one copy of an allele, it does not create any traits at all. In contrast, a dominant trait can only be expressed if one of the two alleles is present.
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what is the name for mammals who keep their young in pouches?
The name for mammals who keep their young in pouches is marsupials.
Marsupials are a group of mammals that give birth to relatively undeveloped young that complete their development in the mother's pouch. The young are born after a short gestation period of just a few weeks, which is followed by a long nursing period.
During this time, the young rely on the mother's milk for nutrition and are sheltered within her pouch, where they are kept warm and protected from predators.Marsupials are found mainly in Australia and the Americas. Some examples of marsupials include kangaroos, wallabies, koalas, opossums, and wombats.
The pouch varies in size and shape depending on the species and provides a protected environment where the young can grow and develop without being exposed to the dangers of the outside world.
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scientists hypothesize that over millions of years, the y chromosome has lost genes to the x chromosome. during what stages of meiosis might the y chromosome have transferred genes to the x chromosome? explain.
Scientists hypothesize that over millions of years, the Y chromosome has lost genes to the X chromosome. In meiosis, the X and Y chromosomes pair during the pachytene stage. As a result, DNA recombination occurs.
The non-homologous regions of the X and Y chromosomes are unpaired. As a result, the Y chromosome will act as a substrate for meiotic recombination. As a result, some genes are transferred from the Y chromosome to the X chromosome.
A mutation in the male-determining chromosome (the Y chromosome) will be passed on to subsequent generations without any opportunity for recombination, as males only have one copy of this chromosome.
As a result, the Y chromosome will be more susceptible to mutational deterioration than the X chromosome, which is more frequently recombined in both sexes. This is one of the reasons that the Y chromosome is used to track evolutionary relationships within species.
The X chromosome is also subject to mutation and recombination, but because females have two copies of this chromosome, it is not as susceptible to loss.
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as you lean your arm against the front edge of your desk, you are compressing vessels and thereby decreasing the diameter of those vessels. as this occurs, you should expect blood flow toward your hand to increase. (true or false)
It is FALSE as you lean your arm against the front edge of your desk, you are compressing vessels and thereby decreasing the diameter of those vessels. as this occurs, you should expect blood flow toward your hand to increase.
The passage of blood through the circulatory system is referred to as blood flow. The heart pumps blood through a network of blood vessels, including arteries, veins, and capillaries, to transport it throughout the body. Delivering nutrition and oxygen to tissues, eliminating waste, and controlling body temperature all depend on blood flow.
Vascular compression can cause blood flow to decrease because it reduces the diameter of the vessels. As a result, you should anticipate a drop in blood flow to your hand rather than an increase as you lean your arm against the front edge of your desk and compress the veins.
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A mutation that actually interferes with the function of the wild-type allele by specifying polypeptides that inhibit, antagonize, or limit the activity of the wild-type polypeptide is known as:
A mutation that actually interferes with the function of the wild-type allele by specifying polypeptides that inhibit, antagonize, or limit the activity of the wild-type polypeptide is known as Dominant negative mutation.
Dominant negative mutation refers to a genetic alteration that can disrupt or prevent the action of a typical (wild-type) protein. A protein's structural or functional properties may be affected by the mutation, reducing the effectiveness of the gene. This mutation's influence can be demonstrated in a heterozygous organism, where the presence of a wild-type allele may be suppressed by the mutated allele. The allele's adverse effect is so strong that it will overcome the wild-type phenotype, making the recessive allele's influence irrelevant. Their polypeptides function by inhibiting, antagonizing, or limiting the action of a typical (wild-type) polypeptide.
However, A dominant negative mutation interferes with a protein's activity, frequently causing it to lose its ability to interact with other proteins or DNA. This results in the formation of dysfunctional protein complexes that can result in a variety of illnesses.
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what type of sensory memory is categorized as auditory memory?
The type of sensory memory that is categorized as auditory memory is called echoic memory.
Echoic memory refers to the brief retention of auditory information that is heard for a few seconds after the sound has ended. This memory system allows the brain to process and make sense of sounds, such as speech or music, and to remember them briefly even after they are no longer present.
The duration of echoic memory can be up to 10 seconds, depending on the complexity of the auditory information and the level of attention paid to it. Echoic memory is a crucial component of language processing and is important for communication and comprehension.
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what is the difference between a compound microscope and a dissecting microscope? the light passes through the object you are observing in a compound microscope, whereas the light reflects off the object in a dissecting microscope
A compound microscope is used to magnify objects too small to be seen by the na.k.ed eye, while a dissecting microscope is used to magnify objects that are already visible to the na.k.ed eye, such as specimens of plants or animals.
Compound microscopes and dissecting microscopes differ from each other in several ways. The differences are summarized below:
Compound microscopes are used to examine specimens that are too small to be seen with the na.k.ed eye, while dissecting microscopes are used to examine specimens that are too large to be examined with a compound microscope. Compound microscopes use two lenses to magnify the image, while dissecting microscopes use multiple lenses to create a three-dimensional image. Compound microscopes have a high magnification power, while dissecting microscopes have a lower magnification power. Compound microscopes are used to examine transparent or thin specimens, while dissecting microscopes are used to examine opaque or thick specimens. Compound microscopes have a longer working distance, while dissecting microscopes have a shorter working distance. Compound microscopes are used to view living cells, while dissecting microscopes are used to view larger specimens such as insects or plant parts. Compound microscopes are used in biology, medicine, and chemistry, while dissecting microscopes are used in biology, geology, and materials science.Learn more about microscope at https://brainly.com/question/820911
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watson and crick proposed the double helix structure model for dna in 1953. which of the following facts was not useful to them in deciding on the molecular model they proposed?
Watson and Crick proposed the double helix structure model for DNA in 1953. The following facts was not useful to them in deciding on the molecular model they proposed is Meselson and Stahl's evidence that DNA replicated semi-conservatively.
Watson and Crick used various facts to determine the molecular model they proposed, including the following: Chargaff's Rule, this rule shows that the amount of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine in DNA is constant. It also demonstrates that adenine and thymine are complementary base pairs, while guanine and cytosine are complementary base pairs.
X-ray crystallography, the X-ray diffraction pattern of the DNA molecule, discovered by Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins, aided Watson and Crick in constructing the double helix structure model of DNA. The double helix structure model of DNA, Watson and Crick constructed the double helix structure model of DNA based on the complementary base pairing of adenine and thymine and guanine and cytosine. The complementary base pairs' weak hydrogen bonds form between the two strands of the helix, stabilizing the double helix structure.
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Why is an action potential an all-or-none response
An action potential is an all-or-none response because it is triggered when the membrane potential of a neuron reaches a certain threshold level, at which point an action potential is initiated and propagated down the axon.
The threshold level is a specific voltage that must be reached in order to trigger an action potential. Once the threshold level is reached, the action potential will always be the same size and duration, regardless of the strength of the stimulus that triggered it. In other words, the response of the neuron is "all-or-none" - it either fires an action potential or it does not, and the size and duration of the action potential are constant.
This is because the initiation and propagation of an action potential depend on the opening and closing of ion channels in the neuron's membrane. When the membrane potential reaches the threshold level, voltage-gated ion channels open, allowing positively charged ions (such as sodium) to rapidly flow into the neuron, depolarizing the membrane and initiating an action potential.
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What are the strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
There are four strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae:
Strain gravisStrain intermediusStrain mitisStrain BelfantiCorynebacterium diphtheriae is a pathogenic gram-positive bacterium that causes diphtheria in humans. It is rod-shaped, non-motile, non-sporing, and non-capsulated. There are four strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae, each characterized by the type of toxin produced:
Strain gravis: Produces the most potent diphtheria toxin and is responsible for the most severe cases of diphtheria.Strain intermedius: Produces an intermediate amount of toxin and can cause moderate to severe diphtheria.Strain mitis: Produces the least amount of toxin and generally causes milder cases of diphtheria.Strain belfanti: A rare strain that has been isolated from a single case of diphtheria and produces a unique toxin that differs from those produced by the other strains.Learn more about corynebacterium diphtheria: https://brainly.com/question/29816663
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how are the antennae chelipeds, other walking legs, and swimmerets related?
They're all just limbs. The long antennae are utilised to physically sense a place, such the crevice's contours.
The tiny antennules are used to detect motion in the water, which may also be a sign of food, a fling, or danger, as well as to aid the creature in smelling for food, mates, or harmful predators. The antennae in crayfish come in two pairs. The brief pair is referred to as an antennule. Food and water are tasted through antennae. The crayfish's long antennae are employed for their touch sense, which aids in helping them locate food and detect vibrations from nearby predators.
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While on a hike you find Quant plants with blue flowers and Quant plants with white flowers surrounding a secluded lake. You do the unthinkable and take four Quant plants back to the lab, none of which have flowers yet. Luckily when flowers emerge you notice that you have two plants with blue flowers and two white flower bearing plants. You allow these plants to self with the following results and then complete two crosses. 3. Progeny Number White Blue 89 Pollination Blue plant #1 (self) white plant #1 (self) Blue plant #2 (self) White plant #2 (self) 38 18 59 54 | Blue #1 x White #2 Blue #2 x white #1 62 38 How many genes are involved in Quant flower petal pigmentation? Describe type of dominance is exhibited by the genels) and alleles? What are the genotypes of the four plants you brought back to the lab? what genotypic and phenotypic ratios would you expect if you crossed Blue #1 with white #1?
There are two genes involved in Quant flower petal pigmentation, and the type of dominance exhibited is incomplete dominance and the expected phenotypic ratio will be 1:1.
What is the phenotypic ratio?The genotypes of the four plants brought back to the lab are two blue homozygous plants (BB), one white homozygous plant (ww), and one heterozygous plant (Bw). If we crossed Blue #1 with White #1, it is expected to have a genotypic ratio of 1 Blue homozygous (BB) to 1 White homozygous (ww) and a phenotypic ratio of 1 Blue flower (Bw) to 1 White flower (Bw).
The color of the flower in Quant plants can be determined by two genes involved in flower pigmentation. Each gene has two alleles, and each of the alleles shows a co-dominant expression. The genotypes of the four plants that were brought to the lab are not known. A total of four genotypes is possible. These are; White - homozygous recessive (ww), White - heterozygous (Ww), Blue - heterozygous (Bw), and Blue - homozygous dominant (BB).
In the cross of Blue #1 with white #1, the genotypic and phenotypic ratios that would be expected are as follows; Phenotypic ratio: 1: 1, Genotypic ratio: 1 WW: 1 Bw.
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T/F: cell division in both bacterial and eukaryotic cells produces genetically cells.
True. Prokaryotes reproduce via binary fission, which is a rather simple process. Each copy of a single chromosome attaches to a different location on the cell membrane when it multiplies.
Following this, the cell membrane begins to invade, ultimately dividing into two genetically identical bacteria. Similar methods are used to replicate mitochondria in eukaryotic cells, although the process is more challenging overall.
Mitosis, which involves dividing into two genetically identical cells, is the process by which eukaryotic cells replicate themselves. Mitosis is the process by which new cells are produced during the embryonic development and after birth, as well as by which cells that have died or shed are replaced. In humans, some cells can keep dividing even after death. These "stem cells" multiply through mitosis to produce daughter cells.
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elevated portions of the cerebral cortex are called
Elevated portions of the cerebral cortex are called gyri (singular: gyrus).
What is gyri?
Gyri (singular gyrus) are elevated folds or ridges in the cerebral cortex of the brain. They are the prominent curved structures between the sulci, which are the shallow grooves on the surface of the brain. The gyri increase the surface area of the cerebral cortex, allowing for more neurons and synapses to be packed into a relatively small space. The arrangement and patterns of gyri and sulci are unique to each individual and form the basis for identifying different areas of the cerebral cortex.
What is cerebral cortex ?
The cerebral cortex is the outer layer of the brain that covers the cerebrum. It is involved in a variety of functions such as perception, voluntary movement, language, learning, and memory. It is composed of folded gray matter and contains approximately 20 billion neurons and 300 trillion synapses, making it one of the most complex structures in the human body.
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Complete question is: Elevated portions of the cerebral cortex are called gyri
which component is not directly involved with transcription? group of answer choices trna mrna dna rutp
Answer: The component that is not directly involved with transcription is RUTP. RNA Uracil Triphosphate (RUTP) is a cofactor used in the synthesis of proteins but is not directly involved in the process of transcription.
Explanation: Transcription is the process in which genetic information encoded in DNA is used to create messenger RNA (mRNA). This process is an important step in the production of proteins, which are essential for the growth, development, and function of all living organisms.
The steps involved in the transcription process are as follows:
Initiation: RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of DNA and starts transcribing the DNA molecule.
Elongation: RNA polymerase reads the DNA sequence and synthesizes a complementary RNA strand.
Termination: RNA polymerase stops synthesizing RNA when it reaches a terminator sequence, which marks the end of the gene.
The components involved in transcription are as follows:
mRNA (messenger RNA): This is the RNA molecule that carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosome.
TRNA (transfer RNA): This is the RNA molecule that carries amino acids to the ribosome, where they are assembled into a protein.
RNA polymerase: This is the enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template.
Ribosomes: These are the cellular structures where protein synthesis occurs.
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid): DNA stores the genetic code that is used to synthesize RNA, which, in turn, is used to synthesize proteins.
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Similar to the mutation question about gastrin in class, if a mutation stops the ability for pepsinogen to respond to the presence of pepsin, what would happen to pepsin production:
A. Pepsin production would continue as usual
B. Total pepsin quantity would be determined by the amount of pepsinogen already present and stomach acid content
C. Pepsinogen would no longer be produced since it relies on mucus production
D. Gastrin would begin digesting proteins instead
If a mutation stops the ability for pepsinogen to respond to the presence of pepsin, the total pepsin quantity would be determined by the amount of pepsinogen already present and stomach acid content. Thus, the correct option will be B.
What is Pepsinogen?Since pepsinogen enzyme would no longer be activated in the presence of pepsin, pepsinogen would accumulate in the stomach. Pepsinogen would then be activated and converted to pepsin when the stomach is acidic due to the presence of hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach.
A mutation that affects the production of pepsinogen, on the other hand, will decrease the production of pepsin since there would be less pepsinogen to convert to pepsin when the stomach is acidic.
The correct option is B, Total pepsin quantity would be determined by the amount of pepsinogen already present and stomach acid content.
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select all of the following that are typically or always heterotrophs.
Animals, fungi, and certain bacteria are typically or always heterotrophs.
The following that are typically or always heterotrophs are organisms that rely on other organisms for energy and nutrients. They are unable to produce their own food and must consume organic material produced by other living organisms. Examples of heterotrophs include animals, fungi, and some bacteria. Animals are typically heterotrophs, relying on plants or other animals for food. Fungi are also heterotrophs and obtain their energy from decaying organic matter. Certain species of bacteria, such as those in the genus Vibrio, also rely on organic matter for their energy needs. Photosynthetic organisms, such as plants and some bacteria, are typically autotrophs, meaning they can synthesize their own organic compounds using energy from sunlight or inorganic substances.
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which sentence best describes the true nature of natural selection? a) only the strongest survive. b) the strong eliminate the weak in the race for survival. c) organisms change by random chance. d) heritable traits that promote reproduction become more frequent in a population from one generation to the next.
The true nature of natural selection can be best described as "d) heritable traits that promote reproduction become more frequent in a population from one generation to the next.
Through natural selection, traits that promote reproduction become more frequent in a population from one generation to the next. Natural selection is a method that leads to species and organism development by allowing the survival and propagation of organisms with desirable characteristics.
Natural selection is driven by the struggle for existence among organisms in a population, which leads to the death of certain organisms with undesirable characteristics and the growth of organisms with desirable characteristics that enable them to survive and reproduce.
Therefore, correct option is D.
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a population of arctic hares burrows into the snow for shelter. it is found that the hares on the smaller side are able to burrow between rocks, as well, providing extra protection from predators. over time, the hare population becomes smaller in size, shifting the normal distribution curve for hare size. selection type: 8. limpets are a snail species that can often be found on the seashore. they come in 3 variations: dark, light and intermediate. the dark and light colors are easier for sea gulls to spot, and therefore they are more commonly hunted. selection type: 9. if there was a great flood and lemurs that had longer tails were better able to climb and live in trees, while the other phenotypes were not able to survive as well, which type of selection would this be? selection type: 10. in a population of spiders that were hunted by sparrows, the large spiders were easy to spot, but moved very quickly; the small spiders were not very easy to spot; the average size spiders were easier to spot than the small ones, but moved more slowly than the large ones, thus making them the most hunted, which type of selection would this be? selection type: 11. in a wild leopard population, cubs that are born with low birth weights lose heat more quickly and tend to die, while babies that are too large are not able to deliver through the pelvic bones of the mother leopard. this leads to a high mortality rate for cubs that are born too
Directional selection is the term used to explain the type of selection illustrated in the arctic hare scenario. Due to their ability to burrow into tighter areas, the smaller hares have an edge.
What is the purpose of camouflage for the Arctic hare?They have a bright white coat that serves as good concealment in the region of ice and snow throughout the winter. The hare's colours change to a blue-gray hue in the spring to resemble nearby rocks and flora.
What behavioural adaptations do Arctic hares have?Although Arctic hares are solitary animals, during the colder months they wander and gather in large groups with up to 100 members to avoid predators and stay warm. They gather behind a tree for comfort during snowstorms.
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please choose the statement which best describes the goal(s) of antimicrobial susceptibility testing. multiple choice a. antimicrobial susceptibility testing can accomplish all of these goals b. to determine which antimicrobial drug is most effective at inhibition of the causative agent c. to determine which antimicrobial drug is least likely to cause allergic reactions d. to determine which antimicrobial drug is least likely to cause toxicity e. to determine which antimicrobial drug the patient is most sensitive to
The goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is: option (B) states that "to determine which antimicrobial drug is most effective at inhibition of the causative agent".
This is because antimicrobial susceptibility testing tests the ability of an antimicrobial drug to inhibit or kill a particular type of bacteria or microorganism. It helps determine which drug will work the best to treat an infection.
This is important because it can help doctors choose the most effective drug for the particular infection. It also helps determine the least likely drug to cause allergic reactions, toxicity, or other adverse effects in the patient.
Ultimately, the goal of antimicrobial susceptibility testing is to determine which antimicrobial drug the patient is most sensitive to, so that the most effective treatment can be used.
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