Someone help me please

Using an absolute value inequality, it is found that the range of temperatures is between 70ºF and 74ºF.

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[tex]|x| = x, x \geq 0[/tex]

[tex]|x| = -x, x < 0[/tex]

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[tex]|x - 72| \leq 2[/tex]

Solving the inequality:

[tex]x - 72 \geq >= -2[/tex]

[tex]x \geq 70[/tex]

And

[tex]x - 72 \leq 2[/tex]

[tex]x \leq 74[/tex]

Thus, the range of temperatures is between 70ºF and 74ºF.

A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/24514895

Answer:

<ABE = 109

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle Formed by Two Chords= 1/2(sum of Intercepted Arcs)

< ABE = 1/2 ( 38+180)

< ABE = 1/2 (218)

<ABE = 109

Answer:

Formula: Half the sum of the two arcs. So, this would be the equation:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex][tex](38[/tex]+[tex]180[/tex])

Solve:

218 / 2 = 109

Answer: 109

Answer:

13.7

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

20 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add 20 minutes to 7:55 P.M., it becomes 8:15 P.M.

Answer:

20 minutos

Step-by-step explanation:

De 7:55 pm hasta las 8: pasaron 5 minutos, luego de 8:00 a 8:15 pm pasaron 15 minutos.

Así que sería 5 + 15 = 20 minutos

Answer:

D po

Step-by-step explanation:

yan po!sana nakatulong po

Answer:

Y=2x+0.5

Step-by-step explanation:

The gradient is 2/1=2x

The y-intercept looks to be around 0.5

Answer:

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

Calculate m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (- 1, 0) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (1, 1) ← 2 points on the line

m = [tex]\frac{1-0}{1-(-1)}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{1+1}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] , then

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + c ← is the partial equation

To find c substitute either of the 2 points into the partial equation

Using (1, 1 ) , then

1 = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] + c ⇒ c = 1 - [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

y = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] x + [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ← equation of line

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

16 - 7 = 9

Answer:

easy it is 100 trust me

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

They are completing the square

x^2 +12x +29

Take the coefficient of the x term

12

Divide by 2

12/2 = 6

Square  it

6^2 = 36

Add 36 and subtract 36

(x^2 +12x +36) -36 +29

Inside the parentheses becomes ( x+6)^2

Answer:

73

Step-by-step explanation:

(9x - 62)

(9(15) - 62) =

(135 - 62) =

(73)

m∠KJL = 73

option

(c) is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

jsjsjd

Based on the results of the simulation, the probability that Michaela will walk animals on:

a. both days = 1/6

b. one day only = 2/3

c. at least one day = 5/6

Probability is simply how likely something is to happen.

Grooming = 0, 1, 2

Walking = 3, 4, 5, 6, 7

Cleaning = 8, 9

Based on the data generated in simulation, categorizing it into "Michael will walk animals zero days/ one day only/ both days based on the digit categorization given above.

(2,9) - zero days

(5,2) - one day

(3,9) - one day

(0,1) - zero days

(8,3) -one day

(0,5) - one day

(8,3) - one day

(6,8) - one day

(4,7) - two days

(7,4) - two days

(1,5) - one day

Probability that Michaela will walk animals both days = [tex]\frac{2}{12} = \frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Probability that Michaela will walk animals one day only = [tex]\frac{8}{12} = \frac{2}{3}[/tex]

Probability that Michaela will walk animals at least one day = Probability that Michaela will walk animals one day only + Probability that Michaela will walk animals two days only  = [tex]\frac{8}{12}+ \frac{2}{12} = \frac{10}{12} = \frac{5}{6}[/tex]

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Answer:

the answer is 30.96

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 3.14 times 6×6-12×12

Answers:

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Explanations:

3. We have negative correlation because the regression line is going downhill (move from left to right). The points are fairly close to the same regression line, so I'd say we have either moderate or fairly strong negative correlation. That means r is fairly close to -1. It's not -1 exactly since that would have to mean all points are on the same line.

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4. Negative correlation goes with negative r values. Refer to problem 3. Positive correlation goes to positive r values. The r value will most likely not equal the slope value, but they share the same sign.

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5. If r is close to +1, then we have fairly strong positive linear correlation. If r is close to -1, then we have fairly strong negative linear correlation. If r = 0 or close to it, then we should use some other kind of regression tool. Or perhaps the data points are simply randomly scattered about and they have no pattern at all.

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6. Refer to problem 5.

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7. Plug in x = 15 and you should find that y = -0.632(15)+27.1 = 17.62, which means that the estimated tip is roughly 17.62% of the bill.

Answer:

a) 38.74% probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

b) Approximately 100% probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections.

c) The expected number of inspections in which the main printer is operating properly is 9.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each inspection, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is operating correctly, or it is not. The probability of the printer operating correctly for an inspection is independent of any other inspection, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Based on past experience, the main printer in a university computer centre is operating properly 90% of the time.

This means that [tex]p = 0.9[/tex]

Suppose inspections are made at 10 randomly selected times.

This means that [tex]n = 10[/tex]

A) What is the probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

This is [tex]P(X = 9)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 9) = C_{10,9}.(0.9)^{9}.(0.1)^{1} = 0.3874[/tex]

38.74% probability that the main printer is operating properly for exactly 9 inspections.

B) What is the probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections?

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)[/tex]

So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.9)^{0}.(0.1)^{10} \approx 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.9)^{1}.(0.1)^{9} \approx 0[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 2) = C_{10,2}.(0.9)^{2}.(0.1)^{8} \approx 0[/tex]

Thus:

[tex]P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0 + 0 + 0 = 0[/tex]

Then:

[tex]P(X \geq 3) = 1 - P(X < 3) = 1 - 0 = 1[/tex]

Approximately 100% probability that the main printer is operating properly for at least 3 inspections.

C) What is the expected number of inspections in which the main printer is operating properly?

The expected value for the binomial distribution is given by:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

In this question:

[tex]E(X) = 10(0.9) = 9[/tex]

The volume of a given rectangular prism is 100 cubic meter.

A rectangular prism is a three-dimensional solid shape with six faces that including rectangular bases. A cuboid is also a rectangular prism. The cross-section of a cuboid and a rectangular prism is the same. Volume of a rectangular prism = Area of a base × Height.

We know that, a rectangular prism has a length of 10 m, a height of 2 m, and a width of 5 m.

Here, volume = 10×5×2

= 100 cubic meter

Therefore, the volume of a given rectangular prism is 100 cubic meter.

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Answer:

pls dont kill me for wacky lines. this shall just give you a basic idea. the important part is the 90° angle

Answer:

B.

right scalene triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: rounded off to the nearest tenths, the volume is equivalent to

4022.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

Objective: Solving Piecewise Functions

Analyze the info in the graph.

We know that if x=1, the graph will coincide at 5.

If x is greater than 1, the answer will be x squared it answer so any positve interger greater than 1 the answer is that squared.

If x is less than 1, the answer will be double that x.

Let check the answer choices.

A is wrong because x is less than 1 so the answer should be 2(-2)=-4 not 4.

C is Wrong, since 5 is greater than 1, it must be 25 so 5^2=25

D and B are both right, 2 is greater than 1 so 2 squared =4 and Whenever x=1, it will equal 5.

Answer:

[tex] {i}^{1} = i \\ {i}^{2} - 1 \\ {i}^{3} = - i \\ {i}^{4} = 1[/tex]

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Answer:

We have 28 bags of butter cookies and 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

Step-by-step explanation:

Let b be the number of butter cookies and c the number of chocolate chips.

Since we have them in the ratio 7:3, b/c = 7/3   (1)

Also, when Mrs Benjamin gives away 24 butter cookies, the ratio becomes 11:6. So, the remaining number of butter cookies are b - 24. So, the ratio of remaining butter cookies to chocolate chips is (b - 24)/c = 11/6   (2)

From (1) b = 7c/3 and from (2) 6(b - 24)  = 11c  ⇒  6b - 144 = 11c  (3)

Substituting b into (3), we have

6b - 144 = 11c

6(7c/3) - 144 = 11c

2 × 7c - 144 = 11c

14c - 144 = 11c

subtracting 11c from both sides, we have

14c - 11c - 144 = 11c - 11c

14c - 11c - 144 = 0

adding 144 to both sides, we have

14c - 11c -144 + 144 = 144

14c - 11c = 144

3c = 144

c = 144/3

c = 48

So, b = 7c/3 = 7(48)/3 = 7 × 16 = 112

Since each cookie is packed into bags of 4, we divide the number of each cookie by 4 to find the number of bags of cookies.

So, number of bags of butter cookies = b/4 = 112/4 = 28 bags of butter cookies

number of bags of chocolate chip cookies = c/4 = 48/4 = 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

So, we have 28 bags of butter cookies and 12 bags of chocolate chip cookies

Answer:

1m=1000 mm.

1m^2=(1000)*(1000)=10^6 mm^2

So just multiply the given result in m^2 by 10^6 to get the result in mm^2.

So ,16 m^2 =16*(10^6)mm^2.

Hope you got it.

Answer:

x=-6 and x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

[tex]3x^2+15x-18[/tex]

Now,

[tex]3x^2+15x-18=0\\[/tex]

Using the quadratic formula where a=3, b=15, and C=-18

x=-b±[tex]\sqrt{b^2-4ac} /2a[/tex]

x=-15±[tex]{\sqrt{15^2-4(3)(-18} } /2(3)[/tex]

x=-15±[tex]\sqrt{441} /6[/tex]

the discriminant [tex]b^2-4ac>0[/tex]

So, there are two real roots

x=-15±21/6

[tex]x=\frac{6}{6} \\x=1\\x=\frac{-36}{6} \\x=-6[/tex]

Therefore, x=-6 and x=1

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine the x-intercept, we set y equal to zero and solve for x. Similarly, to determine the y-intercept, we set x equal to zero and solve for y.

To find the x-intercept, set y = 0 \displaystyle y=0 y=0.

To find the y-intercept, set x = 0 \displaystyle x=0 x=0.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Using this same method of solving, solve the rest. I will help you with 2 more.

5. [tex]10^6[/tex] = 1,000,000

8. [tex]10^0[/tex] = 1

Answer:

banks change people fees to make a profit off of them other wise they would be giving away free money.

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps and what you were asking for.

Answer:

?=5

Step-by-step explanation:

So let's do 16-6 (3*2)

10/2=5

Answer: ?=5

Step-by-step explanation:

In a rectangle the opposite sides are congruent (same length).

So we have ?+?+3+3=16

Let's use a variable for ?

x+x+3+3=16

Since there are 2 of the variable x we can write it as 2x since 2 of something means it's doubled. We can also combine 3 and 3.

2x+6=16

Let's subtract 6 from both sides.

[tex]2x+6-6=16-6\\2x=10[/tex]

Now let's divide both sides by 2 to find the value of x (which is ?)

[tex]\frac{2x}{2} =\frac{10}{2} \\x=5[/tex]

The value of x/? is 5.