Variables de pila y batería

• Independent Variable
• Dependent Variable
• Control Group
• Constant Variables:

Answers

Answer 1

The spanish term for stack and battery variables is variables de Pila y Batera.

What are the control group, independent variable, dependent variable, and constant?

In an experiment, a controlled variable is one that remains constant and unaltered. In order to track the outcome of the independent variable, it is kept constant. A dependent variable is the one that is measured, whereas an independent variable is the one that is altered during each trial of the experiment.

What do controlled variables, dependent variables, and independent variables mean?

On the x-axis of the graph is the independent variable. On the y-axis of the graph is the dependent variable, which varies in reaction to the independent variable. Because they shouldn't change, controlled variables are typically not graphed.

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Related Questions

as you read this question, cells in your eyes are sending information to your brain which your brain uses to form an image of the words that you read. is this information being sent along afferent or efferent nerves?

Answers

Information is sent along afferent nerves.

Nerves are like cables that carry electrical impulses between your mind and the rest of your frame. these impulses assist you sense sensations and passing your muscle mass. In addition, they hold positive autonomic capabilities like respiratory, sweating, or digesting meals. Nerve cells also are referred to as neurons.

There are 3 styles of nerves in the human body which might be labeled based on their features. The nerves conduct impulses towards or far from the principal frightened mechanism. In humans 12 pairs, the cranial nerves, are attached to the brain, and, generally, 31 pairs, the spinal nerves, are attached to the spinal cord.

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A small oceanic plate borders the North American Plate along northern California, Oregon, and Washington. As a result of
this plate boundary, the Pacific Northwest contains a volcanic mountain range known as the Cascades.

Based on the volcanic mountain range shown on the map, describe the motion of the plates and identify the type of plate
boundary in this region.

Answers

The motion of the plates is towards each other and the type of plate boundary in this region is referred to as convergent boundary.

What is Convergent boundary?

This is referred to as a location or area where two tectonic plates move towards each other and it is based on different types of factors and the materials which are involved in the process.

This type of boundary is common along northern California, Oregon, and Washington and it contains a volcanic mountain range known as the cascades which depicts the collision of the plates which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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physical variations amongst organisms within the same species are caused by which genetic factor?

Answers

Physical variations amongst organisms within the same species are caused by mutations genetic factor.

Genetic variation refers to variations in traditional genetic expression. Genetic variation within a species can arise from a variety of sources. One source of genetic variation is mutations, which are changes in the sequences of genes in DNA. Gene flow, or the movement of genes between different groups of organisms, is another source. Mutation and recombination that occur during meiosis cause genetic variations. Mutagens, whether chemical or biological, play an important role in inducing mutations. Genetic variation is also influenced by random mating among organisms.

Mutations, gene flow, as well as sexual reproduction are all major causes of variation. By altering the genes of individuals in a population, DNA mutation causes genetic variation. As new people with various gene combinations relocate into a population, they cause genetic variation.

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at which level(s) is eukaryotic gene expression regulated? a. post-translation b. translation and post-translation c. transcription d. transcription and translation e. transcription and post-transcription f. transcription, post-transcription, and translation g. translation h. transcription, post-transcription, translation, and post-translation i. post-transcription

Answers

Transcription, post-transcription, translation, and post-translation . DNA is keep within the nucleus of organism cells, wherever it'stranslated into mRNA.

The freshly created mRNA is then taken from the nucleus and placed within the protoplasm, wherever ribosomes convert it into supermolecule. The nuclear membrane physically separates the processes of transcription and translation; transcription solely takes place within the nucleus, and translation solely takes place outside the nucleus, within the protoplasm. At any purpose within the method, organic phenomenon isregulated.

Regulation might manifest itself at the epigenetic level, the transcriptional level, the post transcriptional level , the translational level or once the super molecule has been made(post-translational level).


Regulation might manifest itself at the epigenetic level (when DNA is uncurled and discharged from nucleosomes to bind transcription factors), the transcriptional level (when polymer is produced), the post-transcriptional level (when polymer is processed and exported to the cytoplasm), the interpretation level (when polymer is translated into protein), or the post-protein level (when the supermolecule has been produced) (post-translational level).


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the non facilitated diffusion of a substance into or out of a cell requires what?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The non-facilitated diffusion of a substance into or out of a cell requires a concentration gradient. Diffusion is the process by which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, and this process can occur with or without the help of proteins called transporters. Non-facilitated diffusion, also known as simple diffusion, is the process of diffusion that occurs without the help of transporters, and it requires a concentration gradient to drive the movement of molecules. When the concentration of a substance is higher inside the cell than outside, the substance will diffuse out of the cell, and when the concentration is higher outside the cell, the substance will diffuse into the cell. This process continues until the concentration of the substance is equal on both sides of the cell membrane.

Non-facilitated diffusion is called as passive diffusion, in this the movement of substances take place below the concentration gradient.

What is Non-facilitated diffusion?

The non-facilitated diffusion of a substance into or out of a cell requires an energy which is provided by the concentration gradient. Diffusion is the process through which molecules move from an area of their high concentration to an area of their low concentration, and this process can take place with or without the help of proteins which are called as transporters.

When the concentration of a substance is higher inside the cell than that of outside, the substance will diffuse out of the cell and the cell shrinks, and when the concentration is higher outside the cell, the substances will diffuse into the cell and the cell volume increases. This process continues until the concentration of all the substances is equal on both the sides of the cell membrane.

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how weather affects the population of mosquitoes between June and September

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

the warmer air incubates viruses faster in mosquitoes, which gives them more time to spread them. Combine that with the fact that warmer temperatures make them hungrier for meals of blood, and you've got a recipe for a potential outbreak.

Which animal organ system controls other organ systems? A. Circulatory system B. Reproductive system C. Immune system D. Nervous system ​

Answers

Nervous System controls other organ system

Answer:

nervous system

Explanation:

Think of the brain as a central computer that controls all the body's functions. The rest of the nervous system is like a network that relays messages back and forth from the brain to different parts of the body. It does this via the spinal cord, which runs from the brain down through the back.

in what process is ATP produced?

Answers

Answer: Cellular Respiration

Explanation: ATP is also formed from the process of cellular respiration in the mitochondria of a cell. This can be through aerobic respiration, which requires oxygen, or anaerobic respiration, which does not. Aerobic respiration produces ATP (along with carbon dioxide and water) from glucose and oxygen.

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for a laboratory exercise in class, a student is given a mixture of small pieces of iron, sand, water, and salt. what physical property could be used to best separate the iron from the other ingredients?

Answers

Answer:

magnet

Explanation:

magnet attracts the iron

an x-linked recessive disorder is found in a particular family. using the glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase allele as a marker, which contains two polymorphic forms, a and b, all family members of the pedigree were genotyped for the presence of either the a or the b or both alleles. considering the pedigree shown, what is the probability that individual iv-1 will express this disease?

Answers

There is 50% chance of carrying the mutation, so there is a 50% chance that IV-1 will show the disease.

The glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase alleles allow one to trace an individual's X chromosomes throughout the pedigree, and determine the probability that an individual inherits the beneficial X allele that causes there is a disease.

Examining person III-3, who has the disease, one can conclude that the "A" polymorphic form of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase goes with the disease locus. III-1 inherited his "A" allele from his mother (II-1), who has two "A" alleles, one on each X chromosome. Since we do not know which X chromosome in II-1 contains the mutated allele, II-1 has a 50% chance of passing on the X chromosome with the mutation to its daughter, III-1 ("B " allele in III. -1 from his father). When III-1 and III-2 have their child, IV-1, the "A" allele in IV-1 must come from the mother, because the father passed the Y chromosome to IV-1, not his X chromosome. .

This is the same chromosome that has a 50% chance of carrying the mutation, so there is a 50% chance that IV-1 will show the disease.

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The wings of species X and Y are built on same basic pattern but are modified for flying. Based on the statement, discuss the type of evolution they represent.​

Answers

Biologists can explain how a species of fly without wings evolved from an ancestral fly species with wings through environmental adeptness.

The wings of species X and Y are built on same basic pattern but are modified for flying?Environmental change is any change in an ecosystem or environment that warrens adaptability from the inhabiting organisms in order to survive. The ability to adapt to these changes is known as environmental adeptness. This is a form of evolution in which an organism will generate or loose characteristics in response to changes in its way of life.Biologist can explain how a species of fly without wings evolved from an ancestral fly species with wings through environmental adeptness because the presence of unnecessary wings would have caused the expenditure of energy with no benefit to the fly, therefore, the offspring of a fly who lives in an environment which has no need for the ability to fly will gradually loose their wings in order to retain more energy and function more efficiently. This is evolution through environmental adaptedness.Many species share much the same DNA: All living things have DNA molecules that encode all genetic information. Among living things there are similarities and sharing of parts of DNA. This is strong evidence of species evolution. An example of this is the similarity between humans and chimpanzees.Plant and animal cells have almost all of the same structures: Although there are some differences, plant and animal cells share almost all cell structures. This is a strong indication of how life has evolved on our planet.

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which size of particulates are the most harmful to human health? group of answer choices greater than 4.0 microns 2.0 microns to 4.0 microns 0.1 micron to 2.0 microns 0 microns to 0.1 microns

Answers

Option C, The most problematic particles range from 0.1 to 2.0 microns. These tiny particles often enter the lungs through the nose and throat and harm human health.

Particles between 0.1 and 2.0 microns in size can go deep into your lungs and even enter your bloodstream in rare cases. The biggest threat to human health comes from tiny particles, also known as PM2.5, which have a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers. The most hazardous particle matter human health because of how easily they may be inhaled due to their small size. particles enter your lungs after being breathed and are immediately absorbed into your circulation.

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urgent!!
In gravitropism, auxin affects the cells in shoots and roots in opposite ways.
How are the two effects different?
OA. In stems, more auxin causes cells to grow longer. In roots, less
auxin causes cells to grow longer.
B. In stems, less auxin causes cells to strengthen. In roots, more
auxin causes cells to strengthen.
C. In stems, less auxin causes cells to shorten. In roots, more auxin
causes cells to shorten.
OD.
stems, more auxin causes cells to grow wider. In roots, less
auxin causes cells to grow wider.

Answers

If the root is not developing downwardly vertically, auxin builds up in the lower portions of the root, preventing cell elongation and leading the root to bend toward gravity.

What does 'cell elongation' mean?

Any persistent enlargement of cells that have already been created during differentiation will be referred to as elongation. Cell elongation can also be described as any large boost in the cell wall's surface since the size of the a plant is dictated by the size of its surface.

What results in cell lengthening?

By encouraging wall loosening by cleaving these connections, auxin lengthens stem and coleoptile cells. New cell membrane polymers may be intercalated in conjunction with this process.

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a) two essential components of successful therapy are complete subgingival scaling with root debridement by the dental hygienist and effective daily dental biofilm control by the patient. b) the objective is to eliminate or at least suppress the pathologic microorganisms in the subgingival area to promote healing and hence control the infection. group of answer choices statement a is true and statement b is false. statement a is false and statement b is true. both statements are true. both statements are false.

Answers

Both claims are True - Deep, difficult-to-access pockets, overhangs, inadequate crown margins, and calculus that retains plaque are all major causes of recurrent illness.

Most of the time, a complete periodontal debridement performed under local anesthesia is sufficient to halt disease progression and improve the clinical signs and symptoms of an active illness.

However, further pharmacotherapeutic treatments should be taken into consideration if clinical symptoms of disease activity, such as increased pocket depths, loss of attachment, and bleeding on probing, continue after comprehensive mechanical therapy.

A dysbiotic inflammatory condition with negative effects on overall health is periodontitis. Insights into the formation and stability of dysbiotic oral microbial populations, which can mediate inflammatory disease at both local and remote locales, have been revealed by recent investigations. The mechanisms of microbial immune subversion that tip the scales from homeostasis to illness in oral or extraoral locales are discussed in this review.

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Based on the lab results, which organism is most likely causing Tori's new symptoms?

Answers

Answer:

Based on the lab results, which organism is most likely causing Tori's new symptoms? Which of the following best explains why Tori developed a new series of symptoms? -Tori's immune system was compromised because of her respiratory infection, and this resulted in a yeast infection.

Explanation:

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Question


Examine the following diagrams. Columns I and II contain rock layers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both columns were taken from the same dig site at different locations. Which two layers are of approximately the same age?
Responses
A B & EB & E
B C & DC & D
C A & DA & D
D B & F

Answers

The layers that are approximately the same age out of the columns in the same dig site, are B. C & D.

How to know the age of rock layers ?

Radiometric dating, which considers the ratio of two distinct isotopes in a sample, establishes the age of rocks. Geologists can estimate the age of a material using tools like this thermal ionization mass spectrometer because radioactive isotopes degrade over a predictable period of time.

Scientists do not establish the precise age of a fossil or rock using relative dating. To determine when an event occurred in relation to the other events recorded in that sequence, they examine a group of rocks.

Two rock layers are most likely the same age if they contain the same index fossils. Rock Layers C and D have the same index fossil which show that they are the same age because the fossil has fossilized to the same rate for both layers.

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Consider the following scenario and answer the questions that follow:
Scenario: an aquatic snail is placed in a test tube filled with water and
placed in a sunny environment.

2. Does cellular respiration occur?

Answers

In a scenario whereby an aquatic snail is placed in a test tube filled with water and placed in a sunny environment, cellular respiration occurs.

What is Cellular respiration?

This is referred to as the process by which organisms use oxygen to break down food molecules to get chemical energy for cell functions. This process comprises of two types known as aerobic which occurs in the presence of oxygen while anaerobic occurs in the absence of oxygen.

In this example, we were told that an aquatic snail is placed in a test tube filled with water and placed in a sunny environment which therefore means that cellular respiration is most likely to occur regardless of the amount of oxygen present in the tube and is therefore the reason why Yes was chosen as the correct choice.

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describe the 4 steps you need to perform in order to create a standard curve a protein quantitation using protein standards and the bradford reagent.

Answers

Start by serially dilution a known concentration stock solution. You are then given a set of tubes with various but known protein concentrations. Second, add dye to the tubes and let the colour fully emerge.

Measure absorbances and graph them against protein solute concentration, third. Steps 1-2 for preparation and dilution-

We performed a series of dilutions starting with 2 ml of stock albumin solution to produce six tubes with various albumin concentrations (mouse over image to show dilutions).

Step 3: Tubes' Dilution Factors

Each tube held 1 ml of liquid upon dilution. Our tube dilutions were as follows: 1, 100% undiluted stock; 1/2, 50% concentration; 1/4, 25% stock concentration; 1/8, 12.5%; 1/16, 6.25 percent; and 0, pure water without albumin, which we used as our "blank" tube.

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how does the signal recognition particle (srp) function in sorting proteins to the endoplasmic reticulum question 8 options: the srp cleaves the signal sequence from the end of the protein after translocation into the er, releasing the protein into the er lumen the srp must be associated with a cytosolic ribosome before the ribosome can attach to the er membrane and initiate translation of an mrna encoding a protein with an er signal the srp is an integral membrane protein in the er that binds the signal sequence and guides the ribosome translating the protein to a translocation channel the srp binds the er signal sequence in the cytosol after synthesis of the protein has begun on a ribosome, and escorts the ribosome/mrna complex to the er membrane

Answers

The process described is called protein conflation(synthesis), which is also called translation(restatement), and is a process in which the information contained in a runner RNA patch is converted into proteins.

The process of protein synthesis, also called restatement, is grounded on the reading of messenger RNA and the union of amino acids corresponding to the codon sequence( sequence of three nitrogenous bases) present in this RNA. In protein conflation, thus, the conversion of information contained in RNA motes into proteins occurs.

The endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus and lysosomes are part of the endomembrane system.

The ER signal sequence is a hydrophobic aminoacidic region of the protein located at the N-terminal end which is recognized by the signal- recognition particle( SRP) and its receptor located on the rough endoplasmic reticulum membrane.

Thus, proteins destined for the ER are restated by cytosolic ribosomes and are targeted to the ER when a signal sequence emerges during translation.

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what is the amazon ecosystem structure? what are the different actor types involved in the amazon ecosystem? what is the role of seller labs within the ecosystem?

Answers

The Amazon ecosystem structure refers to the interconnected network of actors involved in the Amazon marketplace.

The main actor types include customers, sellers, Amazon itself, and third-party service providers. Customers are the buyers who purchase products from the platform.

Sellers are individuals or businesses that list and sell products on Amazon. Amazon acts as the facilitator, providing the platform, logistics, and customer support.

Third-party service providers like Seller Labs offer tools and services to assist sellers in managing their businesses, optimizing listings, and enhancing their performance.

Seller Labs plays a crucial role by providing valuable resources and solutions to help sellers succeed and thrive within the Amazon ecosystem.

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A of isolation in which two populations with complex courtship displays or rituals become
different enough that they no longer respond to the other's actions.
a. Geographic isolation
b. Behavioral isolation
c. Temporal isolation

Answers

Answer:

The term you are referring to is behavioral isolation. Behavioral isolation is a type of isolation in which two populations with complex courtship displays or rituals become different enough that they no longer respond to the other's actions. This can occur as a result of geographic or temporal isolation, but it ultimately results in the two populations being unable to mate and reproduce with each other. This can eventually lead to the formation of two distinct species.

Explanation:

antibodies attach to mast cells via what part of the antibody structure? multiple choice 2 constant region antigen-binding region mhc region

Answers

Constant region. The method employed to eliminate the antigen and antibodies is determined by the constant region.

IgM, IgG, Iga, IgD, and IgE are the five main classes of antibodies, each of which is categorised according to its immunological function and constant region structure. The Fab (fragment, antigen binding) region is the name given to this area of the antibody. It is made up of one constant and one variable domain from each of the antibody's heavy and light chains. The variable domains from the heavy and light chains shape the paratope at the amino terminal end of the antibody monomer. While the fragment variable (Fv) portion of immunoglobulin (Ig) G antibodies is in charge of cellular or tissue targeting, the constant region is in charge of the effector immune mechanism and prolongs serum half-life.

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Gustatory receptors are sensitive to all of the following taste qualities EXCEPT1. bitter2. sour3. spicy4. sweet

Answers

All taste qualities aside from spicy are detectable by gustatory receptors, hence option 3 is correct.

What are gustatory receptors?

Gustatory receptors are found on the tongue's papillae and are utilized to sense flavor. The olfactory epithelium of the nasal cavity contains olfactory receptors.

Humans have gustatory receptors on their tongues, which are responsible for detecting the tastes of the various foods people eat.

Therefore, these receptors can detect umami as well as sweet, sour, salty, and bitter sensations, hence option 3 is correct.

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Which of the following describes the
coastal photic zones?
A. permanent darkness below 1000 meters with
bioluminescent bacteria, bottom feeders, and angler fish
B. up to 200 meter depth and includes photosynthetic
plants, sea anemones, sponges, crabs, and clams
C. the "twilight zone" between 200-1000 meters deep
and includes whales and octopi and little life

Answers

Photic zone up to 200 meter depth and includes photosynthetic plants, sea anemones, sponges, crabs, and clams. The correct option is B.

What is photic zone?

The photic zone, also known as the euphotic zone, epipelagic zone, or sunlight zone, is the uppermost layer of a body of water where phytoplankton can perform photosynthesis.

It goes through a number of physical, chemical, and biological processes that allow nutrients to enter the upper water column.

The photic zone is the top layer of the ocean, closest to the surface, and is also known as the sunlight layer. Enough light penetrates the water in this zone to allow photosynthesis.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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Some plants produce fruit which contains their seeds. How does producing fruit benefit the plant?
O Animals often carry the seeds away from the parent plant when they eat the fruit.
O Seeds contained in fruit need the extra nutrients from the surrounding fruit to start growing.
O The fruit keeps the seeds from being damaged when they fall from the plant
O Fewer seeds get eaten by animals if they are hidden inside the fruit, where they can't be seen.

Answers

Answer:

The Role of Fruits

One of the main functions of a fruit is to spread the seeds and allow the plant to reproduce. Therefore, all flowering plants produce fruit, regardless of whether the fruit is edible, sweet, or soft.

Explanation:

when crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote, what is the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype?

Answers

When crossing a homozygous recessive with a heterozygote the chance of getting an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype is 50 %.

Homozygous is the condition of genotype where both the alleles of a gene are of the same type and origin. Therefore both the alleles have similar type of effect. Homozygous alleles can be of two types: both can be dominant type or both can be recessive type.

Heterozygote condition is where the genotype has one dominant and one recessive allele. Suppose a heterozygote genotype is Bb where B is dominant and b is recessive. Then the homozygous genotype for such alleles will be bb. When both are crossed the resulting offspring can have either of the two genotypes: Bb or bb. Hence there are only 50 % chances of obtaining a recessive phenotype.

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the precambrian: group of answer choices is the age of algae, and occurred just before the mesozoic. is the age of trilobites, and occurred just before the mesozoic. is the age of trilobites, and occurred just before the paleozoic. is the age of algae, and occurred just before the paleozoic.

Answers

The algae provided the food and energy source that allowed the organisms to grow.

Common Precambrian fossils include stromatolites and similar structures, which are trace mats of algae like microorganisms, and microfossils of other microorganisms. The mesozoic ended with a great extinction at the end of the cretaceous period. All the dinosaurs except the birds disappeared in this extinction. Another mass extinction occurred near the end of the triassic period. The cenozoic era was a time when communities took on a more modern appearance. Bacteria were the first organisms to live on earth.They made their appearance three billion years ago in the waters of the first oceans. At first, there were only anaerobic heterotrophic bacteria.The fossil record of multicellular animals from the precambrian includes three main groups that have persisted to the present day.

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what type of cavity treatment involves making an incision from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis instead of using a trocar?

Answers

Direct incision treatment involves making an incision from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis instead of using a trocar.

This occurs when esophageal acid from the stomach backs up. Since the oesophagus is situated beneath the breastbone and can get inflamed as a result of acid reflux, xiphoid process pain may also arise. Heart disease is one of the other causes of xiphoid process pain.

The sternum's xiphoid process is painfully swollen and uncomfortable when someone has xiphoid syndrome. The xiphoid process becomes inflamed, resulting in xiphodynia, as a result of mechanical trauma to that anatomical area. Since there is little information available on this uncommon condition, the prevalence of xiphoid syndrome is unknown.

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Order the steps that occur as a protein is synthesized within a cell and finally excreted for use outside of the cell.

Answers

Answer:

1. The protein is synthesized within the cell using the information in the cell's DNA.

2. The protein is folded into its final shape.

3. The protein is transported to the cell membrane.

4. The protein is excreted from the cell, typically with the help of special protein-transporting molecules.

5. The protein is now outside of the cell and can be used for its intended purpose.

Explanation:

Use the word bank below to complete the sentence that follows

glucose, energy, chloroplast, sugar, sun

Plants use the carbon dioxide they take in to make __________, which is a _________ molecule that stores ______________ that the plant absorbs from the ______________.

Answers

Plants use the carbon dioxide they take in to make glucose, which is a sugar molecule that stores energy that the plant absorbs from the sun.

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