The assessment technique would be an appropriate tool to evaluate this type of pain is flex the bicep against resistance.
The muscle mass in the middle arm is made up of the muscle heads that originate from the scapula (shoulder blade). The radius, the outermost of the two bones that make up the forearm, is where the other end is attached.A component of the musculoskeletal system is the assessment of muscle strength. By having the client flex their biceps against resistance, you can determine the strength of their bicep muscles. Checking for fluid around the knee joint by palpating for the balloon sign. The girth of the thigh serves as an evaluation of muscle size. A ligament slipping over a bony protrusion may be the cause of a cracking sound during movement.Between the shoulder and the elbow on the front of the upper arm, there is a big muscle called the biceps. The muscle's main job is to flex the elbow and rotate the forearm; it is also referred to by the Latin name biceps brachii, which means "two-headed muscle of the arm."To know more about muscle check the below link:
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you are called to a private home where a 92-year-old man is experiencing severe squeezing chest pain on the left side that radiates to his left jaw and shoulder. he is prescribed nitroglycerin but has not taken any. he is also on a daily aspirin regimen, which he just took with his morning medications. his pulse is 90, bp is 88/64, respirations are 26, and his skin is pink, warm, and dry. after giving oxygen therapy, performing a focused physical assessment, and obtaining opqrst and sample history, what should you do next?
After giving oxygen therapy, performing a focused physical assessment, and obtaining OPQRST and SAMPLE history, you should next Transport immediately.
Nitroglycerin is used to treat coronary artery disease-related angina (chest pain). This medication can also be used to treat an existing angina attack. Nitroglycerin belongs to the class of medications known as vasodilators. It works by relaxing the blood vessels, allowing the heart to work less hard and thus require less oxygen.
Nitroglycerin is a type of medicine known as a nitrate. It works by relaxing the blood vessels and increasing blood and oxygen supply to the heart while decreasing its workload. Nitroglycerin is not recommended for patients who have experienced allergic reactions to the medication.
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an elderly patient with a history of anticoagulant use presents after a fall at home that day. she denies any loss of consciousness. she has a hematoma to her forehead and complains of headache, dizziness, and nausea. what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Subdural hematoma is the most likely cause of her symptoms
A clotted pool of blood that forms in an organ, tissue, or body space. A hematoma is usually caused by a broken blood vessel that was damaged by surgery or an injury. It can occur anywhere in the body, including the brain.
Hematomas usually disappear on their own, shrinking over time as the accumulated blood is absorbed. It might take months for a large hematoma to be fully absorbed. If a haematoma is not treated and the pressure within it exceeds the blood pressure in the dermal and subdermal capillaries, it can cause necrosis of the overlying skin. The term "electronic commerce" refers to the sale of goods and services over the internet.
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an iv seondary infusion of 0.9% normal saline 100 ml with inamrinone (inocor) 0.1 grams/100 ml is prescribed for client with heart failure. the medication is to be delivered at a rate of 400 mcg/minute. the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver at 24 ml/hour.
First calculate the number of mcg/hour: 400 mcg x 60 minutes = 24000 mcg/hour. Next calculate the number of ml/hour needed to administer 24,000 mcg/hour: 100,000 mcg: 100ml :: 24,000 mcg : X 100,000/24,000 :: 100/X 100,000X = 2,400,000 X = 24 ml/hour.
Heart failure happens when the heart muscle fails to adequately pump blood. Blood frequently backs up, causing fluid to accumulate in the lungs and legs. Heart failure can occur when the heart cannot adequately pump or fill.
A shortness of breath, fatigue, swollen legs, and a rapid heartbeat are all symptoms. Treatments could include eating less salt, limiting water intake but also taking prescription medication. In the some instances a defibrillator as well as pacemaker may be implanted.
Infusion pumps can deliver large or small amounts of fluids and can be used to deliver nutrients or medications like insulin or other hormones, antibiotics, chemotherapy drugs, as well as pain relievers. Some infusion pumps are primarily intended for stationary use at the patient's bedside.
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the nurse responds to the call light of a client who has had a cervical discectomy earlier in the day. the client states that she is having severe pain that had a sudden onset. what is the nurse's most appropriate action?
The most appropriate action for the nurse to do to treat a client that is experiencing severe pain after having a cervical discectomy is to call the patient's surgeon to report the patient's experience of pain.
Cervical discectomy is a surgical procedure that is done to remove a damaged intervertebral disc from the spine in the neck or damaged tissue in that area. This surgery took the pressure off the nerves. When one just got this surgery performed on them, they must get enough rest and avoid lifting heavy things, as well as follow other instructions that were given by their doctor.
If one feels pain that doesn't get better even after taking pain medicine or experiencing numbness, tingling, shortness of breath, and other worrying symptoms, they must contact their medical provider immediately. In the case in the question above, the nurse should report the patient's condition to her surgeon as soon as possible, so the surgeon can figure out what is happening and treat her accordingly.
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the healthcare provider prescribes acetaminophen elixir (tylenol elixir) 600 mg po every 6 hours for an adult client experiencing pain associated with maxillofacial surgery. the bottle is labeled 500 mg/15 ml. how many ml should the nurse administer?
The healthcare provider prescribes acetaminophen elixir (tylenol elixir) 600 mg po every 6 hours for an adult client experiencing pain associated with maxillofacial surgery. the bottle is labeled 500 mg/15 ml. The nurse should administer 18ml
Using the formula D/H x Q
= 600 mg/500mg x 15 ml
= 18 ml
This cocktail of drugs is used to treat mild to moderate pain. It includes both a non-opioid painkiller and an opioid painkiller (codeine) (acetaminophen). Codeine alters how your body perceives and reacts to pain by acting on the brain. A fever can also be lowered with acetaminophen.
Dentistry has a unique branch known as maxillofacial surgery. It entails surgical procedures to fix conditions, wounds, and mouth, jaw, or face deformities. Maxillofacial surgeons are highly trained specialists who identify and address disorders with: The bones, muscles, and tissues in your lower face and jaw (maxillofacial area).
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is characterized by behavioral and cognitive deficits that involve permanent damage to the brain.
Dementia is characterized by behavioral and cognitive deficits that involve permanent damage to the brain.
Dementia is a term wont to describe a gaggle of symptoms moving memory, thinking and social talents severely enough to interfere along with your existence. It is not a selected sickness, however many diseases will cause insanity. Tho' insanity typically involves state of mind, state of mind has completely different causes. Medication and therapies could facilitate manage symptoms. Some causes are reversible.
A behavioral deficit is once a private includes a deficiency or inability to perform an exact behavior. An example would be somebody that cannot multitask with straightforward duties
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according to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. in addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
The nurse should consider improving the staff's use of restraint procedures. That is option D.
Who is a restrained client?A restrained client is the client that is placed in a confined environment that limits their movement without being supervised. Some of the client's that may require being restrained include the following:
when the patient is exhibiting a harmful behaviourduring a surgical procedurewhen a patient is agitating beyond controla psychotic patient that is uncooperative.The long-term goal of the debriefing after restraining a client is to improve aggression management procedures so that prevention of aggression improves and the frequency of restraint use decreases.
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Complete question:
According to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. In addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
a) deciding when to release the client from restraints
b) comparing the perceptions of the various staff members
c) providing feedback to each other on how procedures were handled
d) improving the staff's use of restraint procedures
you want to look up the appropriate dietary reference intakes (dri) values for a client. which characteristic is not needed to determine this value?
You want to look up the appropriate dietary reference intakes values for a client. The characteristic that is not needed to determine this value is the client's level of physical activity.
The term "dietary reference intakes" refers to a group of position values that are used to plan and assess the nutritional intake of healthy individuals. These values, which vary by age and gender, include the recommended dietary allowance, or RDA, which is the amount of food consumed on average each day that will satisfy the nutritional needs of around 97%–98% of healthy people. The concentration of sodium nutrients, expressed as a percentage of the daily values, must be indicated on food labels in addition to nutrition and health information.
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which of the following is a symptom of riboflavin deficiency? a. edema b. diarrhea c. purplish tongue d. constipation e. anemia
(c) Purplish tongue is a symptom of riboflavin deficiency.
Fatigue, a swelling throat, blurred eyesight, and sadness can all result from riboflavin insufficiency. Skin cracking, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth are just a few of the skin's problems it might cause. Along with reproductive difficulties, hyperemia, edoema around the pharynx, liver deterioration, and hair loss can also happen.
The SLC52A3 or SLC52A2 genes, which encode riboflavin transporters, are mutated in the disorder. These patients consequently suffer riboflavin deficiency because they are unable to absorb and transport riboflavin effectively.
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he nurse is conducting a cancer risk assessment for a middle-aged client. which risk factor is appropriate for motivational interviewing for this client as an approach to risk reduction?
Motivational interviewing is a technique used to guide clients to make changes in their behavior.
A client's diet and nutritional status can be changed. Gender, family hx of cancer and age are risk factors that cant be changed.
The term "independent" refers to a person who does not work for the government. Individual judgements or assessments of risk may be affected by psychological, ideological, religious or otherwise subjective factors, which impact rationality of the process.
A 2017 systematic review of patients and doctors discovered that overstatement of benefits and understatement of risks occurred more frequently than the opposite.
Risk assessment can also be done on a much larger "systems" scale, such as assessing the risks of a nuclear power plant (a mechanical, electronic, nuclear, and human system that interacts) or a hurricane (a complex meteorological and geographical system).
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the nurse is reviewing the serum electrolyte levels of a client with heart failure who has been taking digoxin for 6 months. the nurse should report which finding from the lab report to the health care provider?
The nurse is reviewing the serum electrolyte levels of a client with heart failure who has been taking digoxin for 6 months. The nurse should report hypokalemia.
(Hypokalemia is one of the most common causes of digoxin toxicity. It is essential that the nurse carefully monitor the Potassium levels of clients taking digoxin to avoid toxicity. Low serum potassium levels can cause cardiac dysrhythmias.)
Low potassium (K+) levels in the blood serum are referred to as hypokalemia. Mild low potassium levels seldom result in symptoms. Symptoms may include weakness, cramping in the legs, fatigue, and constipation. The chance of an irregular heart rhythm, which is frequently excessively slow and can result in cardiac arrest, is also increased by low potassium levels.
Vomiting, diarrhea, drugs like furosemide and steroids, dialysis, diabetes insipidus, hyperaldosteronism, hypomagnesemia, and inadequate nutrition intake are some of the factors that contribute to hypokalemia.
Hypokalemia is characterized by potassium levels below 3.5 mmol/L, which are considered normal ranges between 3.5 and 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 and 5.0 mEq/L).
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the wellness center is a type of nursing center that focuses on: group of answer choices programs affiliated with major for-profit health corporations. health-promotion, disease-prevention, and disease-management programs. programs for special populations and specific health conditions. public health programs.
The wellness center is a type of nursing center that focuses on health-promotion, disease-prevention, and disease-management programs.
A specific kind of nursing center service model is the wellness center. The health and wellness center's main priorities include programs for illness management, disease prevention, and health promotion. The majority of the funding for the centers comes from service contracts, public health agencies, grants, service fees, donations made voluntarily, and shared resources from associated organizations. They could offer outreach, public education, vaccines, family evaluation and screening, home visits, social support, and enabling services, among other things. They enhance current primary care options.
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Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance they are at.
Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance they are at an increased risk of injury (option B).
Why do hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance?Hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance because they alter the perception of reality in the brain by affecting neuronal networks responsible to communicate signals from the surrounding environment, thereby changes in the brain are able to produce these effects.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance and therefore they can cause injury due to the faulty perception of the surrounding environmental conditions, it is for that reason that these types of drugs are legally forbidden in many countries because it may cause harm to one or third persons.
Complete question:
Choose the correct option. Since those using hallucinogenic drugs have a warped sense of distance, they are at...
A. a decreased risk of injury.
B. an increased risk of injury.
C. no risk of injury.
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During brain surgery, after opening a hole in the cranium, the surgeon's scalpel will penetrate the layers of brain coverings in which order (first - to-last)?A: meningeal layer - periosteal layer - arachnoid mater - pia materB: periosteal layer - meningeal layer - arachnoid mater - pia materC: periosteal layer - meningeal layer - pia mater- arachnoid materD: arachnoid mater - meningeal layer - periosteal layer - pia mater
The Order of layers of brain coverings, periosteal layer > meningeal layer > arachnoid mater > pia mater.
The mind is the maximum complex part of the human body. This 3-pound organ is the seat of intelligence, interpreter of the senses, initiator of body motion, and controller of behavior.
The mind is a complicated organ that controls concept, memory, emotion, contact, motor talents, imagination and prescient, breathing, temperature, hunger, and every manner that regulates our frame. Collectively, the brain and spinal twine that extends from it make up the critical anxious device or CNS.
The brain has 3 important parts: the cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem. Cerebrum: is the biggest part of the brain and is composed of proper and left hemispheres.
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when a donor cataract lens is not available for surgical replacement in a patient, the physician may utilize an artificial intraocular lens. the correct abbreviation for this type of implant is:
The doctor may use an artificial intraocular lens when a donor cataract lens is not available for surgical repair in a patient. IOL is the appropriate abbreviation for this kind of implant.
An intraocular lens implant is a man-made, artificial lens that is implanted inside the eye to take the place of a natural lens that has been surgically removed, typically during cataract surgery. An expandable intraocular lens is put into the eye. The most typical lens used during cataract surgery, according to the AAO, is a monofocal medicine. You can see clearly and precisely at a specific distance with this kind of lens. A lens implanted in the eye to treat myopia or cataracts is known as an intraocular lens (IOL).
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a nurse is preparing to suction a patient. the pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning?
Pulse oximetry reads 94% and the pulse is 65. Which discovery will prompt the nurse to halt suctioning? When oxygen saturation reaches 88%, stop.
A technique called pulse oximetry is performed to determine the blood's oxygen saturation level. It is a simple, painless test to determine how well oxygen is being delivered to the body parts that are farthest from the heart, such the arms and legs.A typical oximetry reading is what?
95% or more oxygen is considered to be a normal level. 90% of patients with sleep apnea or chronic lung illness may have normal levels. The "SpO2" value on a pulse oximeter displays the blood's oxygen content as a percentage. Call your healthcare practitioner if the SpO2 level you take at home is less than 95%.
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stopping the transfusion covering the client with a blanket notifying the provider assessing the client's skin for a rash
A nurse is monitoring a client who reports having chills and back pain during a blood transfusion. The nurse is stopping the transfussion.
Intravenously putting blood components into a person's circulation is known as a blood transfusion. For a variety of medical disorders, transfusions are performed to replenish blood components that have been lost.
This potentially life-saving procedure can replenish blood lost during surgery or an accident. If a disease prevents your body from producing enough blood or any of the components of your blood properly, a blood transfusion may also be helpful.
When an intravenous (IV) line is positioned on the patient's body, the blood transfusion operation gets started. The new blood will start to be given to the patient through the IV. A straightforward blood transfusion can take anywhere from one to four hours, depending on the volume of blood needed.
Complete question:
A nurse is monitoring a client who reports having chills and back pain during a blood transfusion. Which of the following action is the nurse's priority?
a. Stopping the transfusion
b. Covering the client with a blanket
c. Notifying the provider
d. Assessing the client's skin for a rash
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strike through bookmark user note feedback acute medically supervised withdrawal (for 5 or more days) in the treatment of opioid use disorders:
Acute withdrawal under medical supervision (for five or more days) in the management of opioid use disorders is not likely to lead to sustained abstinence.
Quitting drugs is painful, and adjusting to new situations can be frustrating. This means that while withdrawing from nearly any substance, anxiety, impatience, and frustration are frequent.
Drug dependence is accompanied by challenging withdrawal symptoms that can be both physical and psychological in character, and occasionally even life-threatening. Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists like clonidine and lofexidine, as well as opioid agonists like methadone and buprenorphine (partial agonist), are medications used to alleviate withdrawal symptoms.
In order to manage opioid use disorders, acute withdrawal under medical supervision (for five or more days) is not likely to result in prolonged abstinence.
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you are giving morning medications to a patient who refuses to take an oral dose of docusate (colace). what is your best response?
The best response said by the nurse is can you tell me why you do not want to take the docusate.
The anion bis(2-ethylhexyl) sulfosuccinate, also known as dioctyl sulfosuccinate, is known chemically and pharmaceutically as docusate. It is included in the WHO's list of essential medications. In medicine, salts of this anion, particularly docusate sodium, are frequently used as laxatives and stool softeners, either orally or rectally. With more over 3 million prescriptions written, it was the 163rd most frequently prescribed drug in the US in 2020. According to some research, docusate is not any more helpful at treating constipation than a placebo. There are additional docusate salts with medical applications, such as calcium and potassium.
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during prenatal screening of a client with diabetes, the nurse should keep in mind that the client is at increased risk for which complications? select all that apply.
There are risks and complications associated with gestational diabetes such as pre-term labor, preeclampsia, hyper/hypoglycemia, macrosomia (large baby), hypoglycemia in baby at birth etc.
A group of metabolic diseases known as diabetes, sometimes known as diabetes mellitus, are characterized by chronically increased blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia). Common symptoms include frequent urination, increased thirst, and increased appetite. If untreated, diabetes can cause a variety of health problems. Acute consequences include hyperosmolar hyperglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, and even death. Serious long-term effects include cardiovascular illness, stroke, chronic kidney disease, foot ulcers, eye damage, nerve damage, and cognitive impairment.
The complete question is:
During prenatal screening of a client with diabetes, the nurse should keep in mind that the client is at increased risk for which complications? select all that apply.
1. Still birth
2. Hypertension
3. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
4. Macrosomia
5. Spontaneous abortion
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the health care provider prescribed digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, for the client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. which is the scientific rationale for administering this medication?
.A nurse should assess the apical pulse for a full minute before administering digoxin due to its positive inotropic action (it increases contractility, stroke volume, and, thus, cardiac output), negative chronotropic action (it decreases heart rate), and negative dromotropic action (it decreases electrical conduction .
The most frequent side effects of cardiac glycosides include unusual tiredness and fatigue, anxiety, and hallucinations. In addition, symptoms of toxicity can include visual disturbances, nausea or vomiting, and cardiac arrhythmias.In patients with heart failure, digoxin exerts its positive inotropic effect by inhibiting sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase). Inhibition of this enzyme in cardiac cells results in an increase in the contractile state of the heartIncreased cardiac output (positive inotropic effect) and slowing of the heart rate (negative chronotropic effect).Digoxin induces an increase in intracellular sodium that will drive an influx of calcium in the heart and cause an increase in contractility. Cardiac output increases with a subsequent decrease in ventricular filling pressures.Cardiac glycosides are medicines for treating heart failure and certain irregular heartbeats. They are one of several classes of drugs used to treat the heart and related conditions. These medicines are a common cause of poisoning
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A 50-year-old woman has had easy fatigability and noted a dragging sensation in her abdomen for the past 5 months. Physical examination reveals that she is afebrile. She has marked splenomegaly, but no lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show her total WBC count is 250,000/mm3 with WBC differential count showing 64% segmented neutrophils, 11% band neutrophils, 7% metamyelocytes, 5% myelocytes, 4% myeloblasts, 3% lymphocytes, 2% basophils, 2% eosinophils, and 2% monocytes. A bone marrow biopsy is performed, and karyotypic analysis of the cells reveals a t(9;22) translocation. Medical treatment with a drug having which of the following modes of action is most likely to produce a complete remission in this patient?
Note that in the above scenario, involving Chronic Myeloid Leukemia(CML) the medical treatment with a drug having the above-described modes of action that is likely to produce a complete remission in this patient are:
Inhibiting tyrosine Kinase activityChronic myelogenous leukemia; translocation causes uncontrolled nonreceptor tyrosine kinase activity of BCR-ABL fusion of gene.What is Translocation?Chromosomal translocation is a genetic condition that causes atypical chromosome rearrangement. Balanced and unbalanced translocation are included, with two primary types: reciprocal- and Robertsonian translocation.
Translocations can be discovered with high sensitivity and specificity by targeted hybrid-capture-based DNA sequencing panels, although this needs intron sequencing. By utilizing off-target coverage, capture-based targeted sequencing may detect all translocation partners of a captured gene.
Note that while these drugs do not cure CML, they can induce complete remission in a significant proportion of patients and have significantly improved the outlook for individuals with this cancer.
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healthy people 2020 includes a goal of increasing the proportion of adolescents who engage in vigorous physical activity that promotes cardiorespiratory fitness. disabled adolescents may not have access to exercise programs adapted for their needs or programs in which they feel comfortable exercising. the parish nurse can provide an accepting environment in which disabled adolescents can safely exercise and share time with their peers. studies have shown that faith communities have been successful in targeting specific national health objectives dealing with nutrition; physical activity; use of alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs; immunization status; environmental health; and injury and violence. faith communities are effective settings in which to address health promotion related to overweight, obesity, and sedentary lifestyles. an example of this is developing exercise programs for working community. group of answer choices true false
In the context of Healthy People 2020 initiatives, the most appropriate intervention for adolescent congregants with disabilities is Exercise program integrating movements from a sitting or standing position.
One of the goals of Healthy People 2020 is to increase the proportion of adolescents who engage in vigorous physical activity that promotes cardiorespiratory fitness. Adolescents with disabilities may not have access to exercise programs that are tailored to their needs or programs in which they feel comfortable exercising. The parish nurse can provide a welcoming environment in which disabled adolescents can safely exercise and socialize.
According to studies, faith communities have been successful in focusing on specific national health objectives such as nutrition, physical activity, alcohol, tobacco, and other drug use, immunization status, environmental health, and injury and violence. Faith communities are effective settings for addressing health promotion issues such as obesity, overweight, and sedentary lifestyles.
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the healthcare provider prescribes 5% dextrose in water iv fluid for an older adult client which action by the nurse is best
The healthcare provider prescribes 5% dextrose in water iv fluid:
The correct answer are:
1. CORRECT: No assessment in question, applicable to scenario, best practice
2. Incorrect: Too close; implementation
3. Incorrect: Don't go up to systolic pressure; implementation
4. Incorrect
A healthcare provider is a business or person licensed to deliver medical diagnosis and treatment services, including drugs, surgery, and medical devices. Healthcare providers frequently receive payment from health insurance companies for the services they provide.
According to the Department of Health and Human Services, a health care provider in the United States is "any person or organization who furnishes, bills, or gets payment for health services in the ordinary course of business."
The complete question is:
The healthcare provider prescribes 5% dextrose in water iv fluid for an older adult client which action by the nurse is best:
1. Instruct the client to breathe slowly and deeply during auscultation of the posterior chest
2. Apply tourniquet 1 to 2 inches above insertion site
3. Apply BP cuff above insertion site and inflate same level as systolic BP
4. Start IV using dorsal veins of the client's forearm on nondominant side
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the nurse provides care for a toddler age client after a bronchoscopy and removal of an aspirated peanut. which assessment requires an immediate intervention by the nurse
The assessment necessitates immediate intervention by the nurse for a toddler-age client who is "sitting forward with the neck extended and the supraclavicular muscles contracted" following a bronchoscopy. Hence, the correct answer is D.
The toddler-age client who sat forward with the neck extended and the supraclavicular muscles tensed after a bronchoscopy and the extraction of an aspirated peanut is displaying an indication of stress that demands an immediate intervention by the nurse.
Weak coughing attempts with minimal sputum output and drowsiness but still being awake are anticipated symptoms following the bronchoscopy procedure. The bronchoscopy procedure enables medical professionals to view the lungs and airways. Usually, a lung disease specialist does it called a pulmonologist.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. BP 90/60 mm Hg, apical heart rate 110 beats/min with a sinus arrhythmia. B. Weak cough effort with scant production of sputum, drowsy but arousable. C. Abdominal muscles contract during inspiration, respiratory rate 30 breaths/min. D. Sits forward with the neck extended, contraction of supraclavicular muscles.The correct answer is D.
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a client is taking nicotinic acid for hyperlipidemia, and the nurse reinforces instructions to the client about the medication. which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
The statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions Ibuprofen taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.
Spironolactone is used to treat high blood pressure and control edema in patients with heart failure or liver dysfunction. This drug can cause hyperkalemia. Monitor urine output and report if less than 30 mL per hour. Use with caution in patients with impaired renal function due to increased risk of hyperkalemia.
Before administering a diuretic such as furosemide the nurse will assess the patient's potassium level with recent laboratory results. If the potassium level is below the normal range, the nurse will withhold medication and notify the prescriber. Avoid eating large amounts of leafy greens and certain vegetable oils that are high in vitamin K.
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According to the Dietary Guidelines, the goal is to reduce consumption of added sugars to less than ____% of total calories.
Answer: 10%
Explanation: The 2015-2020 Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends limiting calories from added sugars to no more than 10% each day.
your assessment of the newborn reveals that she has a patent airway, is breathing adequately, and has a heart rate of 130 beats/min. her face and trunk are pink, but her hands and feet are cyanotic. you have clamped and cut the umbilical cord, but the placenta has not yet delivered. you should:
you have clamped and cut the umbilical cord, but the placenta has not yet delivered. you should begin artificial ventilations.
Baby and mother's placenta are joined by an umbilical chord. The umbilical chord supplies nourishment to the foetus as it is developing in the womb. The cord is cut and clamped upon delivery. The cord will dry out and naturally fall off after a period of 1 to 3 weeks. After birth, a baby's umbilical cord stump normally dries out and finally comes off. Carefully handle the region in the interim: Keep the stump dry. The cord of post-anesthesia your newborn has no nerve endings, therefore cutting it causes no pain. The umbilical stump, which is still connected to your child, will shortly detach and be replaced by a sweet belly button.
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which of the following exercises may be added to a pregnant women's exercise program to ease delivery and pregnancy?
To make labour and pregnancy easier, pregnant women should include Kegel Exercises in their workout regimen.
You can strengthen the muscles in your pelvic floor by performing basic clench-and-release movements known as kegels. Your pelvis is where your reproductive organs are located, between your hips.
At the base of your pelvis, a sling-like structure called the pelvic floor is actually made up of a number of muscles and tissues. Your organs are secured with this sling. Instabilities like losing control of your bowels or bladder might result from a weak pelvic floor.
Once you get a grasp on the Kegel exercises, you may perform them anytime, anyplace, whether you're at home alone or in line at the bank.
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hen conducting a scoliosis screening, what instructions should the nurse provide to the client to ensure proper positioning during the screening? after completing the screening, what findings should the nurse identify as indicators of scoliosi
Findings that indicate scoliosis Uneven shoulders -Uneven waist -Prominent rib cage -Uneven hips -Leaning of the head to one side.
Scoliosis is a condition in which the spine curves to the side, forming an S or C-shaped curve. It is most common in adolescents between the ages of 10 and 18, but can affect people of any age. Mild cases of scoliosis may not require treatment, but more severe cases may require a brace or surgery. The most common cause of scoliosis is unknown, but it can be caused by neuromuscular conditions, such as cerebral palsy or muscular dystrophy, or by vertebral abnormalities. Treatment for scoliosis depends on the severity of the curve, and may include observation, bracing, or surgery.
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