What happens when a gene is expressed? the gene is mutated the gene dies the gene is able to specialize the gene duplicatesexactly​

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Answer 1

Answer:

When a gene is expressed, it means that the information contained within the gene is used to make a functional product, such as a protein. This process is referred to as gene expression, and it involves the transcription of the gene into RNA and the translation of the RNA into a protein.

If a gene is mutated, it may result in a change in the information contained within the gene, which can affect the resulting protein. Depending on the nature of the mutation, this can lead to a loss of function or a gain of function, which can have a variety of effects on the organism.

If a gene is unable to function properly, it may not be able to specialize or perform its intended function. This can lead to a variety of issues, ranging from developmental abnormalities to disease.

When a gene duplicates exactly, it creates an additional copy of the gene. This can sometimes result in a functional redundancy, where the organism has more of a particular protein than it needs. However, it can also lead to the evolution of new genes and the development of new functions.

Explanation:

Answer 2

Answer:

When genes are expressed, the genetic information (base sequence) on DNA gets copied to an mRNA molecule for the first time (transcription). 

Explanation:

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Related Questions

Arrange the following molecules according to the strength of their dispersion forces Molecules (6 items) Drag and drop into the appropriate area) Dispersion Forces largest dispersion CH3CH(CH3)C(CH3)2CH2 CH3 CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 CH3C(CH3)2CH3 CH4 3 CH3CH2CH3

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The following molecules according to the strength of their dispersion forces Molecules From the largest to smallest dispersion forces:

CH3CH(CH3)C(CH3)2CH2 > CH3C(CH3)2CH3 > CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 > CH3CH2CH3 > CH4.Note that the larger the molecule or the more electrons it has, the stronger its dispersion forces.

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Why do X-linked recessive conditions affect more males than females?

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X-linked recessive conditions affect more males than females because males have only one X chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes.

This means that if a male inherits a defective X chromosome from his mother, he will not have another normal X chromosome to compensate for the defective one. On the other hand, if a female inherits one defective X chromosome from either parent, she will still have a normal X chromosome to compensate, and she will not express the disorder.

The genes that are present on the X chromosome are called X-linked genes. Since males have only one X chromosome, X-linked recessive traits are more common in males. They have no other copy of the X chromosome to mask the defective genes, while females have two X chromosomes, and if the one has the defect, the other can compensate, resulting in a carrier female. Females are less likely to express X-linked recessive diseases because they must inherit two copies of the defective gene, one from each parent, which is very unlikely, whereas males can only inherit one copy of the X chromosome. As a result, males are more likely to develop X-linked recessive diseases than females.

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Which of the following are traits associated with apes, and which are associated with monkeys?•lack of a tail - Apes lack tails, whereas monkeys have tails.•larger body and brain sizes - Apes are generally larger than monkeys and have larger brains.•broad trunks - Apes tend to have relatively vertical, broad trunks; monkeys have more horizontal and narrow trunks.•slow growth pattern - Apes have a slower growth pattern than monkeys.•bilophodont molar - Apes have a Y-5 molar pattern; monkeys have bilophodont molars.•high interspecies variability - Apes have low levels of variation among species, whereas monkeys have high interspecies variability.

Answers

Apes lack tails and have relatively vertical, broad trunks. They are generally larger than monkeys with larger brains, and they have a slower growth pattern than monkeys. In terms of teeth, apes have a Y-5 molar pattern, whereas monkeys have bilophodont molars. Regarding interspecies variability, apes have low levels of variation among species, whereas monkeys have high interspecies variability.

This means that there is greater morphological variation among different species of monkeys compared to different species of apes. In summary, apes lack tails, have larger bodies and brains, have broad trunks, have a slower growth pattern, have a Y-5 molar pattern, and have low levels of variation among species. Monkeys, on the other hand, have tails, have smaller bodies and brains, have narrow trunks, have a faster growth pattern, have bilophodont molars, and have high interspecies variability.

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In the 14th century, the bubonic plague killed more than 2/3 of Europeans. The plague was transmitted by fleas who were infected by rats and would inject a bacteria into the bloodstream that shuts down a person's immune system. While not as common today, the bubonic plague still exists, infecting around a thousand people a year. There are about seven cases in the United States each year, many of those in Arizona and New Mexico. Scientists have discovered that the bacteria works by affecting signaling pathways in the immune system. Scientists discovered that the bacteria causes a reduced response of the immune system. Based on this information, which part of the cell signaling pathway would you predict is being affected? reception transduction o response termination Question 4 1 pts In the 14th century, the bubonic plague killed more than 2/3 of Europeans. The plague was transmitted by fleas who were infected by rats and would inject a bacteria into the bloodstream that shuts down a person's immune system. While not as common today, the bubonic plague still exists, infecting around a thousand people a year. There are about seven cases in the United States each year, many of those in Arizona and New Mexico. Scientists have discovered that the bacteria works by affecting signaling pathways in the immune system. Scientists discovered that the bacteria causes a reduced response of the immune system. Based on this information, what would you predict is happening? The bacteria is amplifying immune response. The bacteria is blocking initiation of immune response. The bacteria is not affecting immune response. The bacteria is preventing termination of immune response.

Answers

A) After reading all these information, response is the part of cell signaling pathway I would predict is being affected. So, the correct choice for answer is option (c).

B) After reading all these information, i would predict the bacteria is preventing initiation of immune response is happening. So, correct choice for answer is option (d).

A) When a normal human body that is not affected by bubonic plague comes in contact of any pathogen, the immune system develops a response against it in order to ensure our healthy survival. The bacteria responsible for bubonic plague is affecting the response of the immune system. As a result of this, the immune system of the affected patients are not responding normally as it would have otherwise to the common pathogens coming in contact of the body. Hence, the correct option for the firs question is the third one, 'response'.

B) Based on the information shared in the question, it can be concluded that the bubonic plague directly hampers the immune response of the body. As a result of this, even ordinary infections can become fatal for the body of affected individuals. There are primary and secondary immune responses that our immunity displays for the first time and subsequent infections by a pathogen. But, it has been observed that immunity is not developing in the individuals who are affected by bubonic plague. Hence, the second option is correct, that states 'the bacteria is preventing initiation of immune response'.

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Complete question:

A) In the 14th century, the bubonic plague killed more than 2/3 of Europeans. The plague was transmitted by fleas who were infected by rats and would inject a bacteria into the bloodstream that shuts down a person's immune system. While not as common today, the bubonic plague still exists, infecting around a thousand people a year. There are about seven cases in the United States each year, many of those in Arizona and New Mexico. Scientists have discovered that the bacteria works by affecting signaling pathways in the immune system. Scientists discovered that the bacteria causes a reduced response of the immune system. Based on this information, which part of the cell signaling pathway would you predict is being affected?

a) reception

b)transduction

c) response

d) termination

B) Question 4 1 pts In the 14th century, the bubonic plague killed more than 2/3 of Europeans. The plague was transmitted by fleas who were infected by rats and would inject a bacteria into the bloodstream that shuts down a person's immune system. While not as common today, the bubonic plague still exists, infecting around a thousand people a year. There are about seven cases in the United States each year, many of those in Arizona and New Mexico. Scientists have discovered that the bacteria works by affecting signaling pathways in the immune system. Scientists discovered that the bacteria causes a reduced response of the immune system. Based on this information, what would you predict is happening?

a) The bacteria is amplifying immune response. b)The bacteria is blocking initiation of immune response.

c) The bacteria is not affecting immune response. d) The bacteria is preventing termination of immune response.

Two pairs of mucosal folds are found in the larynx. Which pair are the true vocal cords(superior or inferior)?

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The true vocal cords are the pair of inferior mucosal folds located in the larynx which are made up of layers of elastic fibers and muscle fibers.

These pair of inferior mucosal folds are responsible for producing sound when air is expelled from the lungs. The superior mucosal folds are false vocal cords, which are not involved in sound production. Instead, they are located higher up in the larynx and are responsible for protecting the true vocal cords from injury or damage. The superior vocal cords are composed of a thicker and more elastic tissue than the false vocal cords. The true vocal cords vibrate to produce sound when air is forced through them.

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Researchers have identified a series of speciation events that have created a new group of organisms. Which of the following terms best describes what has occurred?
A) Macroevolution
B) Biogeography
C) Microevolution
D) Geologic time scale

Answers

The term that best describes what occurred when researchers identified a series of speciation events that have created a new group of organisms is Macroevolution. So option A is the correct answer.

Macroevolution refers to the major evolutionary developments that have taken place over long periods of time. Macroevolution is the process by which an organism evolves over a long period of time, leading to the development of new species, classes, and phyla. The study of macroevolution focuses on the big picture, such as the origins of new groups, as well as the relationships between groups that emerged over millions of years. The term macroevolution is used in opposition to microevolution, which refers to small changes in the gene pool of a population over a brief period of time.

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what is the function of chromoplast

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synthesis and storage of carotenoid pigments in flowers and fruits, and in certain leaves and roots which gets provides energy via photosynthesis

What stage of production are the cattle kept in large pastures? a. Cow/Calf Production b.Backgrounding C.Feedlot d.Both A & B​

Answers

a. Cow/Calf Production stage of production are the cattle kept in large pastures

What does "backing cattle on pasture" mean?

Growing steers and heifers from weaning until they enter the feedlot for finishing is known as backgrounding. It is appropriate for farmers who do not want to finish cattle or keep a cow herd but still want to add weight to calves after weaning.

the part of the cow-calf industry that generates feeder calves for further feeding or grazing. Recently weaned calves gain body weight during the backgrounding or stocker phase of production, culminating in yearlings that are prepared for feedlots. Cattle are fed during the final phase of production until they achieve market weight.

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b. Explain the difference between a “continental(c)” air mass, and a “maritime(m)” air mass. __________________________________________________________________________________________ ___________________________ . c. Explain the difference between a “polar(P)” air mass and a “tropical(T)” air mass. 2. They describe an air mass by its Moisture content and Temperature, so each air mass has two letters. Name each air mass and describe it by moisture content and temperature. cP = cT = mP = mT =

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A maritime air pressure comes from an ocean and is humid, whereas a continental air mass is dry and comes from a landmass. c. A tropical air mass is warm and comes from low latitudes, whereas a polar air mass is frigid and comes from high latitudes.

What distinguishes a marine M air mass from a continental C air mass?

Humid air masses that come from oceans or other big bodies of water are referred to as maritime air masses. Dry air masses called continental air masses come from the land. Warm, wet air masses from the equatorial area are known as equatorial air masses.

What distinguishes a mP air mass from a mT air mass?

Due to decreased sun angles, drier country below, and colder land below, the mT airmass changes. Cold ocean currents or ocean waters at high latitudes are where mP air is produced. This air does not contain as much moisture as mT air.

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Which of the following molecules is the lowest-energy donor of electrons to the electron transport chain?
A. NADH
B. water
C. FADH2
D. ATP

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The molecule that is the lowest-energy donor of electrons to the electron transport chain is FADH2.

What is the electron transport chain? The electron transport chain (ETC) is a sequence of electron carriers in the inner mitochondrial membrane that facilitate the generation of ATP via oxidative phosphorylation. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is oxygen.

NADH and FADH2 are important electron donors to the electron transport chain. They donate electrons to complex I (NADH) and complex II (FADH2), respectively, which then transfer them through the electron transport chain to complex IV, where oxygen is the final electron acceptor.

The energy produced by electron transfer is used to pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane, forming a proton gradient that drives ATP synthesis via ATP synthase. Therefore, NADH and FADH2 are important contributors to ATP synthesis via oxidative phosphorylation.

What is FADH2? FADH2 is a type of reduced flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), a cofactor involved in redox reactions in cells. FADH2 is created when FAD accepts two electrons and two protons. FADH2 is a substrate for succinate dehydrogenase (complex II) in the electron transport chain, where it donates electrons to the chain via its flavin group.

Since the reduction potential of FADH2 is lower than that of NADH, fewer protons are pumped across the mitochondrial membrane when FADH2 donates electrons to the chain. Therefore, NADH donates more energy to the electron transport chain than FADH2 does.

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which letter indicates a choroid plexus, which produces cerebrospinal fluid (csf) in all four ventricles of the brain?

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The letter D indicates a choroid plexus, which produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in all four ventricles of the brain.

The ventricles are interconnected cavities filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) found within the brain's cerebral hemispheres and brainstem. These ventricles are hollow spaces filled with cerebrospinal fluid that support the brain and keep it hydrated. The brain's ventricles have four areas: the lateral ventricles, the third ventricle, the cerebral aqueduct, and the fourth ventricle.The choroid plexus is a cluster of cells found in the ventricles of the brain that secrete cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). In each of the brain's four ventricles, there is a choroid plexus that generates cerebrospinal fluid. The choroid plexus is made up of ependymal cells, which are specialized epithelial cells that line the ventricles and create CSF.Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing nutrients and cushioning. CSF is a transparent, colorless liquid that circulates throughout the brain and spinal cord, providing a cushioning effect to protect the brain and spinal cord from injury or trauma.

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The complete question is "In the given diagram, which letter indicates a choroid plexus, which produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in all four ventricles of the brain?"

in the marine trophic pyramid at which trophic level do you find small fish, crustaceans, and sea stars?

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In the marine trophic pyramid, small fish, crustaceans, and sea stars are found at the second trophic level.

The marine trophic pyramid is an essential concept in the ocean’s food chain. Trophic levels in the marine ecosystem illustrate the role of different species in the food chain. These levels depict the energy transfer from one organism to another in an ecosystem.

In the marine trophic pyramid, the trophic level that represents small fish, crustaceans, and sea stars is at the second trophic level. This trophic level consists of organisms that consume primary producers as their main source of energy. These organisms are commonly referred to as herbivores or primary consumers. Animals in this category include small fish such as anchovies and sardines, sea stars, lobsters, and crabs.

Since the food chain in the marine ecosystem is interrelated, these organisms play a significant role in the survival of other animals in the food chain.

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Which stimulus causes a responding plant to demonstrate phototropism?A. direction of lightB. intensity of lightC. length of the dayD. time of day

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Phototropism is a response caused by a plant sensing the direction of light therefore the correct option is A.

Phototropism is a response to light  stimulants, causing  shops to grow in the direction of the light source. The most common cause of phototropism is the presence of blue and red light. When these light  swells are absorbed by the factory, a hormone called auxin is  touched off.

This hormone causes the factory cells on the shadowed side of the factory to  lengthen, while the cells on the lit side remain the same. As a result, the factory will bend towards the light source. This bending movement is called phototropism.

Hence the correct option is A.

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Compare and contrast how people taste sweetness, with how people taste spiciness. PLEASE HELPPP!!!!

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Answer:

spiciness trigger is on one side of the tongue so is the sweetness

Explanation:

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why would it be necessary for seeds to have some way to inactivate aba when the conditions are right for germinatino

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Seeds must have a way to inactivate ABA when the conditions are appropriate for germination because ABA is an inhibitor hormone that slows or prevents germination.

A seed has a hormonal mechanism that detects environmental conditions such as light, temperature, and water availability. ABA is a hormone that inhibits germination when environmental conditions are unfavorable. The ABA concentration in the seed is reduced when the environmental conditions are suitable for germination, such as when it is moist and warm. This inactivation enables the germination process to proceed.

The plant produces GA, which stimulates seed germination, once ABA is inactivated. The phytohormone ABA is produced in mature seeds and maintains dormancy by inhibiting growth processes such as seed germination.

When the seeds are exposed to proper environmental conditions, such as light and moisture, the seed coat becomes permeable to water and oxygen, and the embryo develops, triggering seed germination. The reduction of ABA in seeds helps to promote the germination process.

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The peritoneal fold situated as a "fatty apron" anterior to the small intestine is the _____.A) mesenteryB) falciform ligamentC) lesser omentumD) greater omentum

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The peritoneal fold situated as a "fatty apron" anterior to the small intestine is the lesser omentum therefore the correct option is C.

The lesser omentum is a double- layered  pack of peritoneum that extends from the stomach to the transverse colon. It's composed of a connective towel layer and an  external adipose layer. The lesser omentum functions to store fat,  give protection for the organs of the  tummy, and act as an immunological  barrier.

It's also involved in the  immersion of certain substances from the bowel, and helps to maintain a constant temperature in the abdominal  depression. It's innervated by the vagus  whim-whams and contains the large vessels of the abdominal  depression.

Hence  the correct option is C.

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many people dislike the taste of leafy greens such as kale or mustard greens. this makes sense, because these vegetables activate ____ taste receptors, which are also activated in response to plants that are toxic.

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many people dislike the taste of leafy greens such as kale or mustard greens. this makes sense, because these vegetables activate bitter taste receptors, which are also activated in response to plants that are toxic.

What exactly is taste receptor activation?

Taste receptor binding causes gustatory G-protein activation, intracellular Ca2+ release, TRPM5 activation, depolarization, activation of voltage-gated Na+ channels (VGNC), and release of ATP, which stimulates purinergic receptors on afferent fibers, resulting in taste perception.

It allows animals to avoid exposure by communicating the presence of poisons in meals, particularly unpleasant defensive chemicals contained in plants. TAS2Rs, a class of G protein-coupled receptors expressed on the surface of taste buds in vertebrates, begin bitter perception.

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All of the following are filamentous proteins except Multiple Choice actin myosini troponin tropomyosin troponin and tropomyosin

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Actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin are filamentous proteins.

However, the answer is "Myosini."Myosin is a motor protein that creates movement within cells, it is not a filamentous protein. Filamentous proteins are proteins that are long, thin, and fibrous, and have various functions, including providing structural support and aiding in cell movement. Actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin are all examples of filamentous proteins.Actin is a thin protein filament that plays a role in muscle contraction, cell division, and cell migration. It is essential for the structure and function of the cytoskeleton, which provides mechanical support to cells and helps them maintain their shape.Myosin is a motor protein that produces movement by interacting with actin filaments. It plays a vital role in muscle contraction, cell division, and cell migration.Troponin and tropomyosin are two regulatory proteins that are essential for muscle contraction. They are involved in the regulation of the actin-myosin interaction that produces the contraction.Troponin is a three-part protein complex that controls the position of tropomyosin on the actin filament. Tropomyosin is a long, fibrous protein that binds to the actin filament and stabilizes it, making it more resistant to deformation. In summary, all the proteins mentioned in the question are filamentous proteins, except Myosin.

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One in every _____ infants is born with only one sex chromosome or with three or more, which creates a chromosomal abnormality.

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One in every 500 infants is born with only one sex chromosome or with three or more, which creates a chromosomal abnormality.

What is an abnormality of chromosomes?  Chromosomal abnormalities arise when there are irregularities or defects in chromosomes. This can happen when chromosomes are damaged or when chromosomes do not separate appropriately in cell division. As a result, some individuals may have too few or too many chromosomes, which may lead to various genetic disorders.

Chromosomal abnormalities are among the most prevalent types of genetic abnormalities. It can cause many symptoms, including intellectual disabilities, structural anomalies, growth deficiencies, infertility, and a range of developmental disorders.

What causes a chromosomal abnormality? Chromosomal abnormalities can occur due to a variety of reasons, including random errors that occur when chromosomes divide in a new cell, environmental impacts, exposure to radiation, parental age, or mistakes in the production of sperm or eggs during meiosis.

What is the frequency of chromosomal abnormality? According to a report, one in every 500 newborns is born with only one sex chromosome or with three or more, which creates a chromosomal abnormality.

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality? The most common chromosomal abnormalities in humans are Down syndrome, Turner syndrome, and Klinefelter syndrome.

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which of the techniques are examples of biotechnology?

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Biotechnology refers to the use of living organisms or their products to develop or improve products and processes.

Genetic engineering: the alteration of an organism's DNA to alter or produce new traits.

Tissue culture is the process of growing cells or tissues in a lab environment for the manufacturing of drugs, medical research, or scientific study.

Recombinant DNA technology: the process of mixing DNA from several sources to create novel DNA sequences.

Fermentation is the process of using bacteria, yeast, or other microbes to create a desired product, such as beer or bread.

DNA sequences are amplified and copied using the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) method in preparation for further examination or usage in biotechnology applications.

Using microorganisms to remove environmental toxins is known as bioremediation.

Cloning is the process of developing organisms that are genetically identical from a single cell or tissue.

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Some behaviors such as mating and caring for young are genetically

determined in certain species of birds. The presence of these behaviors is

most likely due to the fact that

A) birds do not have the ability to learn

B) individual birds need to learn to survive and reproduce

C) these behaviors helped birds to survive in the past

D) within their lifetimes, birds developed these behaviors

Answers

The behaviors such as mating and caring for young are genetically determined in certain species of birds. The presence of these behaviors is most likely due to the fact that these behaviors helped birds to survive in the past.

The correct option is C)

Certain behaviors such as mating and caring for young are genetically determined in certain species of birds. The presence of these behaviors is most likely due to the fact that these behaviors helped birds to survive in the past. Over time, many bird species have developed and passed on behaviors that aid in their survival and reproduction. These innate behaviors enable birds to adapt and respond to their environment with efficiency and precision. Birds that display these behaviors, such as mating and caring for young, are more likely to produce offspring, ensuring the survival of their species. The genetic predisposition for these behaviors is thus passed down to future generations, perpetuating the cycle of survival and reproduction.

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The two main classes of molecules that function as hormones are steroid hormones and hormones that are derived from
A. long-chain fatty acids
B. mucleaic acids
C. cholesterol
D. carbohydrates
E. amino acids

Answers

Option E. The The two main classes of molecules that function as hormones are steroid hormones and hormones that are derived from

What are amino acid?

The two main classes of molecules that function as hormones are steroid hormones and hormones that are derived from amino acids.

Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol, while hormones derived from amino acids include peptides, proteins, and amines.

Long-chain fatty acids and carbohydrates are not typically involved in hormone signaling.

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how many total gametes are produced after both meisois 1 and 2?

Answers

Answer:

Homologue pairs separate during a first round of cell division, called meiosis I. Sister chromatids separate during a second round, called meiosis II. Since cell division occurs twice during meiosis, one starting cell can produce four gametes (eggs or sperm).

Explanation:

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The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis. Which of the following statements correctly describes the process of autoimmunity?
a) The normal protective immune response attacks the body, damaging tissues.
b) A deficiency results from improper development of immune cells or tissues.
c) The body produces inappropriate or exaggerated responses to specific antigens.
d) The body overproduces immunoglobulins.

Answers

the answer is: a

Explanation: The most common cause, or "attacker," is an autoimmune disease, which happens when your immune system attacks your body instead of protecting it. There are many problems with the thyroid gland, like Hashimoto's and thyroiditis. It can happen at any age, but middle-aged women are most likely to have it. It happens when the immune system reacts badly to the thyroid gland.

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during bypass surgery that is used as a treatment for severe obesity, surgeons seal off or remove part of the stomach. the remaining stomach then produces:

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During bypass surgery that is used as a treatment for severe obesity, surgeons seal off or remove part of the stomach. The remaining stomach then produces gastric juices and enzymes.

The remaining stomach produces gastric juices and enzymes after bypass surgery that is used as a treatment for severe obesity. When part of the stomach is sealed off or removed, the digestive system is altered, resulting in a reduced appetite and increased feelings of fullness. It aids in the reduction of food intake, which contributes to weight loss.

Obesity is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide. People who are obese are more likely to develop severe health issues such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and hypertension, among others. The risk of death from these health issues is much higher among people who are overweight or obese than among people who are of normal weight.

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Which of the following is the best example of an adaptation that improves an organism's "fitness"?

A. Dark-colored lizards living on light rocks.
B. A thick coat of fur on animals living in the hot desert.
C. Lizards with sticky toe pads live among tall trees.

Answers

Answer:

C. Lizards with sticky toe pads live among tall trees. is the best example of an adaptation that improves an organism's "fitness". The adaptation allows the lizards to climb and live in their arboreal habitat, increasing their chances of survival by avoiding predators and accessing resources.

where in the cell does the krebs cycle take place?

Answers

The mitochondria's matrix, the organelle's deepest space, is where the Krebs cycle is carried out.

The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, is a series of biochemical reactions that take place in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells. The mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse" of the cell because they produce most of the cell's energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate).

The Krebs cycle is the second stage of cellular respiration, which is the process by which cells convert glucose into ATP. During the Krebs cycle, acetyl-CoA molecules are broken down, releasing energy that is used to produce ATP. The Krebs cycle also generates molecules such as NADH and FADH2, which are used in the final stage of cellular respiration to produce additional ATP.

Overall, the Krebs cycle takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria, which is the innermost compartment of the organelle.

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What does it mean by Peptide bond?

Answers

Answer:

A covalent bond is produced by connecting the carboxyl group of one amino acid to the amino group of another while removing a molecule of water.

Explanation:

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what is a common, painless eye condition, usually associated with aging, in which the central portion of the retina deteriorates and does not function adequately?

Answers

The common, painless eye condition associated with aging that causes the central portion of the retina to deteriorate and function inadequately is called age-related macular degeneration (AMD).

The retina is a layer of tissue at the back of the eye that is responsible for detecting light and sending visual information to the brain. The macula is the central portion of the retina, which is responsible for providing sharp, detailed vision required for reading, driving, and recognizing faces.

In AMD, the macula slowly deteriorates over time, leading to a loss of central vision. This condition can affect one or both eyes and can progress gradually, causing a decrease in the ability to see fine details and colors, distortion of straight lines, and blind spots in the central field of vision. While there is no cure for AMD, early detection and treatment can help slow its progression and preserve vision.

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which system is the command system for the entire body?A. Brain ; B · Spinal cord ; C · Hipothalamus ; D · Pituitary gland

Answers

The command system for the entire body is the Brain. Therefore the correct option is option A.

The nervous system is a network of specialized tissues that helps coordinate the body's activities by sending signals to and from various organs. The nervous system is divided into two main parts: the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

The brain and spinal cord make up the central nervous system, while the nerves outside the CNS make up the peripheral nervous system. The brain is the most complex and critical organ in the human body. It regulates the body's functions and helps you to interact with the world around you. Therefore, the correct answer is option A, the Brain.

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label each example with the type of variable that best represents it. labels can be used more than once. a large body of research suggests that increasing the number of police officers on a police force has effect on crime rates. group of answer choices a. a strong decreasing b. a strong increasing c. a minimal decreasing d. little to no HOW MANY DIFFERENT LICENCE PLATES CAN BE MADE Figure 6-1 illustrates the four possibilities of the distribution of costs and benefits among voters for a government project. For which type would the government most likely fail to undertake many projects that would be considered efficient or productive (in other words, do too few of them relative to economic efficiency)? To be honest I dont know what Im doing with this question Document management provides tools to manage and store documents securely and to keep track of the multiple versions of these documents.True or false Elmer is on a Ferris wheel which has a diameter of 180 ft and whose center is 120 ft off the ground. Find all of the angles such that 03 and such that Elmer's carriage is at a height of 165 ft when it makes an angle of with the horizontal. Leave your answers in exact form critique the ideology of the american dream. identify the true and false statements about the wealth gap in the united states. a. true statement(s) the super-rich are super-consumers. b. the rich make bigger contributions to global warming, but it will have less effect on their everyday lives over the next century. c. press space to open according to andrew sayer, we are all equally responsible for climate change. d. press space to open false statement(s) there are many negatives to a large wealth gap, but it has little to do with problems like global warming. Which phrase describes what the government created to ensure the separation of powers?AChecks and balancesBBills and checksCPolicy and balancesDCabinet and commerce 1.Hardness and yield strength are related to how easily a metal plastically deforms, therefore, by enhancing dislocation movement, mechanical strength can be increased. True or false 2.The impacts of cold work are (a) decreasing yield strength; (b) decreasing tensile strength; (c) increasing ductility. True or false 3.The smallest amount of stress, when a material can develop without a necking, is defined as Elastic Limit. True or false 4.Yield point is the point at which any additional stress will result in an reversible plastic deformation. True or false 5.For the tensile test, as the load is applied, the curve is proportional, and this period of linearity is termed the elastic region. Once the curve deviates from a straight line and begins to yield, the material has reached the proportional limit. Once the material has yielded, it exhibits plastic behavior. True or false 6.The maximum tensile stress, which can be applied to the testing samples during a tensile test, is called Ultimate Tensile Strength. True or false Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between the two forms of Newton's second law (Fnet = dp/dt and Fnet = m.a) Select the correct answera. Fnet = dp/dt reduces to Fnet = m.a if the O acceleration of the object does not change with time. b. Fnet = m.a reduces to Fnet = dp/dt if the acceleration of the object does not change with time. c. Fnet = m.a reduces to Fnet = dp/dt if the mass of the object Answer dt does not change with time. d. Fnet = m.a reduces to Fnet = m.a if the dt momentum of the object does not change with time. e. Fnet = dp/dt reduces to Fnet = m.a if the mass of the object does not change with time. f. Fnet = m.a reduces to Fnet = dp/dt if the momentum of the object does not change with time. The enthalpy of vaporization for dimethyl ether is 27.5 kJ/mol. Dimethyl ether has a vapor pressure of 760 torr at 34.6 oC. Using the Clausius-Clapeyron equation, what is the vapor pressure for methanol at 4.2 oC? Give your answer in torr, to the first decimal point. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits of current-year and cumulative expenditures for camera/drone product R&D? Reducing future warranty claims and the associated costs of warranty repairs Boosting a company's P/Q ratings (the size of this benefit varies with the current and cumulative amounts spent and shows up in the P/Q ratings at the beginning of the following year) Increasing the productivity of PATs in assembling camera/drone models (because of easier to assemble product designs); the size of this benefit occurs immediately and varies according to the current and cumulative amounts spent Providing a pipeline of proven ways to produce and market new and improved camera/drone designs and models, thereby enabling the company to outsell rival brands and become the market share leader in all four geographic regions. o Lowering the costs of components, accessories, and enhancement features used in assembling cameras/drones Popular opinion is often manifested by activities such asA. public demonstrations.B. looting and destruction of public property.C. opinion blogging.D. calling members of Congress.E. public demonstrations; opinion blogging; and calling members of Congress Is business administration and marketing and buying in sesame course Reich asks, Why didnt the nation respond to the Great Regression that started around 1980!?? He argues there were 3 ways the middle class figured out how to cope with flattening/declining incomes - what are they? A student graphed the position of a cart during a 7-second time interval. Complimentary Event The compliment of an event E is the set of outcomes in the sample space that are not included in the outcomes of event E. The complement of E is denoted E (read "E bar"). Rule for Complimentary Events P(E)=1-P(E) or P(E)=1-P(E) O P(E)+P(E)=1 Example # 12: The probability that Mary can work a problem is 70%. Find the probability that Mary cannot work the problem. Example # 13: In 2004, 57.2% of all enrolled college students were females. Choose one enrolled student at random. What is the probability that the student was a male? Drew receives an inheritance that pays him $54,000 every three months for the next two years. Which of the following is closest to the present value (PV) of this inheritance if the interest rate is 8.9% (EAR)?A) $314,366B) $471,549C) $392,957D) $432,000 The price of two funds are as follows at the end of the day of Tuesday, January 15th:NAV Offering Price Net Asset ChangeFund X 10.20 10.95 -0.04Fund Z 11.80 12.57 -0.08One of your clients called and entered a redemption order for 250 shares of Fund X on that Tuesday morning. What would this investor receive?[A] The investor will receive $2,550, less any change in market value.[B] The investor will receive $2,550.[C] The investor will receive $2,540 less any change in market value.[D] The investor will receive $2,540