Answer:
Fred Hoyle
Explanation:
Sir Fred Hoyle FRS was an English astronomer who formulated the theory of stellar nucleosynthesis. He also held controversial stances on other scientific matters—in particular his rejection of the "Big Bang" theory, a term coined by him on BBC radio, and his promotion of panspermia as the origin of life on Earth
¿Porque las vitaminas, las sales minarales y el agua se consideran reguladores?
Answer:
Vitamins and minerals boost the immune system, support normal growth and development, and help cells and organs do their jobs. For example, you've probably heard that carrots are good for your eyes. It's true! Carrots are full of substances called carotenoids (pronounced: kuh-RAH-teh-noydz) that your body converts into vitamin A, which helps prevent eye problems.
Vitamin K helps blood to clot, so cuts and scrapes stop bleeding quickly. You'll find vitamin K in green leafy vegetables, broccoli, and soybeans. And to have strong bones, you need to eat foods such as milk, yogurt, and green leafy vegetables, which are rich in the mineral calcium.
why cells are sometimes called the building block of life?
Answer:
cell is the smallest unit of life, also called the 'building blocks of life' because cells multiply and differentiate to form a multicellular organism as well as give rise to new organism by forming gametes or reproductive spores.
Which of the following is the best definition of climate?
1 . The day to day changes in the atmosphere
2. The average weather over a long period of time and over large areas
3. The state of the atmosphere across the world
Answer:
THE STATE OF THE ATMOSPHERE ACROSS THE WORLD IS THE BEST FROM MY OPINION .
Answer : 1
Explain: The day to day changes in the atmosphere
Lymph ______ are found throughout the body and are a signal of a disease, infection, or problem if they become and remain swollen for long periods of time.
______ are pathogens that cannot be killed with antibiotics because they are non-living. They take over cellular organelles to replicate and spread.
Because they are also eukaryotes with their own cell membranes and membrane-bound organelles, ______ are often difficult to combat with medicines.
A cell signal called ______ is produced by mast cells. These molecules cause more fluid to spread to an infected area.
_______ are the types of cells that produce antibodies.
All pathogens have unique identifying molecules on their surfaces called ______. Antibodies bind to these, and targeting the pathogen to be destroyed by the immune system.
______ is a non-specific response to disease, in which the body temperature rises
Answer:
nodes
Viruses
fungi
histamine
B-cells
antigens
Fever
When a paper cut breaks the skin, it introduces outside microorganisms into the cut. The body recognizes the break in the skin. Mast cells produce histamines, which cause more blood and lymph fluid to flow to the wound. This increased flow brings phagocytic white blood cells to the area, which destroy invading organisms until the blood can clot and the skin can heal over the cut, preventing more organisms from entering the body. If a cut is too deep or too wide, special care such as stitches and antibiotics could be needed to prevent infection.
Explanation:
PENNFOSTER !
Sucrose and monosodium glutamate (MSG) are added to a salad dressing made of vinegar and oil. If the mixture is then shaken, it will eventually separate into two phases. After this phase separation, where will most of the sucrose and MSG be located?
a. Both will concentrate in the vinegar.
b. Both will concentrate in the oil.
c. Both will concentrate at the interface between the two phases.
d. Sucrose will concentrate in the oil, and MSG will concentrate in the vinegar.
e. Sucrose will concentrate in the vinegar, and MSG will concentrate in the oil.
Answer:
both will concentrate in the vinegar layer because both are polar and Hbond with vinegar (an acid)
Explanation:
A sample from a stock of a bacterial colony in liquid media was diluted by a factor of 106, and 2 ml of this dilution was spread on a Petri dish of solidified media. 56 colonies were observed. What was the concentration of bacteria of the initial stock?
Answer:
28 × 10⁶ colonies/ml
Explanation:
Let C be the concentration of bacterial in the initial stock. When it is diluted by a factor of 10⁶, the new concentration is C' = C/10⁶.
When 2 ml of this concentration is spread on a Petri dish of solidified media, 56 colonies were produced. The number of colonies, n after spreading the 2 ml of C' is C' × 2 ml = 2C' = 2C/10⁶.
So, n = 2C/10⁶.
Since the number of colonies after spreading on a Petri dish of solidified media is 56, n = 56 colonies.
So, 2C/10⁶ = 56
Making C subject of the formula, we have
C = 56 × 10⁶/2
C = 28 × 10⁶ colonies/ml
So, the initial concentration of bacteria is 28 × 10⁶ colonies/ml
Classify amoeba to species level
The MN blood group in humans is under the control of a pair of co-dominant alleles, M (we will call the frequency of M, p) and N (we will call the frequency of N, q). In a group of 556 individuals, the following numbers of individuals are found for each of the genotypes:
167 MM
280 MN
109 NN
Required:
a. What is the frequency of each allele?
b. What is the value of the Chi-square statistic test to find if in this particular case the genotypic frequencies conform to the Hardy-Weinberg distribution.
c. What is the probability associated with you chi square statistic calculated above?
Answer:
do you know some people have golden blood
Which statement describes her hypothesis
Answer:
A hypothesis is a plausible answer to a scientific problem or question that is testable, but not yet tested. Some science textbooks call it an "educated guess.
geosphere burying organisms
hydrosphere respiration of marine life
biosphere photosynthesis atmosphere burning things
Answer:
This question is incomplete, the question is asking to match each activity with the sphere to which it adds carbon or CO2.
ANSWERS:
Geosphere = burying organisms
hydrosphere = respiration of marine life
biosphere = photosynthesis atmosphere = burning things
Explanation:
This question describes the types of spheres we have. The respective activities that occur in each sphere that adds CO2 or carbon are as follows:
- Geosphere: This refers to the solid part of the Earth. Dead organisms are buried in the geosphere (soil) where their carbon remains can be deposited.
- Hydrosphere: This constitutes all of the water bodies (sea, river, stream, ocean) on the Earth. When marine organisms respire in water, carbon dioxide (CO2) is released.
- Biosphere: A sphere consisting of all living things (plant, animal, microbes etc.) on Earth. Plants as a living organisms photosynthesize and make use of carbon dioxide to produce glucose, which stores in the plant.
Atmosphere: The gaseous component of the Earth. Burning substances release carbon based gases into the atmosphere.
Most of the plant matter in ___ is sphagnum moss.
Answer:
the answer is peat
Explanation:
i did the test Hope dis help
Answer:
pease
Explanation:
I did some research
Al wonders if adding salt to water will affect how long it takes the water to freeze. Al thinks that salt water will freeze more quickly than fresh water. He decides to check his hypothesis by conducting an experiment. Al takes two ice trays and fills one with distilled water and the other with distilled water that has two tablespoons of salt added. He makes sure he puts exactly the same amount of water in each ice tray. Al takes the trays and puts them side by side in the freezer. Al checks the ice trays every 10 minutes to see if the water in each tray has begun to freeze. Al finds that after 20 minutes the water in the ice tray without the salt has started to form ice, while the ice tray with the salt water is still completely liquid.
What is his hypothesis?
a. Salt water freezes slower than fresh water.
b. Water freezes in a freezer
c. Salt water freezes faster than fresh water.
d. water will freeze in 20 minutes
salt water freezes slower than fresh water
what are amino acids used to build
EDG2021
Answer:
Alanine
Arginine
Asparagine
Aspartic Acid
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Glutamine
Glycine
Histidine
Isoleucine
Leucine
Lysine
Methionine
Phenylalanine
Proline
Serine
Threonine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Valine
Selenocysteine
Pyrrolysine (not used in human protein synthesis)
Of these 20 amino acids, nine amino acids are essential:
HELP!!!
1. In a parent pea plant with the allele pair Gg, what is the probability that one gamete will contain the G allele? Why?
2. In a parent pea plant with the allele pair GG, what is the probability that one gamete will contain the g allele? Why?
3. In a parent pea plant with the allele pair gg, what is the probability that one gamete will contain the g allele? Why?
Answer:
If the gamete will get either G or g, the probability will be 1/2 of getting G.
Explanation:
all question 3 answer is that. Because all 3 of question are same. only repeated three times
In a parent pea plant with the allele pair Gg, the probability that one gamete will contain the G allele is 0.5. This is because there are two possible outcomes in which one must definitely fall. So, it is 1/2.
What is Allele?Alleles may be characterized as the alternative form or versions of a gene that are responsible for particular traits in living organisms. They carry a code of genetic sequences within generations.
In a parent pea plant with the allele pair GG, the probability that the gamete will contain the g allele is zero. This is because there is no presence of allele g that can be determined within any gametes. So, it is not possible to get g in the pair allele of GG.
In a parent pea plant with the allele pair gg, the probability that one gamete will contain the g allele is 1 or 100%. This is because both carry g alleles. So, the probability is 100%.
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ASAP
The genetic code contains thousands of genes. Each gene codes for a
specific
A. fatty acid
B. amino acid
C. polypeptide
D. polysaccharide
Answer:
amino acid
Explanation:
The genetic code contains thousands of genes. Each genetic code represents a specific amino acid. Hence, option B is correct.
What is Genetic code?A genetic code represents a set of three-letter that are a combination of nucleotides known as codons. Each of them correlates to a particular amino acid.
Amino acids are the molecules that combine to form protein which serves as the base of life. Genetic code is translated into a sequence of amino acids with the help of a codon table.
Codon is a sequence of three nucleotides that form a unit of genetic code in DNA or RNA molecules.
Therefore, the amino acid is represented by each genetic code. Thus, option B is correct.
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Issued in 1974, 45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status:
A) The 1974 National Research Act
B) The Nuremberg Code
C) Kefauver-Harris Drug Amendments to the Federal Food, Drug & Cosmetics Act
D) US Public Health Service Policy
Hello!
The answer is D, The U.S Public Health Service Policy. Its main purpose was providing protection for human subjects for research work which was conducted by federal agencies. You can read more about it on HHS.gov, as it is a very interesting regulation.
I hope this helps! :)
Issued in 1974, 45 CFR 46 raised to regulatory status US Public Health Service Policy. Option D
What is the regulatory status?The restrictions known as the Common Rule for the protection of human subjects in research done by or supported by federal agencies are outlined in Title 45 of the Code of Federal restrictions, Part 46. These laws define moral principles and requirements for the protection of research subjects who are being used as human subjects.
The US Public Health Service (PHS) published the policy that would eventually become 45 CFR 46 in 1974. This policy established standards for the examination and approval of research involving human subjects as well as the legal foundation for the protection of those individuals. Informed consent, weighing risks and benefits, and the creation of Institutional Review Boards (IRBs) to regulate research techniques were all adopted.
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Considering your knowledge of carbohydrates, evaluate the use of chitin as a component of health foods.
Answer:
Carbohydrates may be defined as energy-rich foods such as sugars and starches. if consumed in excess or not properly metabolized in the body, carbohydrates may lead to obesity and which may also lead a person to severe number of diseases.
Chitins are components of the exoskeletons of foods such as shrimps, crabs and snails, and insects.
Chitin's use as a component in healthy foods is based on its health benefits.
For example it promotes weight loss , prevents obesity, relieving constipation and preventing inflammation associated with refined carbohydrates, cookies and candies
what is uropoiesis?
Answer:
The production and excrection of urine
Answer:
The production and excretion or urine.
what are the components of blood
1 . RBC red blood cells
2. WBC white blood cells.
Answer:
plasma, RBCs, WBCs, platelets.
When does facilitated diffusion occur?
-When one liquid has a higher osmotic pressure than the other.
-When certain large molecules are unable to move through the membrane
without the help of channel proteins.
-When ATP is available to assist in moving molecules.
-When there's a strong membrane potential present, with the inside of the cell
being more negative than the outside of the cell.
Answer:
When certain large molecules are unable to move through the membrane without the help of channel proteins
Explanation:
Facilitated diffusion occurs when large molecules that are unable to pass through a membrane on their own make use of channel proteins to move from one side of the membrane to the other. Facilitated diffusion can occur when a liquid on one side of a membrane has a higher osmotic pressure than a liquid on the other side of the membrane, but it isn’t a required feature of facilitated diffusion. Similarly, facilitated diffusion can occur when there’s a large membrane potential present, but it isn’t a required feature of facilitated diffusion. Facilitated diffusion doesn’t require the use of energy, so the presence of ATP is irrelevant to facilitated diffusion occurring.
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Answer:
Explanation:
C ạ
Which statement is most likkely to applyto a cell that has DNA whitin its ytoplasm
Answer:
It performs all functions for the organisms
Which of the following are parts of the cardiovascular system? |a) Blood O b) Heart c) Lungs O d) Blood vessels
Which of the following are parts of the cardiovascular system?
a) Blood
b) Heart
d) Blood vessels
Choose: a); b); d)
Answer:
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Please use the following information to answer the questions below. The southern grasshopper mouse feeds regularly on the Arizona bark scorpion, the most venomous scorpion in the United States. While attempting to capture the scorpion, the mouse usually gets stung multiple times by the scorpion but does not seem to be affected. While attempting to capture the scorpion, the mouse's heart rate increases, and there is an increase in epinephrine in the mouse's blood. What nervous system division is responsible for the mouse's physiological state
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the mouse's physiological state.
The nervous system divides into the central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
In the central nervous system, we have the brain and the spinal cord.
The peripherical nervous system, which is all the nerves that are not in the spinal cord or the brain, is divided into:
The somatic nervous system, which is the one that makes the conscious movements of our body.The autonomic nervous system consists of:-Sympathetic nervous system. It is the one that works under stress. It gives the fight or flight response preparing the body for a dangerous situation. It increases the heart rate and epinephrine's release. Epinephrine is a hormone that helps in this response stimulating the sympathetic system.
-Parasympathetic nervous system. It is the one that works in calm situations, like after we ate, regulating digestion, and trying to save energy for any upcoming event.
In conclusion, as there is an increase in epinephrine and heart rate, and the mouse is "fighting" against a scorpion, the nervous system division responsible for this physiological state is the sympathetic nervous system.
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According to Sandel, when companies companies attempt to incentivize employees to quit smoking:__________
a) It never works.
b) There are no data on this incentive scheme.
c) It tends to work.
d) Employees tend to return to smoking when the incentive ends.
Answer:
employees tend to return to smoking when the incentive ends
Explanation:
because employees love to smoke on breaks and they are addicted to smoking.
What is Anatomy and physiology
Answer:
Anatomy: The branch of science concerned with the bodily structure of humans, animals, and other living organisms, especially as revealed by dissection and the separation of parts.
Physiology: The branch of biology that deals with the normal functions of living organisms and their parts.
Explanation:
Anatomy = The science that deals with the form and structure of organic bodies; anatomical structure or organization is Anatomy.
Physiology = A branch of biology that deals with the functions and activities of life or of living matter (as organs, tissues, or cells) and of the physical and chemical phenomena involved is Physiology.
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A ______, such as a bean, has two seed leaves.
Answer:
A dicotyledonous plant
hope this helps you
For each of the following structures, first indicate its function in the fetus; then, note its fate (what happens to it or what it is converted to after birth).
a. Umbilical artery
b. Umbilical vein
c. Ductus venosus
d. Ductus arterious
e. Foramen ovale
Answer:
1. Functions:
a. Umbilical artery >> carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
b. Umbilical vein >> transports oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus
c. Ductus venosus >> allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver
d. Ductus arterious >> allows most of the blood from the right ventricle to bypass the fetus's non-functioning lungs
e. Foramen ovale >> oxygenated blood from the umbilical vein to bypass the pulmonary circulation
2. After the bird:
1. Umbilical artery >> medial umbilical ligament
2. Umbilical vein >> round ligament of the liver
3. Ductus venosus >> ligamentum venosum
4. Ductus arteriosus >> ligamentum arteriosum
5. Foramen ovale >> fossa ovalis
Explanation:
The umbilical artery is a paired artery localized in the abdominal and pelvic regions, which carries deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical cord. The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated part of the umbilical artery that arises from the internal iliac arteries. In utero, the umbilical arteries carry waste products back to the placenta, whereas the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus. The round ligament of the liver (also known as ligamentum teres hepatis) is a remnant of the umbilical vein that exists in the embryonic stage, it connects the left lobe of the liver to the umbilicus. The ductus venosus is a slender shunt that allows oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the liver, it connects the intra-hepatic portion of the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava. The ligamentum venosum is an extrahepatic, slender, and fibrous remnant of the fetal ductus venosus that travels between the left portal vein and the inferior vena cava. The ductus arteriosus is a fetal artery that connects the aorta to the pulmonary artery. The ligamentum arteriosum is a nonfunctional vestige of the ductus arteriosus, it is attached to the superior surface of the pulmonary trunk. The foramen ovale is an oval-shaped, small, opening in the wall (septum) between the two upper chambers of the heart. The fossa ovalis is a vestige stricture of the foramen ovale of the embryonic heart, which forms a depression in the right atrium of the heart.
what is the function of folds and villi
Answer:
The inner wall of the small intestine is covered by numerous folds of mucous membrane called plicae circulares. The surface of these folds contains tiny projections called villi and microvilli, which further increase the total area for absorption.
Explanation:
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Drag each label to the correct location.
Using the legend, arrange the minerals that you tested according to their hardness. The hardness will increase from left
to right.
Mineral Letter
Quartz
sypsum
Gy
calcite
C С
magnetite
M
graphite
Gr
feldspar microcline F
apatite
A
tale
Hardne
Nourite
Mardines - 6.5
pyrite
Q GY CM Gr.
FA
From left to right, the correct order of the minerals from the least hard to the hardest is ⇒ Graphite, Talc, Gypsum, Calcite, Fluorite, Apatite, Magnetite, Pyrithe, Feldespat, Quartz.
Theoretical frame:
Hardness is one of the physical properties of minerals and is a significant one when identifying and recognizing them.
Hardness measures the resistance level of a surface to abrasion. In the specific case of minerals, it measures how minerals resist being scratched or penetrated.
The hardness level is determined by an attempt to scratch or produce a mark on an unmarked surface using sharp elements, such as nails, copper coin, glass, or a steal knife. Notice that these elements also vary in their hardness.
There are different methods used to define hardness, and they are not comparable to each other. The Mohs hardness method defines an ordinary qualitative scale that characterizes the mineral according to their resistance to being scratched by a harder element.
According to the Mohs hardness scale, the level in which the given minerals are placed is as follows,
Graphite ⇒ 1 - 2Talc ⇒ 1Gypsum ⇒ 1.5 - 2Calcite ⇒ 3Fluorite ⇒ 4Apatite ⇒ 5 Magnetite ⇒ 5 - 6.5Pyrithe ⇒ 6Feldespat ⇒ 6 - 6.5Quartz ⇒ 7Link to a related question:
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