when is deceitful communication effective for the deceptive individual?

Answers

Answer 1

Deceitful communication can be effective for the deceptive individual in certain situations.

When a person has considerable authority or power: A person who is dishonest may be able to get away with dishonest communication more easily if they are in a position of power or influence because others may be less likely to call their actions or remarks into question.

When the person is an expert at deception: Certain people, such as manipulative or narcissistic people, may be particularly adept at dishonest communication and may be better able to persuade others of their fraudulent remarks or behaviors.

When there is a lack of knowledge or openness: The dishonest person may be able to take advantage of a situation's lack of openness or information whether it pertains to business or politics.

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Related Questions

how many subunits make up the core rna polymerase of a bacterium?

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The core RNA polymerase of a bacterium is composed of four subunits: two α subunits, one β subunit, and one β' subunit. The α subunits have regulatory roles, while the β and β' subunits are responsible for catalyzing RNA synthesis.

The β subunit is responsible for binding the DNA template and the incoming ribonucleotides, while the β' subunit is responsible for catalyzing the formation of the phosphodiester bonds between the ribonucleotides.

The core RNA polymerase is able to carry out elongation of the RNA transcript, but additional subunits called sigma factors are required for the initiation of transcription at specific promoter sequences. Different sigma factors confer specificity to the RNA polymerase by recognizing different promoter sequences and binding to the core enzyme to form a holoenzyme.

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1. Which of the following enzymes are not involved in galactose metabolism?(a) Galactokinase(b) Glucokinase(c) Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase(d) UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase

Answers

Answer:

B, Glucokinase

Explanation:

which of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton? mark all that apply. group of answer choices A) humerus B) femur C) sacrum D) os coxae E) mandible F) ribcage

Answers

The bones that form the axial skeleton are C) sacrum, E) mandible F) rib cage,

The axial skeleton is part of the skeleton that includes the entire bony structure of the head, laryngeal skeleton, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum. It protects the internal organs, supports the head and neck, and provides the framework for the midline of the body.

The humerus, femur, and os coxae are part of the appendicular skeleton. The appendicular skeleton consists of 126 bones located in the lower and upper extremities and the bony girdles which are the bones of the shoulders, shoulder girdle, and hips or pelvic girdle.

The shoulder girdle is the structure that connects the bones of the upper limbs to the axial skeleton and the pelvic girdle is the structure that connects the lower limbs to the axial skeleton.

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if photosynthesis and respiration are almost symmetrical processes, how is energy lost in the process of converting sugar back into atp?

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Photosynthesis and respiration are almost symmetrical processes, as both involve the conversion of energy between different forms. During photosynthesis, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of glucose, while during respiration, glucose is broken down to release energy that is used to produce ATP.

However, while the overall process of converting sugar back into ATP is exergonic (releases energy), there is still some energy lost in the form of heat. This is because not all of the energy released during the breakdown of glucose can be captured and converted into ATP.

Some of the energy is lost during the conversion process itself, as well as through various metabolic reactions that occur throughout the cell. Therefore, while photosynthesis and respiration are symmetrical in terms of the overall conversion of energy, there is still some energy loss during the process of converting sugar back into ATP.

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What is the function of the adrenal cortex

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The adrenal cortex plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological processes in the body, including metabolism, immune function, and electrolyte balance.

The adrenal gland, which is found above the kidneys, has an outer layer called the adrenal cortex. Its major job is to make steroid hormones, which are necessary for many bodily physiological processes.

The adrenal cortex primarily produces three different classes of steroid hormones, including:

Glucocorticoids: These hormones, which include cortisol, assist in regulating stress response, immunological function, and glucose metabolism.Mineralocorticoids: By encouraging the reabsorption of sodium ions and the excretion of potassium ions in the kidneys, these hormones, such as aldosterone, help control electrolyte balance and blood pressure.Androgens: These hormones serve as building blocks for the manufacture of sex hormones including testosterone and estrogen, including dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA).

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Examine the model of a plant's shoot system and root
system.
Leaf
Stoma
What is happening in the top section of the diagram?
A. Water exits through a stoma by transpiration and helps
pulls up the water in the stem.
B. Water made by photosynthesis is stored in a vacuole
for later use in the leaf.
O c. Water flows between the xylem and ground tissue and
in and out of a stoma.
O D. Water flows in through a stoma to xylem in the leaf,
where it is used for photosynthesis.
SUBMIT

Answers

I think the answer is A.

Water exits through a stoma by transpiration and helps pull up the water in the stem.

Option (a) is correct.

In the top section of the diagram, water exits through a stoma by a process called transpiration. Stomata are small openings on the surface of leaves that regulate gas exchange, including the release of water vapor. As water evaporates through the stomata, it creates a negative pressure gradient, known as transpiration pull, that helps in the upward movement of water in the stem.

Transpiration pull occurs due to the cohesion and adhesion properties of water molecules. Water molecules are cohesive, meaning they stick together, and they also adhere to the walls of the xylem vessels in the stem.

As water evaporates from the leaf, it pulls on the column of water in the xylem, causing a continuous flow of water from the roots to the leaves. This process is known as the transpiration stream and is responsible for the upward movement of water and nutrients in plants.

So, option A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the movement of water through transpiration and its role in pulling up water in the stem.

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Use the UCSC Genome Browser (http://genome.ucsc.edu/) to determine how many amino acids are in the protein encoded by the EFNB3 gene.
a. 330
b. 340
c. 333
d. 346

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Use the UCSC Genome Browser (http://genome.ucsc.edu/) the amino acids are in the protein encoded by the EFNB3 gene is 330 amino acids.

UCSC Genome Browser is a web-based browser that includes genomic sequences and annotations for a wide range of species. To determine how many amino acids are in the protein encoded by the EFNB3 gene, follow the steps outlined below, 1. Visit the UCSC Genome Browser website by going to http://genome.ucsc.edu/. 2. Choose the "Genome Browser" option from the "Genomes" menu. 3. Choose the "Human" genome from the "Genome" drop-down menu.

Then to locate the gene, 4. type "EFNB3" into the search box and press enter. 5. Select the "RefSeq" track to see the RefSeq annotation for the EFNB3 gene. 6. Click on the "Gene Details" link.7. The protein encoded by the EFNB3 gene is 330 amino acids long. Hence, the answer is 330. The answer is option A.330

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Which of the following is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys? A. Foley catheter. B. Suprapubic catheter

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The catheter which is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys is known as a Foley catheter.

Foley catheter is a thin, sterile tube that is passed through the urethra and into the bladder to collect urine or measure urine output. A Foley catheter is also known as an indwelling urinary catheter, it is used to ensure the patency of the ureters or allow for the drainage of urine from the kidneys. The Foley catheter is a soft, flexible tube that is inserted through the urethra into the bladder to help with urine drainage. It is composed of a balloon that inflates inside the bladder to hold it in place.

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The long head of the biceps femoris muscle originates on the

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The long head of the biceps femoris muscle originates on the ischial tuberosity, which is a bony prominence located at the base of the pelvis.

Specifically, it originates on the upper inner quadrant of the tuberosity, along with the semitendinosus and semimembranosus muscles. The biceps femoris muscle is one of the three muscles that make up the hamstring muscle group in the back of the thigh. The other two muscles are the semitendinosus and semimembranosus. The biceps femoris muscle inserts onto the fibular head and the lateral condyle of the tibia, just below the knee joint. The biceps femoris muscle is a large muscle located in the posterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most lateral of the three muscles that make up the hamstring muscle group, and it is divided into two parts: the long head and the short head. The long head of the biceps femoris is the larger and more lateral of the two parts, and it is responsible for most of the muscle's functions.

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How would the results from Part A change if both parents are also heterozygous for the FUT1 gene controlling the synthesis of the H substance (Hh)? Drag the correct value to the blank following each offspring type View Available Hint(s) Reset Help type A with M antigen: 1/32 3/32 5/32 6/32 10/32 type A with M and N antigens type A with N antigen: type O with M antigen type O with M and N antigens: type O with N antigen

Answers


If both parents are heterozygous for the FUT1 gene controlling the synthesis of the H substance (Hh), then the expected offspring results would be:

Type A with M antigen: 3/32

Type A with M and N antigens: 5/32

Type A with N antigen: 1/32

Type O with M antigen: 10/32

Type O with M and N antigens: 6/32

Type O with N antigen: 1/32

This is because the FUT1 gene is responsible for the synthesis of the H substance and heterozygous for the gene means that each parent has one dominant and one recessive allele.

As a result, each offspring has a 3:1 ratio of dominant to recessive alleles, so each type of offspring will have different probabilities of being expressed.

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Temperature-sensitive conditional mutations cause expression of a wild-type phenotype at one growth temperature and a mutant phenotype at another- typically higher-temperature. Imagine when a bacterial cell carrying such a mutation is shifted from low to high temperatures, RNA polymerase process of elongation complete transcription normally, but no new transcripts can be started. The mutation in this strain most likely affects what feature?

Answers

Temperature-sensitive conditional mutations cause expression of a wild-type phenotype at one growth temperature and a mutant phenotype at another- typically higher-temperature. When a bacterial cell carrying such a mutation is shifted from low to high temperatures, RNA polymerase process of elongation completes transcription normally, but no new transcripts can be started. The mutation in this strain most likely affects initiation of transcription.

The DNA sequence of an organism changes from one generation to the next due to mutations and mutations can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral. Temperature-sensitive conditional mutations are a type of mutation that causes the protein to be unstable and non-functional when exposed to high temperatures. At normal or low temperatures, the protein is functional or less stable, this type of mutation is referred to as "conditional" because it is temperature-dependent. Temperature-sensitive conditional mutations can affect transcription initiation.

RNA polymerase binds to the DNA promoter to initiate transcription, and this interaction is highly sensitive to changes in temperature. When RNA polymerase binds to the promoter at high temperatures, it can unwind the DNA double helix, exposing the promoter, and the RNA polymerase can start transcribing. However, due to the temperature-sensitive mutation, the RNA polymerase cannot bind to the promoter at high temperatures. RNA polymerase process of elongation complete transcription normally, but no new transcripts can be started, which means that the mutation most likely affects initiation of transcription.

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which element is important in directly triggering contraction?

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The element important in directly triggering contraction is calcium.

Contraction is the process of muscle tightening and shortening which enable an individual to perform any activity or movement. Any movement of the body is associated with muscle contraction. The contraction occurs due to the generation of signals due to action potential.

Calcium is one of the most important element associated with the contraction, It is released from the cell's storage when the action potential occurs. The role of calcium ions is to trigger the movement proteins of the muscles called actin and myosin and mediate their sliding action over each other.

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Which of the following is a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants? (A)alternation of generations (B)independent gametophytes (C)vascular tissue (D)ovules

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The characteristic which distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants is the vascular tissue. These tissues are present in higher plants. Thus, the correct option is C.

What is Vascular tissue?

Vascular tissue is a characteristic of gymnosperms and angiosperms that distinguishes them from other plants. This tissue helps transport water and nutrients to different parts of the plant and provides structural support.  
Alternation of generations: This is the alternating pattern of asexual and sexual reproduction in certain plants and algae.
Independent gametophytes: Gametophytes are haploid cells that produce gametes (sperm and eggs) in plants.
Ovules: An ovule is a small structure containing the female reproductive cells of a flowering plant.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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you are anxious to help teenagers fall asleep earlier in the evening. possible (but not necessarily recommended) solutions might include which of the following?

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If you're anxious to help teenagers fall asleep earlier in the evening, possible solutions might include reducing their exposure to electronics in the evening, sticking to a consistent sleep schedule, etc.

What are the possible solutions to fall asleep?

The possible (but not necessarily recommended) solutions include encouraging relaxation activities before bed, and limiting caffeine intake in the afternoon and evening. Additionally, you can encourage them to sleep in a dark, quiet, and cool environment.

Along with the above tips, there are certain measures one can take to help teenagers fall asleep earlier in the evening. Reducing their exposure to electronics in the evening. Encourage relaxation activities before bed. Limiting caffeine intake in the afternoon and evening. Sticking to a consistent sleep schedule. Encouraging them to sleep in a dark, quiet, and cool environment.

These measures will not only improve the sleep patterns of teenagers but also promote better health and well-being. It will also keep them refreshed throughout the day and promote good sleep habits.

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A stereogenic C atom is one that has four different groups attached to it. Which of the following are not stereogenic centers by this definition? a) Carbon atoms in CH2 groups. b) Carbon atoms in CH groupsc). c) sp^2 hybridized C atoms. d) Carbon atoms in CH3 groupse). e) sp^3 hybridized C atoms

Answers

The following are not stereogenic centers by this definition is

Carbon atoms in CH2 groups (option B)Carbon atoms in CH groups (option B).sp2 hybridized C atoms (option C).

It is a well-known fact that stereoisomerism exists when compounds have the same molecular formula and the same connectivity, but they differ only in the spatial arrangements of atoms or groups in the molecule. One of the most common types of stereoisomerism is chirality, which refers to a molecule's non-superimposable mirror image that cannot be superimposed on its image. Therefore, stereogenic centers are the points in the molecule that create chirality.

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identify the three proteins that make up the cell membrane and their functions.

Answers

Answer:

Junctions – Serve to connect and join two cells together.

Enzymes – Fixing membranes localizes metabolic pathways.

Transport – Responsible for facilitated diffusion and active transport.

Explanation:

I remember taking a class like this last year. :)

Construct an argument in favor of the National Park Service’s decision to reintroduce wolves to Isle Royale. Be sure to discuss the boundary of the ecosystem and energy flow in your argument. Provide evidence and scientific reasoning to support your argument.

Answers

The National Park Service's decision to reintroduce wolves to Isle Royale was necessary, supported by science, and will have a positive impact on the environment in many ways.

Why is it crucial to bring wolves back to Isle Royale?

Wolf hunting reduces the amount of moose, beavers, and snowshoe hare on the island. At Isle Royale National Park, these intricate predator-prey relationships have been studied for more than 60 years and are still being investigated today.

What advantages would reintroduction wolves bring?

Research has demonstrated that wolves have contributed to the revitalization and restoration of several ecosystems since they were reintroduced to the American West in 1995. They enhance habitat and boost populations of numerous species, including raptor birds, pronghorn, and even trout.

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true or false a pulsed intensity is the average intensity for the pulse duration only. it does not include the listening time.

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The statement "A pulsed intensity is the average intensity for the pulse duration only. It does not include the listening time.: is false as pulsed intensity is the average intensity of the ultrasound wave during the pulse period, which is typically short in duration.

According to the American Institute of Ultrasound in Medicine (AIUM), the pulsed intensity is the average intensity of an ultrasound beam during the pulse duration, which is typically short in duration. A pulsed ultrasound wave is one in which the sound energy is sent out in a series of short pulses rather than continuously. When a pulsed wave is emitted, the pulse duration, pulse repetition frequency, and pulse intensity all have an impact on the overall intensity of the wave, which is sometimes referred to as the temporal-average intensity.

The pulse duration is the length of time that the ultrasound energy is being emitted, while the pulse repetition frequency is the number of pulses per second that are emitted by the ultrasound machine. The pulse intensity is the amount of energy per unit time that is contained within each pulse.Thus, A pulsed intensity is the average intensity of the ultrasound wave during the pulse period.

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Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively results in?.increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system.stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain.increased heart rate.increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center.

Answers

Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively results in increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system.

Option A is correct.

What are the aortic baroreceptors?

The aortic baroreceptors and carotid baroreceptors are located in the adventitia layer of the aortic arch and carotid arteries, respectively.

The aortic baroreceptors are stretch receptors located in the aortic arch that are sensitive to changes in blood pressure.

In the situation where  blood pressure increases, the aortic baroreceptors are stimulated, which then sends signals to the cardiovascular control center in the brainstem.

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how are eukaryotic mrnas modified before leaving the nucleus? multiple select question. a cap is added to the 5' end. introns are removed by splicing. the initiator methionine is added. exons are removed by splicing. a poly(a) tail is added to the 3' end.

Answers


Eukaryotic mRNAs are modified before leaving the nucleus in several ways:

A cap is added to the 5' end.Introns are removed by splicing.The initiator methionine is added.Exons are removed by splicing.A poly(A) tail is added to the 3' end.


The following processes occur when eukaryotic mRNA is modified before leaving the nucleus:1. A cap is added to the 5' end.2. Introns are removed by splicing.3. The initiator methionine is added.4. A poly(A) tail is added to the 3' end. An mRNA molecule is called messenger RNA (mRNA), which plays a vital role in gene expression. The mRNA is created in the nucleus, and after that, it travels to the ribosomes located in the cytoplasm. However, before leaving the nucleus, eukaryotic mRNA undergoes some modifications. mRNA is matured and modified by three processes: capping, splicing, and polyadenylation. The cap is added at the 5′ ends of the mRNA. It is a chemical modification that safeguards the mRNA from degradation by ribonucleases. The 5′ cap helps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The splicing process is essential since eukaryotic genes are typically split into coding exons and non-coding introns. As a result, after transcription, introns must be eliminated from mRNA. In contrast, exons are spliced together to make mature mRNA that can be used in protein synthesis. The poly(A) tail is a long tail of adenine nucleotides that is attached to the 3′ ends of the mRNA. The poly(A) tail acts as a signal for the mRNA to exit the nucleus and travel to the ribosomes for protein synthesis.

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The layer between the tunica media and the tunica externa in a large artery is the
A) tunica intima.
B) external elastic membrane.
C) tunica media.
D) internal elastic membrane.
E) tunica externa.

Answers

In a large artery, the external elastic membrane is the layer that lies between the tunica media and tunica externa.

What is a large vein's tunica externa?

The outermost tunica (layer) of a blood vessel, also known as the tunica adventitia (New Latin "additional coat"), is known as the tunica externa (New Latin "outer coat"). It surrounds the tunica media. It is mostly made of collagen and is supported in arteries by elastic lamina on the outside.

What are the tunica externa's layers?

It is made out of the tunica intima (I), a straightened layer of endothelium; the tunica media (M), a layer of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibers (black in B); and the fibrous connective tissue known as the tunica adventitia (Ad).

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If enzymes E1, E2 and E3 are not associated together anymore, what will happen to the activity of PDH, isocitrate dehydrogenase, or a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase?

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If enzymes E1, E2 and E3 are not associated together anymore, there will be no activity in PDH, isocitrate dehydrogenase, or a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

In multi-enzyme complexes like the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex (PDH), the isocitrate dehydrogenase (IDH), and the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (-KGDH) complex, substrate channelling can take place. Due to the physical association of the enzymes in these complexes, the intermediate products can be transferred from one enzyme to another without dispersing into the bulk solution.

Therefore, substrate channelling cannot take place and the activity of the complex will diminish if the enzymes E1, E2, and E3 are no longer linked together. It is crucial to remember that despite the slower rates, each enzyme in these complexes can still catalyze its specific reaction independently, and the intermediate products will diffuse into the bulk solution to be processed by the following enzyme.

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In what way do symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease?

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A symptom is subjective, that is, apparent only to the patient (for example back pain or fatigue), a sign is any objective evidence of a disease that can be observed by others (for example a skin rash or lump).

Signs and symptoms are the visible, audible, or felt symptoms of a disease, injury, or condition. Symptoms are the patient's stated subjective experiences, whereas signs are objective and externally detectable. A sign might, for instance, be a higher or lower-than-normal fever, a rise or fall in blood pressure, or an abnormality that appears on a scan. An individual experiences a symptom when they sense anything abnormal in their body, such as a fever, a headache, or various types of pain.

Indicators are distinct from symptoms that are really felt. A indication of a condition is something that can be seen by another person or found during a test or operation performed by a doctor. For instance, during a physical, elevated blood pressure may be discovered as a marker even though there are no known symptoms. A symptom is anything that a person can experience and report, such as a headache or exhaustion. There may be overlap between symptoms and signs, as in the case of a bloody nose that both the person experiencing it and others may see as unusual (sign).

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At the conclusion of meiosis in plants the end products are always four haploid A) spores. B) eggs. C) sperm. D) seeds. E) gametes.

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The final results of meiosis in plants are invariably four haploid spores. Cell division known as meiosis takes place in sexually reproducing organisms, such as plants.

A diploid cell divides twice during the meiotic process to create four haploid cells. The haploid cells created by meiosis in plants are known as spores.

These spores are produced within specialized structures called sporangia, which are found in the reproductive organs of the plant. Each spore has the potential to develop into a new individual plant under favorable conditions.

The production of spores through meiosis in plants is crucial for their reproductive success, as it allows for genetic diversity and the creation of offspring with unique combinations of traits. In contrast, the production of eggs and sperm (gametes) occurs through a different process called gametogenesis, which takes place in the reproductive organs of the plant.

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in a photosystem, the ____ complex captures light energy and passes it to the ____ center where electrons are transferred out of the system.

Answers

In a photosystem, the light-harvesting complex captures light energy and passes it to the reaction center where electrons are transferred out of the system.

Photosystems are structures located in the thylakoid membranes of plants' chloroplasts, which are responsible for the initial stages of photosynthesis. Photosystems consist of pigments such as chlorophyll, as well as associated proteins that facilitate light energy capture and electron transfer.

During photosynthesis, there are two main photosystems, Photosystem I (PSI) and Photosystem II (PSII). These photosystems work together to convert light energy into chemical energy through a series of redox reactions.

Light energy is first absorbed by the pigments in the light-harvesting complex, which then transfers the energy to the reaction center where it is used to excite an electron to a higher energy state. This excited electron is then passed through a series of electron carriers, releasing energy as it goes, until it eventually reaches a terminal electron acceptor where it is used to reduce another molecule (usually NADP+) to NADPH.

This process is called electron transfer, and it is a critical step in the production of ATP and NADPH during photosynthesis.

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The chart lists organisms in five different categories living near the Texas Gulf Coast.Based on the chart, which food chain best models a flow of energy in this ecosystem?Sun > Mosquitoes > Shrimp >CoyotesSun > Algae > Shrimp > Red drumSun > Pygmy sunfish > Shrimp > Wood ducksSun > Willow oaks > Algae > River otters

Answers

The food chain that best models a flow of energy in the ecosystem near the Texas Gulf Coast is Sun > Algae > Shrimp > Red drum.

What is a food chain? A food chain is a series of organisms in which one organism is eaten by another, which, in turn, is eaten by another, and so on. Energy is transferred from one organism to another in a food chain. This energy transfer is unidirectional and hierarchical, with each organism occupying a specific trophic level in the food chain.

The food chain of the Texas Gulf Coast ecosystem is as follows: Sun > Algae > Shrimp > Red drum.

Sunlight is the primary source of energy for all living organisms on Earth. Algae, the first link in the food chain, is a primary producer. It transforms the sun's energy into organic matter via photosynthesis. Shrimp are primary consumers that eat algae. Red drum is a secondary consumer that feeds on shrimp.

As a result, the energy flows from the sun to the producers, then to the primary consumers, and finally to the secondary consumers. The food chain's top carnivore is a red drum in this ecosystem. Hence, the food chain that best models a flow of energy in the ecosystem near the Texas Gulf Coast is Sun > Algae > Shrimp > Red drum.

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Learning Objective: Hypothesize how biomes will be affected by climate changes.
13. Different types of research have all concluded that global climate change is:
A. increasing annual precipitation everywhere.
B. increasing annual temperatures everywhere.
C. making climates more extreme.
D. making storms more frequent.

Answers

The correct answer is C: making climates more extreme. Global climate change has been studied and found to have many effects, but one of the most notable is the increasing intensity of extreme climates.

Climate change is a phenomenon caused by the buildup of greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, in the Earth's atmosphere. Biomes are vast areas of the Earth's surface that share similar climatic and environmental characteristics. The taiga, tundra, desert, savanna, temperate deciduous forest, tropical rainforest, and grassland are examples of biomes. Biomes differ from one another in terms of precipitation, temperature, soil quality, and other environmental characteristics.

Global climate change is causing biomes to change in many ways. Biomes are shifting towards the poles as temperatures rise, and precipitation patterns are changing. Many species of plants and animals are having difficulty adapting to these changes, which is causing their populations to decline or shift to new areas.

Hence , The global climate change is affecting biomes in many ways, and all types of research have concluded that global climate change is making climates more extreme. Different types of research have all concluded that global climate change is making climates more extreme. The correct option is C.

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Hormonal Changes in the menstrual cycle

Answers

Answer:

The menstrual cycle is regulated by estrogen and progesterone, and includes four phases: menstrual, follicular, ovulation, and luteal. Estrogen levels rise during the follicular phase and peak just before ovulation. Progesterone levels increase during the luteal phase and drop if fertilization does not occur, leading to the shedding of the endometrial lining.

what structure holds the chordae tendineae to the interior walls of the heart is called?

Answers

Papillary muscles holds the chordae tendineae to the interior walls of the heart.

The papillary muscles are found in the heart's ventricles. They connect to the mitral and tricuspid valve cusps via the chordae tendineae and contract to stop these valves from prolapsing or inverting during systole (or ventricular contraction). Around 10% of the total heart mass is made up of the papillary muscles.

In total, the heart contains five papillary muscles, two in each ventricle (right and left). Through chordae tendineae, the tricuspid valve is connected to the anterior, posterior, and septal papillary muscles of the right ventricle. The mitral valve is connected to the left ventricle's anterolateral and posteromedial papillary muscles by chordae tendineae.

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_____ Drugs that prevent the formation of the bacterial cell wall are: a) quinolones b) beta-lactams c) tetracyclines d) aminoglycosides e) macrolides.

Answers

Drugs called beta-lactams stop the bacterial cell wall from forming.

Which medication stops the bacterial cell wall from forming?

Patients are dying from infections brought on by germs that are now resistant to even last-resort medications like vancomycin, like penicillin and vancomycin, which are antibiotics that prevent the formation of the bacterial cell wall.

Which medications target the bacterial cell wall?

Vancomycin, teicoplanin, telavancin, bleomycin, ramoplanin, and decaplanin are important glycopeptide antibiotics. By preventing the formation of peptidoglycan, this family of medications prevents susceptible microorganisms from producing cell walls. They either eradicate bacteria or stop them from proliferating and spreading. Viral infections cannot be treated with antibiotics.

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Which of the following would be a valid endpoint your developers could use to access a particular Relational Database Service instance you're running in the Northern Virginia region?A. us-east-1.amazonaws.com.rdsB. ecs.eu-west-3.amazonaws.comC. rds.us-east-1.amazonaws.comD. rds.amazonaws.com.us-east-1 ed and two of his friends created a lawn service business. all the neighbors knew of the business and several of them had used the service in the past. ann, a neighbor of ed's, was aware of the service and knew how much ed charged for cutting the lawns of the various neighbors. one day, she was complaining to ed that she was tired of cutting the grass on her lawn. ed asked her if she would like him to cut the grass. ann did not say a word, but smiled at the suggestion. ed proceeded to cut ann's lawn and then asked ann for payment. ann refused, saying that she had not formed a contract with ed. the matter went to court and the court found that there was a contract and ann must pay ed. the court said that any reasonable person would have expected payment as ed had expected. such a contract is known as an which area on the illustration represents the largest reservoir of nitrogen on earth? 7 3 1 4 Whats the difference between zinc amino acid chelate with any other type of zincs? what is the molarity of a calcium carbonate solution if 2.00 moles of calcium carbonate are dissolved in 125 ml of water? 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