Dolphins do not have any orifices for smelling on their body, and more importantly they do not have an olfactory lobe in their brain, and they completely lack olfactory nerves.
They just breathe through the blowhole on top of their head, which is an analogue to our noses. Since they could no longer use the sense—blowholes are closed when the dolphin is underwater—the areas of the brain that used to control scent likely withered and shrivelled over time.
A dolphin's sense of taste is also deficient since only the genes responsible for feeling salty flavors are still active, whereas the genes responsible for tasting sweet, sour, spicy, and savory have been turned off. And to make matters worse, as people age, taste receptors are lost. When dolphins are young and immature, they still have a sense of taste, but once they reach adulthood, this sense completely disappears.
In humans and other land mammals, these two senses are inextricably linked, so it makes likely that they would have atrophied at the same time. The desire for these senses was diminished by going back to the water.
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T/F - Chemical digestion of protein begins in the mouth with enzymes found in the saliva.
False. With the help of salivary enzymes, protein is first chemically broken down in the mouth.
When you initially begin chewing, protein digestion starts. They mostly digest lipids and carbs. After a protein source enters your stomach, it is reduced to smaller amino acids chains by hydrochloric acid and proteases enzymes. Beginning in the mouth & continuing in the gastro intestinal tract, mechanical protein digestion takes place. Proteins are chemically broken down starting in the stomach and finishing inside the small intestine. The salivary amylase (ptyalin, or alpha-amylase) & lingual lipase, both found in saliva, are the only chemically digested substances in the mouth.
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Which of the following data could best support the claim that species B arose from a speciation event in Lake I?a. All of the fish species occupy the same niches in their respective lakes
b. DNA analysis shows fever differences between species A and species B in lake I than between species B and the populations in Lake II
c. Species A and species B have similar body shapes due to convergent evolution in their habitats
d. Individuals of species A from Lake I can mate and produce viable offspring with individuals of species A from Lake II
The claim that species B originated from a speciation event in Lake I is best supported by DNA research, which reveals more differences between species A and species B in more so than between populations of species B in Lake II and Lake I.
Why does rRNA function so well in molecular systematics?It evolves fairly slowly, allowing comparisons to be drawn between creatures that are distantly related, such bacteria and eukaryotes. Comparisons of the DNA sequences in these genes are helpful for analysing relationships between taxa that have diverged hundreds of thousands of years ago since the DNA specifying ribosomal RNA (rRNA) changes fairly slowly.
What circumstances will cause changes in genotype and allele frequencies in populations?The mechanisms that alter allele frequencies are selection, mutation, migration, and genetic drift. The population deviates from Hardy-presumptions Weinberg's when one or more of these forces are at work, and evolution takes place.
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Analysts recognize them as key layers to way of thinking. What are they?
Analysts recognize critical thinking skills as key layers to way of thinking. Critical thinking is a vital skill that allows individuals to evaluate information and make well-informed decisions about what to believe or how to act.
It is a way of thinking about problems or situations that requires careful and objective analysis of all relevant information before making a decision.
Interpretation: The ability to understand the meaning of information presented and how it can be applied to specific circumstances. It requires the ability to identify what is important and what is not important. It also requires the ability to distinguish between fact and opinion.
Analysis: The ability to break down complex information into smaller parts in order to better understand it. This layer of thinking involves looking at how individual pieces of information relate to one another and how they support or contradict one another.
Evaluation: The ability to make a judgment about the value or quality of information presented. This layer of thinking involves considering the strengths and weaknesses of various arguments and making a decision based on the weight of the evidence presented.
Inference: The ability to draw conclusions based on the available evidence. This layer of thinking involves taking the available information and using it to make logical conclusions about what is likely to be true.
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Which of the following best illustrates the change in the frequencies of the A and a alleles from generation 1 to generation 2 and to future generations, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is present after generation 1 ?
Future generations will have the same frequencies of the A and a alleles as generation 2. Individuals with the aa genotype could be produced.
Generation 1Generation 2Generation n AA.67 .87. 87 aa.33 .13 .13
Based on the given information, the best illustration of the change in the frequencies of the A and a alleles from generation 1 to generation 2 and future generations, assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is present after generation 1, would be:
Generation 1:
AA = 0.67,
aa = 0.33
Generation 2:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
Future generations:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
This means that the frequency of the A allele (represented by AA) increased from generation 1 to generation 2 and remains the same in future generations. The frequency of the a allele (represented by aa) decreased from generation 1 to generation 2 and also remains the same in future generations. This implies that there is no further change in allele frequencies beyond generation 2, and individuals with the aa genotype can still be produced in future generations.
Therefore, the correct answer is :
Generation 1:
AA = 0.67,
aa = 0.33
Generation 2:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
Future generations:
AA = 0.87,
aa = 0.13
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which type of organisms are prokaryotic and live in extreme environments such as hot springs, salt lakes, and deep ocean vents?
Archaea is a single-celled, prokaryotic form of life that is very different in form and function from bacteria.
Archaea are a group of microorganisms that are found in a wide range of habitats, including extreme environments such as hot springs, deep-sea vents, and salt flats. They are classified as one of the three domains of life, along with Bacteria and Eukarya.
Archaea are prokaryotes, meaning that they lack a nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles found in eukaryotic cells. They are characterized by their unique cell membrane structure, which is made up of ether-linked phospholipids instead of ester-linked phospholipids found in other organisms. Archaea have diverse metabolic pathways and play important roles in various ecological processes, such as carbon cycling and nitrogen fixation.
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the _____ hypothesis states that long term environmental unpredictability led to morphological and behavioral adaptations. group of answer choices a. savannah b. turnover c. pulse variability d. selection aridity
The pulse variability hypothesis states that long-term environmental unpredictability led to morphological and behavioral adaptations.
What is the pulse variability hypothesis? The pulse variability hypothesis is a concept that describes how environmental variability affects life on earth. It states that changes in the natural environment may not always be gradual, but instead may occur in pulses, with periods of stability interrupted by short periods of intense variation.
Pulse variability hypothesis refers to the idea that the natural environment is not always in a state of gradual change but, rather, is subject to punctuated shifts where long-term environmental unpredictability results in morphological and behavioral adaptations.
The hypothesis provides an alternative perspective to the traditionally held view of gradual and constant environmental change.
What is environmental unpredictability? Environmental unpredictability refers to an event in which an ecosystem's climate changes abruptly and unpredictably due to environmental factors. Changes to the environment can lead to shifts in populations and in the composition of entire ecosystems.
This kind of environmental unpredictability is one of the major threats to biodiversity.
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Zebra-tail lizards, found in the Mojave Desert, are small cream color lizards, with distinct black lines underneath their tails. When they see a predator, they curve their tails up & run, making them resemble a scorpion. What type of adaptation do the zebra-tailed lizards display?
A. Cryptic Coloration
B. predation
C. mimicry
D. warning coloration
E. mutualism
The adaptation displayed by the zebra-tailed lizards when they curl their tails and run, which makes them resemble scorpions is known as mimicry. Thus, the correct option will be C.
What is mimicry?Mimicry is a structural and functional similarity in two or more species that is not derived from a similar descent. Mimicry is the resemblance of one species to another, which aids in survival. The evolution of mimicry happens when a species imitates another species, such as its appearance or behavior, to survive.
The zebra-tailed lizards, which are cream-colored lizards with unique black lines under their tails, resemble scorpions when they see a predator. This action or adaptation is referred to as mimicry.
Therefore, the correct option will be C.
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what is an important difference between the effect of selection against a recessive allele and selection against a dominant allele?
The important difference between the effect of selection against a recessive allele and selection against a dominant allele is that selection against a recessive allele reduces the frequency of the allele in the population.
Whereas selection against a dominant allele reduces both the frequency of the allele and the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype in the population. To break it down further, a recessive allele will only produce an observable phenotype in an individual who is homozygous for that allele, meaning that two copies of the allele must be present for it to be expressed. Selection against a recessive allele will only act upon individuals that are homozygous for that allele. Therefore, the frequency of the allele will be reduced in the population, but the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype will remain unaffected.
In contrast, a dominant allele will produce an observable phenotype in an individual who is either homozygous or heterozygous for the allele. Therefore, selection against a dominant allele will act upon both individuals that are homozygous and heterozygous for that allele. This means that the frequency of the allele, as well as the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype in the population, will be reduced.
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Which of the following statements best describes nucleotide excision?A) A single damaged base is removed and replaced with a new base
B) A region of single stranded DNA containing bulky damaged nucleotides is removed and replaced with new DNA
C) A region of double-stranded DNA containing bulky damaged nucleotides is removed and replaced with new DNA
D) A single damaged nucleotide is removed and replaced with a new nucleotide
The best statement that describes nucleotide excision is that a region of double-stranded DNA containing bulky damaged nucleotides is removed and replaced with new DNA.
What is nucleotide excision? Nucleotide excision is one of the many mechanisms by which cells repair DNA. It is a type of repair mechanism that corrects DNA damage caused by chemicals, radiation, and other environmental factors. A region of double-stranded DNA containing bulky damaged nucleotides is removed and replaced with new DNA.
Nucleotide excision repair is the process of repairing damaged DNA by removing a damaged region of the DNA and filling in the gap with newly synthesized DNA. During this process, proteins detect the damaged section of DNA and remove a small section of the strand containing the damage.
The new DNA is synthesized using the other undamaged strand as a template.
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which region of the nephron is adapted for reabsorption, as seen in its length and prominent microvilli? a) proximal convoluted tubule b) distal convoluted tubule c) nephron loop d) collecting duct
The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the region of the nephron that is most adapted for reabsorption.
It is a highly coiled and convoluted tube located in the renal cortex and is the first segment of the renal tubule after the Bowman's capsule. The PCT is lined with a single layer of cuboidal epithelial cells that have a prominent brush border composed of microvilli, which greatly increase their surface area for absorption.
The PCT reabsorbs approximately 65% of the filtered water and solutes, including glucose, amino acids, ions, and most of the filtered sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate ions. The reabsorption is accomplished through various transport mechanisms, including diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport, and cotransport. This process allows the body to retain necessary nutrients and ions while excreting waste products.
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how are animal, plant, and bacterial cells similar?
complementation has taken place of please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices A. two recessive alleles at either of two different loci suppressed a phenotype. B. two recessive alleles inhibited the expression of an allele at a different locus.
C. an individual organism possessing two recessive mutations has a wild-type phenotype, indicating that the mutations are at non allelic genes. D. two recessive mutations occur at the same locus, producing a mutant phenotype.
Complementation has taken place of two recessive mutations occur at the same locus, producing a mutant phenotype.
What is complementation? Complementation is the production of a normal phenotype from two organisms that carry homozygous recessive mutations at different loci. When two homozygous recessive mutations occur at the same locus, the mutant phenotype is produced (i.e., there is no complementation).
Option D is correct because two recessive mutations occurring at the same locus will produce a mutant phenotype. The complementation of two mutant alleles is a common genetic technique utilized to test whether the mutant phenotypes arise from distinct or identical genetic events.
If the mutations are caused by distinct genetic events, the heterozygous offspring will express the wild-type phenotype because the two complementing genes will provide the necessary enzymatic activity or structural proteins.
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Which of the following statements about automatic mimicry in NOT true? a. People tend to like those who mimic them more than those who do not b. People who have been mimicked tend to engage in more prosocial behavior afterwards C. People who have been mimicked tend to feel irritated with the person who mimicked them d. People tend not to mimic individuals toward whom they hold negative attitudes
Automatic mimicry is the unconscious imitation of another person's behavior.
It has been found to have several effects on social interactions. Option A is true because people who are mimicked tend to feel liked and connected to the person who is mimicking them. Option B is also true because people who are mimicked are more likely to engage in prosocial behavior such as helping others. Option D is true because people tend to avoid mimicking individuals they dislike or hold negative attitudes towards. Option C is the statement that is not true because people who are mimicked do not tend to feel irritated with the person who is mimicking them, but rather they tend to feel positive towards them.
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Draw a typical eukaryotic gene and the pre-mRNA and mRNA derived from it. Assume that the gene contains three exons. Identify the following items and, for each item, give a brief description of its function:a. 5' untranslated regionb. Promoterc. AAUAAA consensus sequenced. Transcription start sitee. 3' untranslated regionf. Intronsg. Exonsh. Poly(A) taili. 5'cap
A typical eukaryotic gene contains three exons and introns, and when transcribed, produces pre-mRNA and mRNA.
What is translation?5' untranslated region (5' UTR): This region is located at the 5' end of the mRNA transcript and is not translated. It serves as a binding site for ribosomes and influences the efficiency of translation.
Promoter: This is a DNA sequence located at the 5' end of the gene that is responsible for controlling the rate of transcription of the gene.
AAUAAA consensus sequence: This is a specific nucleotide sequence that serves as a signal for the endonuclease enzyme to bind and cleave the pre-mRNA molecule during post-transcriptional processing.
Transcription start site: This is the point in the DNA sequence where the transcription of a gene begins.
3' untranslated region (3' UTR): This region is located at the 3' end of the mRNA transcript and is not translated. It can be involved in regulation of gene expression, protein stability and polyadenylation.
Introns: These are sequences of DNA within a gene that are transcribed but are not translated into protein.
Exons: These are sequences of DNA within a gene that are transcribed and are translated into protein.
Poly(A) tail: This is a stretch of A nucleotides added to the 3' end of the mRNA during post-transcriptional processing.
5' cap: This is a modified nucleotide structure added to the 5' end of the mRNA during post-transcriptional processing. It serves to protect the mRNA from degradation and also aids in the translation of the mRNA into protein.
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Which of the following statements about steroid hormones is true?A) Steroid hormones cause the production of cAMP.
B) Steroid hormones are polar molecules that cannot pass through the cell membrane.
C) Steroid hormones activate a transcription factor.
D) Steroid hormones bind to specific receptor proteins and the complex acts as a gene activator
The statement which is true about steroid hormones is that Steroid hormones bind to specific receptor proteins and the complex acts as a gene activator. Thus, option D is correct.
The hormones produced by the gonads, for instance, are steroid hormones (i.e. estrogen, progesterone and testosterone). Steroid hormones first cross the target cell's cell membrane before causing changes inside the cell.
The phospholipid bilayer that makes up cell membranes stops molecules that are not soluble in fat from diffusing into the cell. Because steroid hormones are lipophilic (love fat), they can freely diffuse across a cell's plasma membrane.
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Why might tortoises grow to such huge sizes on isolated islands, such as the Galapagos, but not elsewhere?
Tortoises are a collection of terrestrial reptiles that range from plains to woods and include species such as the Greek and Galapagos tortoises. Some species developed huge body proportions with shell lengths surpassing one metre, while others are only 6-8 centimetres long. Despite naturalists' keen interest since Darwin's time, the development of gigantism in turtles remains a mystery.
According to new study, giant tortoises may not be as large as originally thought due to their island lifestyle. The development of giant tortoises may not have been connected to islands as previously believed. Researchers from Argentina and Germany have given the most complete family tree of extinct and living tortoises to date in a first-of-its-kind study. Giant tortoises are now only located on a few exotic islands, most notably the Galápagos Islands, Aldabra Atoll in the Seychelles, and Mauritius. Some can develop to be 1.3m tall and weigh up to 300kg. The Galápagos giant tortoise has 14 recognised varieties, with one more yet to be identified. Thirteen of these species are still living today, while the Pinta Island turtle became extinct in 2012 due to habitat loss.
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A signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins is generally associated with which of the following events?
A. conformational changes to each protein in the series
B. binding of a hormone to an intracellular receptor
C. activation of a ligand-gated ion channel
D. production of ATP in the process of signal transduction
The answer for "A signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins is generally associated with " is conformational changes to each protein in the series. The correct answer is option A.
Phosphorylation is the chemical reaction that is used to transfer a phosphate group from a molecule, which is typically ATP (adenosine triphosphate), to an amino acid of a protein. The phosphate is usually transferred to the hydroxyl group of the amino acid serine, threonine, or tyrosine. The main objective of signal transduction pathways is to cause a response in the target cell. When a signal reaches the target cell, a series of signaling proteins and transcription factors are activated. The activation of the signaling protein is generally accomplished by covalent modification, which usually involves phosphorylation
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Many important root crop plants such as carrots, turnips, and rutabagas have a_______ strategy, which means they store energy the first year, then flower and complete their life cycle in the second year.
Many important root crop plants such as carrots, turnips, and rutabagas have a biennial strategy, this means they store energy. Biennial strategy is a part of life cycle.
What is life cycle?The life cycle of many plants can be divided into two categories: annual and biennial. The annual plants complete their entire life cycle in one growing season, while the biennial plants live for two growing seasons, and then flower and complete their life cycle in the second year.
Carrots, turnips, and rutabagas are the examples of the biennial plants which store energy in the first year and complete their life cycle in the second year. These plants are also root crops, which means they store energy in their roots rather than in the fruit or vegetable produced above the soil surface.
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during the sheep heart dissection, you were asked initially to identify the right and left ventricles without cutting into the heart. during this procedure, what differences did you observe between the two chambers?
During the sheep heart dissection, you were asked initially to identify the right and left ventricles without cutting into the heart. During this procedure, the differences observed between the two chambers are as follows:
Right ventricle: The right ventricle is located anteriorly or ventrally in the sheep heart. It is relatively thin-walled compared to the left ventricle, with a smaller volume than the left ventricle. It also has an irregular inner surface that contains a large number of irregular ridges known as trabeculae carneae. Its anterior surface is further divided by an outpouching known as the conus arteriosus, which leads into the pulmonary trunk.
Left ventricle: The left ventricle is located posteriorly or dorsally in the sheep heart. It is considerably thicker-walled than the right ventricle and has a larger volume. It has a smooth internal surface without any significant ridges or irregularities, allowing for efficient blood flow. Its posterior surface is further divided into a muscular ridge called the papillary muscle, which is attached to the bicuspid valve.
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which of the following correctly describe(s) chemoreceptors (both taste receptor cells and olfactory receptor cells) and photoreceptors? a. only respond to specific type of stimulus b. communicate information about the type of stimulus to interneurons in the brain c. detection of a stimulus requires a chemical to bind with a receptor protein in the cell's membrane d. detection of stimulus decreases neurotransmitter release all of the above
The following correctly describe chemoreceptors (both taste receptor cells and olfactory receptor cells) and photoreceptors e. all of the above
A chemoreceptor is a sensory receptor that receives sensory input from chemical stimuli. It is responsible for detecting the presence of certain chemicals in the environment, such as food molecules or odor molecules. In contrast, photoreceptors are sensory receptors that respond to light stimulus. These are responsible for detecting light and transmitting that information to the brain.
Both chemoreceptors and photoreceptors communicate information about the type of stimulus to interneurons in the brain. Photoreceptors convert light energy into a neural signal that is sent to the brain. Chemoreceptors, on the other hand, convert chemical signals into electrical signals, which are then transmitted to the brain. Therefore, the correct option is: all of the above.
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Which idea of evolution is supported by the existence of vestigial structures? O heredity of traits differential reproductive success O increased genetic variation O descent with modification
2.06
Vestigial structures are features of an organism that have lost their original function during the course of evolution. They are remnants of structures that were functional in an ancestral species but are no longer needed.
What is a species ?A species is a basic unit of biological classification that refers to a group of organisms that share similar characteristics and can interbreed to produce viable, fertile offspring. In other words, members of the same species can mate and produce offspring that are capable of reproducing themselves.
The concept of a species is important in biology because it is the fundamental unit of biodiversity. It is used to categorize and understand the diversity of life on Earth. There are many different ways to define a species, but the most widely accepted definition is the Biological Species Concept, which defines a species as a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring, but are reproductively isolated from other groups.
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based on the atomic composition of the following molecules, which is likely to be flammable?
Flammability is the ability of a substance to ignite and burn when exposed to fire or flame. Many factors contribute to a substance's flammability, including its chemical composition.
Based on the atomic composition of the following molecules, the one that is most likely to be flammable is Ethanol (C2H6O). Ethanol is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. It contains a hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to a carbon chain. Ethanol is highly flammable, which means that it can easily catch fire and burn. It has a low flash point, which is the minimum temperature at which a substance can ignite and produce a flame. The low flash point of ethanol makes it highly flammable and potentially dangerous. Ethanol is commonly used as a fuel for internal combustion engines, such as in cars, boats, and airplanes. It is also used in the production of alcohol-based products such as hand sanitizers, perfumes, and colognes. However, its high flammability means that it must be handled and stored carefully to avoid accidents or fires.
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What is the process of decrease in any vessel diameter?
A decrease in the diameter of any vessel may occur due to a number of factors, including stress, anxiety, cold, certain medications, or other medical conditions.
Vasodilation and vasoconstriction are two processes that help to change the diameter of blood vessels.
Vasoconstriction is the process by which the diameter of a blood vessel is decreased. It can occur in response to various stimuli, such as stress or a decrease in blood pressure. Vasoconstriction can be caused by many factors, including nerve signals, hormones, and local chemical signals.
Vasoconstriction is caused by smooth muscle contraction in the walls of blood vessels. This leads to a decrease in the size of the blood vessel lumen, which in turn reduces blood flow through the vessel. Vasodilation, on the other hand, is the process by which the diameter of a blood vessel is increased.
It occurs when the smooth muscle in the walls of the blood vessel relaxes, causing the lumen to widen. This increase in diameter leads to an increase in blood flow through the vessel.
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Please help
Which tool can help Noah determine how much pollution control is practical and possible in a given situation?
Noah wants to determine how much pollution control is practical and possible in a given situation. He can make use of a(n) ________
.
NextReset
ASAP PLS
In the stem of a plant that is bending toward the light, auxins are most concentrated in:
1. the top surface of the leaves
2. the bottom surface of the leaves
3. the side of the stem facing the light
4. the side of the stem away from the light
Which organism has a distinct central nervous system?
1. starfish
2. jellyfish
3. crayfish
4. clam
Auxins are primarily concentrated on the stem side that faces away from the light in a plant stem that is bending toward the light. The crayfish is the organism with a unique central nervous system.
What part do auxins play in the plant's bending toward the light?The hormone called auxin is what makes a plant bend toward the sun. The auxin that is produced by the cells in the area getting light goes to the shaded side of the stem and lengthens that portion. The shoot seems bent toward the light as a result.
Why does a plant's stem always slant towards the direction of the light?Auxin diffuses toward the shaded side of the plant when light is coming from one side. On the side of the shoot that is away from light, the cells are stimulated by this auxin concentration to grow longer. The plant thus appears to bend toward the light.
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17. Which Of These Partial Proteins Was Most Likely Assembled By A Thermophile? A. Gly-Gly-Pro-Arg-Arg-Cys-Cys-Gly B. Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro C. Pro-Pro-Arg-His-Pro-Pro-Pro-Gly D. Met-Gly-Cys-Pro-Arg-Arg-Pro-Arg
Partial Proteins Was Most Likely Assembled By A Thermophile is Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro. The correct answer is B.
This partial protein was most likely assembled by a thermophile because it contains amino acids that have the ability to resist denaturing at high temperatures. At high temperatures, proteins are more stable and have increased thermodynamic stability.
For example, Taq polymerase, which is utilized in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), was isolated from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus.
The amino acid sequence of a protein can be used to infer its function, conformation, and origin. The amino acid sequence determines the protein's 3D structure, which is critical for its function. The protein's origin, on the other hand, is determined by the organism that produced it.
Therefore, the correct option is B. i.e. Cys-Met-Met-Arg-Asp-Asp-Asp-Pro .
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which two statements correctly relate RNA, amnio acids, and proteins 
Answer:
1. RNA contains the genetic code
2. RNA reads and translates the DNA code
3. DNA reads and translates the RNA code
Explanation:
DNA, RNA, and protein are all closely related. DNA contains the information necessary for encoding proteins, although it does not produce proteins directly. RNA carries the data from the DNA and transforms that information into proteins that perform most cellular functions.
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RNA, amino acids, and proteins are all related in the process of protein synthesis. RNA carries the genetic information from DNA and directs the synthesis of proteins. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which are large, complex molecules that perform various functions in living organisms.
Explanation:RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) is a molecule that is involved in protein synthesis. It carries the genetic information from DNA and directs the synthesis of proteins.
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. They are linked together by peptide bonds to form chains called polypeptides, which then fold into functional proteins.
Proteins are large, complex molecules that perform a variety of functions in living organisms. They are made up of one or more chains of amino acids and are involved in almost every aspect of cellular function.
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Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the presence of structures like chloroplasts and ribosomes, which resemble cells from prokaryotic domains, in eukaryotic cells. ToF
The given statement "Endosymbiosis is a theory based on the presence of structures like chloroplasts and ribosomes, which resemble cells from prokaryotic domains, in eukaryotic cells" is true. In this, smaller cell is engulfed by large cell.
What is Endosymbiosis?Endosymbiosis is a theory that is based on the existence of structures that are alike to cells from prokaryotic domains like chloroplasts and ribosomes. The theory was first introduced by Lynn Margulis, an American biologist. The endosymbiotic theory provides evidence on the origin of eukaryotic cells. The eukaryotic cells are thought to have originated from prokaryotic cells in a process known as endosymbiosis.
Endosymbiosis is the process whereby a smaller cell is engulfed by a larger cell, and it continues to live and reproduce inside the larger cell. The theory states that the mitochondria and chloroplasts that are found in the eukaryotic cells are the descendants of the free-living bacteria that were engulfed by larger cells. The mitochondria are thought to have evolved from aerobic bacteria, while the chloroplasts are thought to have evolved from photosynthetic bacteria.
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please choose the answer that best completes the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. radiation causes broad-scale damage to dna whereas uv light specifically causes formation of dimer formation in dna. multiple choice non-ionizing; radiation ionizing; pyrimidine ionizing; non-ionizing non-ionizing; pyrimidine
The answer that best completes the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. radiation causes broad-scale damage to dna whereas uv light specifically causes formation of dimer formation in dna is d. non-ionizing; pyrimidine.
Radiation causes broad-scale damage to DNA, whereas UV light specifically causes the formation of dimer formation in DNA. Radiation refers to energy traveling through space. Types of radiation include electromagnetic radiation (like radio waves and light), particle radiation (such as alpha and beta particles that arise from nuclear decay), and acoustic radiation (like sound waves). UV radiation is a sort of electromagnetic radiation with a shorter wavelength than visible light. Ultraviolet radiation (UV) is divided into three types: UV-A, UV-B, and UV-C.
Ionizing radiation and UV light can both harm DNA in different ways. Ionizing radiation has enough energy to knock an electron out of an atom or molecule, leaving it ionized. These ionized particles may cause cell and tissue damage, and they can also have long-term effects like cancer. Non-ionizing radiation, on the other hand, does not have enough energy to ionize molecules, so it may cause different types of damage. The formation of dimers in DNA is one of the most prevalent types of damage caused by UV radiation.
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Based on results of a disk diffusion antimicrobial susceptibility test, an organism may be described as sensitive, intermediate, or resistant to the drug. Match the term with its description.
Sensitive-
Intermediate-
Resistant-
On the results of a disk diffusion antimicrobial susceptibility test, an organism may be described as Sensitive - Effective against the organism, Intermediate - Marginally effective against the organism, and Resistant - Ineffective against the organism.
Based on the results of a disk diffusion antimicrobial susceptibility test, an organism may be described as sensitive, intermediate, or resistant to the drug.
The term Sensitive is used to describe the effectiveness of the drug against the organism, where the organism is seen to be sensitive to the drug when the drug is effective against the organism.
The term Intermediate is used to describe the marginally effective drug against the organism.
The term Resistant is used to describe the ineffective drug against the organism, where the drug is ineffective against the organism.
These terms are used to describe the results of an antimicrobial susceptibility test.
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