Use your own language to explain that short run supply curve by a price-taking firm is the positively-sloped portion of the short-run marginal cost curve.

Answer: $3,455

Explanation:

The interest received by Smith can be calculated as;

Interest Value = Present value of lease payment * interest rate

Present Value of interest rate

Ten annual lease payments of $12,000 are due each year beginning July 1, 2021.

That means first payment has been made already. Present value is;

= 81,100 - 12,000

= $69,100

Only half a year has gone by so this will need to be reflected;

Interest Value = Present value of lease payment * interest rate

= 69,100 * 10% * 6/12

= $3,455

Answer:

Net present value and internal rate of return

Explanation:

when making a decision between alternative projects, initial analysis is done with the cash payback and average rate of return.

Cash payback period calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from its cumulative cash flows

Average rate of return = Average net income / average book value.

this is followed by the Net present value analysis and Internal rate of return determination.

Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.  

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

project with the highest positive project NPV should be chosen.

Also, a project with an IRR greater than the discount rate should be chosen. when choosing between alternative projects, the project with the highest IRR should be chosen if the IRR is greater than the discount rate.

Answer: lowering tax rates on commercial bank profits

Explanation:

The financial crisis which is also widely called the global meltdown was caused as a result of the financial indutry deregulation.

The goal of TARP was to strengthen the banks, and improve market stability. Lowering tax rates on commercial bank profits wasn't part of the action used by the government.

Answer

a)Minumum cycle time = 2.4 Minutes And Maximum cycle time = 18 Minutes

b)=187.5 units per day and 25 units per day

c) 8 workstation

d)2.6min/cycle

Explanation:

Given:

output rate = 125 units per day

Operating time= 450 minutes per day

What are the minimum and maximum cycle times?

Minimum Cycle time = duration of the longest task

Therefore,Minimum cycle time = 2.4 minutes

Maximum cycle time = addition of the task

Maximum Cycle Time = 18 minutes

Therefore, Minumum cycle time = 2.4 Minutes And Maximum cycle time = 18 Minutes

B)B)What range of daily output is theoretically possible for the line?

Range of daily output = Operating time / minimum Cycle time

At 2.4 minutes Cycletime

= 450/2.4

=187.5 units per day

At Cycle time 18 Minutes

= 450/18

Cycle time 18 minutes = 25 units per day

C)What is the minimum number of workstations needed if the maximum output rate is to be sought?

number of workstation=(D× summation of all task)/Operating time

number of workstation=(187.5*18)/450

= 7.5= 8 workstation

D)What cycle time will provide an output rate of 125 units per day?

cycle time= Operating time/output rate

=450/125

= 2.6min/cycle

Answer:

Allen B. Klein

Explanation:

Allen B. Klein was an American businessman that became a powerful person in the music industry because he managed several artists and became well known for helping them increase their income and he worked with Sam Cooked, the Rolling Stones and The Beatles who hired in him in 1969 as their manager. According to this, the answer is that on February 3, 1969, New York lawyer and businessman Allen B. Klein was appointed the Beatles' business manager, as John was impressed by what the man had done financially for the Rolling Stones.

Answer:

The deal to receive $30000 is better.

Explanation:

To find the better deal we need to calculate the present value of $30000 and then compare it with the amount $25000. If the amount is greater than the $25000, then the amount should be received after the 2 years.

The given time period (n )= 2

Interest rate (r ) = 8%

The amount received after 2 years = $30000

[tex]\text{Present value of money} = \frac{Future \ value}{(1 + r)^n } \\= \frac{30000}{(1+0.08)^2} \\= $25720.16[/tex]

Since the amount is more than $25000 so the deal to receive the money after 2 years will be better.

Answer:

0.23

Explanation:

Debt to Equity  Ratio = Total debt/ Total common equity

Market to book Ratio = Market price per share / Book value per share

Book debt to Market equity Ratio = Debt to Equity  Ratio / Market to book Ratio

Book debt to Market equity Ratio = 0.69 / 3

Book debt to Market equity Ratio = 0.23

Therefore, the ratio is 0.23

Answer:

b. An increase of $15 million

Explanation:

The computation of the cash impact of the change in working capital is shown below:

As we know that

Working capital = Current assets - current liabilities

So, the change in working capital is

= Increase in current assets  - increased in current liabilities

= $40 million - $25 million

= $15 million

Hence, the b option is correct

Answer:

e. establish standards

Explanation:

-Take corrective action, if necessary is when managers decide strategies to implement when the results are not meeting the standards that were established.

-Compare performance to standards is the step that determines if there is a difference between the company's performance and the standards.

-Recognize success is not a step in the control process.

-Measure performance refers to gather and analyze data to determine if the company is meeting the goals set.

-Establish standards refers to establishing goals that are specific, attainable and clear to be able to evaluate the company's performance.

According to this, the answer is that Uber's guidance that if a driver's "rating over the most recent 100 trips is below a 4.6, your profile may be at risk of deactivation" represents establish standards because Uber established a rating that driver's need to achieve which represents the standard that would be use to evaluate them.

Answer:

Percentage change in price = -5.33 * 0.00005

Explanation:

Percentage change in price = - modified duration * (Change in yield in BP/100)

Percentage change in price = -5.33 * ((0.01/2)/100)

Percentage change in price = -5.33 * (0.005/100)

Percentage change in price = -5.33 * 0.00005

Answer:

Intrinsic value=$73.77

Explanation:

The Dividend Valuation Model(DVM) is a technique used to value the worth of an asset.

According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows would that arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return.

Price = D/Kp

D- Dividend payable

Kp- cost of preferred stock

So will need to work out the cost of equity using CAPM

The capital asset pricing model (CAPM): relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c  

This model is considered superior to DVM. Hence, we will use the CAPM

Using the CAPM , the expected return on a asset is given as follows:  

E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)  

E(r) =? , Rf- 2.4%, Rm- 12.1% β- 1.01

E(r) = 2.4% + 1.23×(12.1- 2.4)%  = 12.20 %

Cost of preferred stock= 12.20 %

Using the dividend valuation model

Intrinsic value = 9/0.1220=73.77

Intrinsic value=$73.77

Answer:

The price–earnings ratio after the repurchase is 22.18

Explanation:

First calculate Numbers of new shares

New Shares = Old Shares - ( Repurchased Shares / Price per share )

New Shares = 39,000 - ( $125,000 / $76.09 )

New Shares = 39,000 - 1,642.79

New Shares = 37,357.21 shares

New compute the old earning

Old  Earning = EPS x Numbers of old shares = $3.29 x 39,000 = $128,310

New compute revised Earning per share

Revised EPS = Earning / New shares = $128,310 / 37,357.21 shares = $3.43

Now we need to calculate the Price earning ratio

P/E Ratio = Price per share / Revised earning per share = $76.09 / $3.43 = 22.18 times

Answer:

-$15,000 favorable variance

Explanation:

variable overhead efficiency variance = standard overhead rate x (actual hours - standard hours)

variable overhead efficiency variance = $5 x (15,000 - 18,000) = $5 x (-3,000) = -$15,000 favorable variance

Answer:

c. $ 14,238

Explanation:

Computation of costs in the flexible budget

Planned activity                                                           716 units

Budgeted cost per unit                                              $ 18 per frame

Total planned variable cost - 716 units * $ 18            $ 12,888

Fixed monthly cost                                                      $   1,350        

Total supplies cost in  flexible budget for June      $ 14,238  

The other information regarding the actual costs and actual production are not required for determining the budgted cost for supplies.

Answer: one tailed test should be utilized

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that an economist wishes to determine whether there is evidence that average family incomes in a community exceeds $25,000.

A one tailed test should be utilized because the region of rejection will just have to be based on one side.

Answer:

b

Explanation:

50% of the proceeds of the sale are credited to SMA

and

There is a 50% retention requirement of the sale for a restricted account

Answer:

it would be 3 units for the first part then second answer would be 5 then the last one would be 13

Explanation:

that's why it would be asking for how many units for each storage units

Answer:

a. Labor Productivity:

Country     Sales (Units)    Labour (hours)     Productivity (Sales/Labour hours)

U.S              100,000              20,000              5 units / hours

LDC             20,000                15,000               1.33 units/ hours

Capital Productivity

Country     Sales (Units)    Capital (hours)     Productivity (Sales/Capital hours)

U.S              100,000               60,000                1.67 units / hour

LDC             20,000                 5,000                  4 units / hours

Conclusion: Yes, the result seems confusing. The labour productivity in U.S. is higher than LDC while the capital productivity in U.S. is lower than LDC which is contradictory.

b. Multi-factor productivity for Labor and Capital

Country      Sales                  Input                  Productivity

                  (Units)         (Labor + Capital)       (units/hours)

U.S.          100,000                80,000                1.25 units/hour

                                       (20,000 + 60,000)

LDC           20,000                 20,000                1 units/hour

                                        (15,000 + 5,000)

Conclusion: Yes it make sense as multi-factor productivity is better than partial productivity. Labor and capital are subtitles and that gives better presentation of the productivity.

c. Raw material productivity

Country      Sales           Raw material            Productivity

                  (Units)            (Currency)              (units/hours)

U.S.            100,000         $20,000                  5 units per dollar

LDC            20,000          = $2,000                 10 units per dollar        

Conclusion: The figures are greater in subsidiary because the price paid for raw material is much slower than the parent country.

Note: $1 = FC 10

$20,000 = FC 10

FC = $20,000 / 10 = $2,000

The correct answer is D. Downsizing

Explanation:

In businesses, the term "downsizing" is used to describe a reduction in the number of workers or the total labor force. This often means non-essential workers are fired or even complete departments are eliminated. Moreover, this is likely to occur if the business expenses are higher than its profits or if the production decreases because in both situations fewer workers are needed to eliminate unnecessary expenses. In this context, if production decreases it is likely downsizing occurs.

Answer: Meat packing plant

Explanation:

The options to the question are:

A. California wine grower

B. meat packing plant

C. horticultural nursery

D. Florida orange grove

E. none of the above

Of all the options given in the question, the correct answer is meat packing plant. It should be noted that the meat packaging plant will not be part of the production sector due to the fact that no productive activities are taking place, it only involves in services.

Answer:

18.75%

Explanation:

Food Shoppe galore has a total market value stock of $650 million

The total market value of the company's debt is $150 million

The first step is to calculate the total market value of the company's capital

= $150,000,000 + $650,000,000

= $800,000,000

Therefore, the weighted average of the company's debt can be calculated as follows

= $150,000,000/$800,000,000

= 0.1875×100

= 18.75%

Hence the weighted average of the company's debt is 18.75%

Answer:

They include;

1. Customer Satisfaction

2. Absenteeism

3. Legal Compliance

4. Performance

5. Training

Explanation:

The Human Resource Management criteria that are used to measure the effectiveness or ineffectiveness of an organization, are a list that gives an idea of how an organization is performing, and this list can serve as a basis of comparison with other organizations. These options include;

1. Satisfaction: If the employees are treated fairly and so, feel satisfied with the organization, then they can be said to be effective.

2. Absenteeism: When workers are always absent from work it does not present the organization as an effective one.

3. Legal Compliance: The organization must be able to comply to government rules and regulations guiding the business to be rated as effective.

4. Performance: High or low-performance which is reflected in the turnover rates would be an indication of how effective or ineffective an organization is.

5. Training: The organization should be able to provide regular standard training for its workers to be rated as effective.

Answer:

Correct Answer:

c. Low-income developing countries are catching up to high-income industrial countries.

Explanation:

The evidence which shows that low income developing countries are catching up to high-income industrial countries could be found in the series of developmental strides made by some countries like Rwanda, Kenya, Tanzania, Indonesia, Vietnam etc over the years. Most of their achievements is at par with most European countries in different sectors such as educational, and social sectors.

Answer: True

Explanation:

The range of feasibility is used to measure values that are on the right-hand-side(objective function) that won't alter dual prices.

When the range of feasibility indicates that the original amount of a resource, which was 20, can increase by 5, then the amount of the resource can increase to (20 + 5) = 25

Therefore, the option is true

Answer:

Use goal seek to answer this question. All else equals, to have a net income of 20,000, the COGS margin percentage must be 40%, and the gross profit must be $17,250.

Explanation:

The income statement is missing, so I looked it up and the information given was:

Since COGS are$40,000 and total sales are $100,000, the COGS margin percentage = 40,000 / 100,000 = 40%

Since earnings before taxes are $23,000 and taxes are 25%, then net income = $23,000 x (1 - 25%) = $23,000 x 75% = $17,250

Answer:

c. 120

Explanation:

The economic order quantity is the minimum amount of inventory that a seller must keep to demand and lower the holding cost. The formula for Economic order quantity is represented by the formula:

EOQ = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{2*Demand*Ordering Cost}{Holding cost} }[/tex]

EOQ = [tex]\sqrt{\frac{2*240*60}{0.5} }[/tex]

EOQ = 120

Answer and Explanation:

a. The computation of expected return of each​ assets is shown below:-

Expected Return on Asset A in state is

= 0.39 × 0.02 + 0.45 × 0.02 + 0.16 × 0.02

= 0.02

Expected Return on Asset B in state is

= 0.39 × 0.25 + 0.45 × 0.06 + 0.16 × -0.04

= 0.1181

Expected Return on Asset C in state is

= 0.39 × 0.35 + 0.45 × 0.19 + 0.16 × -0.22

= 0.1868

b. The computation of variance of each asset is shown below:-

Variance of Assets A is

= 0.39 × (0.02 - 0.020)^2 + 0.45 × (0.02 - 0.020)^2 + 0.16 × (0.02 - 0.020)^2

= 0

Variance of Assets B is

= 0.39 × (0.25 - 0.1181)^2 + 0.45 × (0.06 - 0.1181)^2 + 0.16 × (-0.04 - 0.1181)^2

= 0.0123

Variance of Assets C is

= 0.39 × (0.35 - 0.1868)^2 + 0.45 × (0.19 - 0.1868)^2 + 0.16 × (-0.22 - 0.1868)^2

= 0.0369

c. The computation of standard deviation of each​ asset is shown below:-

Standard Deviation of A is

= (0.39 × (0.02 - 0.020)^2 + 0.45 × (0.02 - 0.020)^2 + 0.16 × (0.02 - 0.020)^2)^0.5

= 0

Standard Deviation of B is

= (0.39 × (0.25 - 0.1181)^2 + 0.45 × (0.06 - 0.1181)^2 + 0.16 × (-0.04 - 0.1181)^2)^0.5

= 0.1109

Standard Deviation of C is

= (0.39 × (0.35 - 0.1868)^2 + 0.45 × (0.19 - 0.1868)^2 + 0.16 × (-0.22 - 0.1868)^2)^0.5

= 0.1920

Answer:

True

Explanation:

One way of determining if acquisitions would lessen competition is through the calculation of the HHI. if the HHI of the industry is more than 1500 before the acquisition and the HHI changes by more than 50 after the acquisition, the government would challenge the merger

Answer:

Both requirements are solved below

Explanation:

An amortization table can be made as follows

DATA

Lease term = 7years

annual lease payments = $350,0000

Present value of the leases payment = $1,704,000

Implicit interest rate = 10%

Requirement A Amortization table for 2011 and 2012

Date   Annual payment  Effective    decreased      Balance

                                          interest        liability                                                                                                                     $1,704,000

12/31/11      $350,000      $170,400     $179,600     $1524,400

12/31/12      $350,000     $152,440     $197,560     $1,326,840

Requirement B journal entries for 2011

January 1  

Entry

                                      DEBIT           CREDIT

Leased machinery     $1,704,000

Lease liability                                   $1,704,000

December 31

Entry

                                      DEBIT           CREDIT

Interest expense       $170,400

Lease liability             $179,600

Cash                                                  $350,000

December 31

Entry

                                                   DEBIT           CREDIT

Depreciation expense(w)         $426,000

Accumulated depreciation                            $426,000

Working

Sum of the years =  (7+6+5+4+3+2+1)    = 28

Cost = $1,704,000

Residual value = $0

Estimated life = 7years

Depreciation expense = $1,704,000 x 7/28

Depreciation expense = $426,000

Question Completion:

Choices: a. No tax liability on the sale b. $2,000,000 of tax c. $2,960,000 of tax d. $2,100,000 of tax

Answer:

b. $2,000,000 of tax for individuals

Explanation:

Long-term capital gains tax is a tax on profits from the sale of an asset which an investor has held for more than a year. The approved long-term capital gains tax rates are 0%, 15% or 20% depending on your taxable income bracket and whether you are filing as a single or jointly as married.  But, an important point to note is that long-term capital gains tax rates are generally lower than short-term capital gains tax rates, thus encouraging investors to hold assets for a longer time.  Short-term capital gains tax rates are the rates applicable to the normal individual income tax brackets.