Phenytoin, 100 mg orally three times daily, has been prescribed for a client for seizure control. the nurse reinforces instructions regarding the medication to the client. " I will use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth" is the statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions.
One anti-seizure drug is phenytoin, which is marketed under the brand names Dilantin and others. In contrast to absence seizures, it is helpful for the prevention of tonic-clonic and focal seizures. For status epilepticus that does not respond to benzodiazepines, fosphenytoin is administered intravenously.
In the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin is used to manage seizures (convulsions), including tonic-clonic (grand mal) and psychomotor (temporal lobe) seizures. Seizures that happen during brain surgery are also prevented and treated using it.
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TRUE/FALSE. the medical record must meet the standards defined by the centers for medicare and medicaid services conditions of participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.
The medical record must meet the standards defined by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services Conditions of Participation, any other federal regulations, state laws, and accrediting agencies such as the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. This statement is True.
The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) is a federal agency within the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) that administers the Medicare program as well as Medicaid, the Children's Health Insurance Program (CHIP), and health insurance portability standards in collaboration with state governments.
CMS also has administrative simplification standards from the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), quality standards in long-term care facilities (more commonly known as nursing homes) through its survey and certification process, clinical laboratory quality standards under the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments, and oversight of HealthCare.gov. Until 2001, CMS was known as the Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA).
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Dietary supplements may be beneficial for
a. a pregnant woman
b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake
c. an elderly man with pneumonia
d. a healthy college student
e. a,b, and c only
The correct option is (E) that is a, b and c only.
a. a pregnant woman
b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake
c. an elderly man with pneumonia
All nutrients are important, but these six play a key role in your baby's growth and development during pregnancy:
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a patient presents to your dental office the day after her dental appointment complaining of swelling and itching on the right side of her face. you should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms are related to dental anesthesia. group of answer choices true false
You should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms related to dental anesthesia is False.
The reason local anesthetic concentrations are higher than injectables is to facilitate the diffusion of local anesthetic through mucous membranes. Neither local nor injectable anesthetics used in dentistry are natural vasoconstrictors.
Cetakaine Spray is the only FDA-approved local anesthetic for gag reflex inhibition. The dosage is one spray per second. The toxicity of local anesthetics usually occurs as a result of treatment error. Circumstances leading to toxicity include accidental intravenous or arterial injections and overdose of ingestion or topical formulations containing local anesthetics.
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Functional imaging studies indicate that drugs that alleviate symptoms of schizophrenia tend to increase activation of thefrontal cortex
It is false that functional imaging studies indicate that drugs that alleviate symptoms of schizophrenia tend to increase activation of the frontal cortex.
Functional imaging is that the study of human brain perform supported analysis of knowledge noninheritable victimization brain imaging modalities like Electroencephalography (EEG), fMRI, or Optical Imaging, MEG or PET. Functional imaging techniques is accustomed verify the consequences of brain injury or sickness on brain systems associated with psychological feature and behavior and to work out however rehabilitation changes brain systems.
Schizophrenia is a serious disturbance within which individuals interpret reality abnormally. Dementia praecox could end in some combination of hallucinations, delusions, and intensely disordered thinking and behavior that impairs daily functioning, and might be disabling. Individuals with dementia praecox need womb-to-tomb treatment.
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78-year-old man has a history of a cerebrovascular accident. the nurse notes that when he walks, his left arm is immobile against the body with flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers and adduction of the shoulder. his left leg is stiff and extended and circumducts with each step. what type of gait disturbance is this individual experiencing?
Spastic hemiparesis: This condition causes the arm to become motionless in relation to the body. Flexion of the shoulder, elbow, wrist, and fingers also occurs, and an adducted shoulder is shown that does not easily swing.
Why are mishaps referred to as accidents?The word "accident" suggests that no one in particular is to blame for an automobile collision. This is seen in the expression "It was merely an accident," which is frequently used. On the other hand, the word "crash" implies that someone was responsible for the auto accident or that it was their responsibility.
What is an accident example?Physical instances of accidents include unintentional car accidents, slips and falls, burns from touching something hot or sharp, and bumps while walking.
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the parents of a child admitted with rheumatic fever (rf) ask why the child has been placed on bedrest. the nurse explains that bedrest serves what primary purpose for the client?
Bedrest serves primary purpose for the client with rheumatic fever to restrict the inflammation and pain.
Rheumatic fever (acute rheumatic fever) is a condition that may have an effect on the guts, joints, brain, and skin. infectious disease will develop if infection, contagion, and strep skin infections aren't treated properly. Symptoms embody fever and painful, tender joints. Treatment involves medication, typically for keeps.
Rheumatic fever causes inflammation, particularly of the guts, blood vessels and joints. The heart valves may be inflamed and become scarred over time. Rheumatic fever will cause long complications in sure things. It primarily affects youngsters between the ages of six and sixteen.
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a 34-year-old client is diagnosed with chronic hepatitis c. testing reveals that the client is a candidate for treatment. the nurse anticipates that which therapy could be used to treat the client's condition?
Multiple sclerosis and chronic inflammatory illnesses are both treated with interferons. Interferons are immune system-related disorders (e.g. chronic hepatitis)
Proteins called interferons are a component of your body's natural defences. They alert your immune system to the presence of pathogens or cancerous cells in your body. Additionally, they activate killer immune cells to combat the invaders. Because they "interfere" with viruses and prevent their growth, interferons received their name.
a natural substance that supports the body's immune system in the battle against illness, including cancer. White blood cells and other cells in the body produce interferons, but they can also be produced in a lab for use in treating various disorders.
Because they shield cells against viral infections, interferons have the power to "interfere" with viral reproduction.
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a patient is sent to a general surgeon by her family physician for an opinion and recommendation for surgical repair of a recurrent femoral hernia, right. a brief problem focused history and exam are performed. the mdm complexity was straightforward. what is the correct e/m service code?
The correct e/m service code is CPT Code: 99241
ICD-10-CM:
K41.91
A femoral hernia occurs when fatty tissue or a portion of your bowel protrudes through the top of your inner thigh into your groin. It pushes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle wall (abdominal wall) into an area called the femoral canal. Femoral hernias are generally not life-threatening medical conditions. Strangulation of the hernia can become life-threatening, however, and must be treated through emergency surgery.
Femoral hernias are frequently confused with inguinal hernias due to their proximity. Femoral hernias are relatively uncommon. If the hernia is not repaired, the intestine can become trapped inside. This is referred to as an incarcerated or strangulated hernia. It has the potential to cut off blood supply to the intestines.
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explain what is needed to help gauge your progress and help you to reach your long-term goal during a fitness plan.
To gauge your progress and reach long-term goal during a fitness plan either plan-checking or using the S(pecific) M(easurable) A(ttainable) R(ealistic) T(imely) acronym.
Those who support the utilization of SMART acronym they supply a transparent road map for each the person setting the goal and therefore the person evaluating their progress (e.g. worker and leader, or jock and coach). The person setting the goal is alleged to achieve a transparent understanding of what has to be delivered and therefore the person evaluating will then assess the end result supported outlined criteria. good criteria are usually related to Peter Drucker's management by objectives idea.
A fitness plan is a schedule of planned sessions of workout. These sessions may be relaxed exercise, sort of a walk round the park, or it may be a lot of strenuous, like interval coaching or resistance coaching.
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dr. gazzaniga is doing a study with a split-brain patient. dr. g flashes an image of a dog in the left visual field and a snowman in the right visual field. what is the patient going to verbally report seeing?
When Dr. Gazzaniga flashed the split-brain patient an image of a dog in the left visual field and a snowman in the right visual field, the patient would verbally claim to have seen the snowman in the left visual field.
How does someone with a split brain behave?Despite the two separate hemispheres processing the same information gathered from their surroundings independently, parallelly, commonly differently, and occasionally in conflict, split-brained patients often behave in a coordinated, deliberate, as well as consistent manner.
If something appears in the right visual field, what may a split-brain patient do?Based on one study, when the researcher asks the participant's right visual field or left hemisphere what they are seeing, they will respond verbally. However, if the participant's left visual field or right hemisphere is asked what they see, they will be unable to respond verbally and instead will select the proper item with their left hand.
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a student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with which patient conditions? (choose all that apply)
A student who specializes in neurology in their doctorate of physical therapy program would be best equipped to work with patient diseases of the brain and spinal cord.
Neurology is that the branch of drugs coping with the identification and treatment of all classes of conditions and unwellness involving the brain, the medulla spinalis and also the peripheral nerves. medicine apply depends heavily on the sphere of neurobiology, the scientific study of the system.
Serious neurological disorders with diseases of the brain and spinal cord are learning disabilities, autism, cerebral palsy, ADD, epilepsy, spinal stenosis, tumors,degenerative disc disease, etc.
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according to the national heart, lung, blood institute, which characteristics below is a coronary heart disease (chd) risk equivalent; that is, which risk factor places the patient at similar risk for chd as a history of chd?
Diabetes mellitus places the patient at similar risk for CHD as a history of CHD.
In determining whether a patient should be treated for hyperlipidemia, a patient's risk factors must be determined. CHD equivalents must be identified after fasting lipids, specifically LDLs, have been assessed. The term "responsibility" refers to the act of determining whether or not a person is responsible for his or her own actions.
Elevated LDL cholesterol, cigarette smoking, hypertension, low HDL cholesterol, family history of premature CHD [in male first degree relatives (FDR) < 55years; female FDR, 65 years] , and age (men ≥ 45 years, women ≥ 55 years) are major CHD risk factors. Patients with 2 or more risk factors should have a 10 risk assessment performed and treated accordingly.
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a nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report. which client should the nurse assess first?
The client who reports anxiety and shortness of breath and has unilateral leg swelling should be seen first.
What is unilateral leg swelling?Unilateral leg swelling is described as a very rare clinical feature in patients with ureteral cancer that is caused by direct invasion or metastatic lymphadenopathy can result in the compression of the external iliac vein inducing venous insufficiency.
If a nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report.
This client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening condition.
The signs and symptoms of pneumonia include: Crackles, fever, and pleuritic pain are.
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Complete question:
A nurse on the medical-surgical unit just received the client care assignment report. Which client should the nurse assess first?
the client with anorexia, weight loss, and night sweats
the client with crackles and fever who reports pleuritic pain
the client who had difficulty sleeping, daytime fatigue, and morning headache
the client with unilateral leg swelling who reports anxiety and shortness of breath
a baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (vsd). the provider performed a right heart catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous approach. what codes are reported?
93581, Q21.0, The following codes were recorded for a newborn with a ventricular septal defect (vsd). The medical professional carried out a transcatheter closure and right cardiac catheterization.
One type of common birth abnormality is a hole in the heart called a ventricular septal defect (VSD) (congenital). Blood can flow from the left side of the heart to the right side of the heart due to a hole (defect) in the wall (septum) separating the lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart. Urinary catheterization involves inserting a catheter (a hollow tube) into the bladder to drain or collect urine. cardiac catheterization comes in two primary flavours: clean intermittent catheterization and indwelling catheterization (CIC). With this kind of catheterization, the catheter's tip stays inside the bladder.
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William has a cut that is superficial, painful but not bleeding. Based on this information you would predict that the cut has penetrated to _____.
a. the stratum corneum but not the stratum granulosum.
b. the subcutaneous layer, but no deeper.
c. the stratum basale but not the dermal layers.
d. the papillary layer but not the reticular layer.
William has a cut that is superficial, and painful but not bleeding. Based on this information you would predict that the cut has penetrated to the stratum basale but not the dermal layers.
What is stratum basale?The basement membrane (basal lamina), which divides the stratum basale from the dermis, and hemidesmosomes, which connect to the basement membrane, are what hold the stratum basale, also known as stratum germinativum, together.
The keratinocytes travel into the stratum spinosum, a layer so named because its cells have a spiny form, from the stratum basale.
Therefore, the cut has penetrated to the stratum basale but not the dermal layers, hence option C is correct.
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an older adult client, who leads a sedentary lifestyle, and a younger client, who has a very stressful and active lifestyle, require a vaccine against a particular viral disorder. the nurse knows that in one of these clients, the vaccine will be less effective. in which client is the vaccine more likely to be less effective and why?
The vaccine more likely to be less effective in the male client because of his age.
A vaccine is a biological preparation that induces active acquired immunity against a specific infectious or malignant disease. Vaccine safety and effectiveness have been extensively researched and validated. A vaccine usually contains an agent that looks like a disease-causing microorganism and is often made from weakened or killed versions of the microbe, its toxins, or one of its surface proteins.
The agent stimulates the body's immune system to recognize the agent as a threat, destroy it, and then recognize and destroy any future microorganisms associated with that agent.
Vaccines can be either prophylactic (to prevent or mitigate the effects of a future infection by a natural or "wild" pathogen) or therapeutic (to treat an existing infection) (to fight a disease that has already occurred, such as cancer). Some vaccines provide full sterilizing immunity, which means infection is completely avoided.
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which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead squat assessment
Abductor static stretch mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the exercise squat assessment.
Exercise is a sort of physical activity that enhances or maintains both physical fitness and overall health and wellness. It is done for a variety of reasons, including to improve athletic prowess, support strength and growth, develop the muscles and cardiovascular system, lose or maintain weight, improve health, or just for enjoyment. Since exercising outside enables people to socialize, form groups, and enhance their physical and emotional well-being, many people prefer to do so. Depending on the goal, the type of exercise, and the age of the person, a certain quantity of exercise is recommended for health advantages. Any form of exercise is better for you than no exercise at all.
The complete question is:
which mobility test is recommended when the client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt in the overhead exercise squat assessment?
a. Abductor static stretch
b. Adductor static stretch
c. Piriformis foam roller
d. Psoas foam roller
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an 80-year-old patient who is overweight andsedentary has developed elevated fastingglucose levels (142, 153, and 147 mg/dl). shewas diagnosed with diabetes today.considering her age, how should the nursepractitioner proceed
The nurse practitioner would proceed with start metformin 500 mg daily.
To treat high blood sugar, metformin is taken along with a healthy diet, an exercise routine, and maybe other drugs. Patients with type 2 diabetes use it. Keeping blood sugar levels under control helps prevent kidney damage, blindness, nerve damage, limb loss, and issues with sexual function. The chance of having a heart attack or stroke may be reduced if your diabetes is well controlled.
The way that metformin works is by assisting in restoring your body's appropriate reaction to the insulin that must naturally make. Additionally, it reduces how much sugar the liver produces and how much sugar your stomach and intestines absorb.
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The nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure and is taking digoxin daily. The client refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which of the following actions will the nurse take first?
Check the client's vital signs
Request an order for an antiemetic
Suggest the client rests before eating a meal.
Request a dietician consult
Answer: Check the client's vital signs
Explanation:
The nurse will take the action of checking the client's vital signs first.
What is CHF?Congestive heart failure (CHF) is a condition in which the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's needs. It is a chronic condition that is characterized by a number of symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, and swollen legs and ankles. CHF can occur when the heart is damaged, such as from a heart attack or from hypertension, or when the heart muscle becomes stiff, such as from a viral infection.
There are two main types of CHF: systolic heart failure and diastolic heart failure. Systolic heart failure occurs when the heart's ability to contract and pump blood is impaired, while diastolic heart failure occurs when the heart's ability to relax and fill with blood is impaired.
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a 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. his blood pressure is 106/58 mm hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. treatment for this patient should include:
A 46-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and shortness of breath after he was bitten on the leg by a rattlesnake. his blood pressure is 106/58 mm hg and his pulse rate is 112 beats/min. treatment for this patient should include: splinting and lowering of the affected parts.
Every year, not a few people in the world die from venomous snake bites. A venomous snakebite is a medical emergency as it can cause shock and death. Prompt and appropriate treatment of snake bites can reduce mortality by more than 90 percent. Find out the first aid steps when bitten by a snake in the following review.
The difference between venomous and non-venomous snakesSnakes are one of the many animals found in tropical countries like Indonesia. One of the snake's defense mechanisms when it feels threatened is to bite the target.
Snakebite wounds can come from venomous or non-venomous snakes. Snake venom contains poison that can paralyze the body.
There are more than 2000 species of snakes in the world, but only about 200 species of snakes are venomous.
To distinguish the type of snake venomous or nonvenomous, you can pay attention to the following signs:
Non-venomous snake characteristics: rectangular head shape, small canine, round pupils, and bite marks in the form of smooth open wounds in the form of an arch. The characteristics of venomous snakes: triangular head shape, two large canines on the upper jaw, vertical and thinly flat black pupils, surrounded by yellow-green eyeballs, and the type of bite wound is in the form of two fang bite holes, similar to a stick or sharp object punctureSome types of venomous snakes that we can find around us are spoon snakes, welang snakes, cobras, ground snakes, green snakes, sea snakes, and tree snakes.
Bites by these types of venomous snakes require immediate first aid and emergency medical treatment.
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greta, the quality control inspector at a baby food copacking factory, has discarded fourof the previous nine batches of baby food for trace levels of contamination. greta needs to turn this problem around and find a way to improve the situation, so she should probably perform
Greta, the quality control inspector needs to turn this problem around and find a way to improve the situation, so she should probably perform a diagnosis.
Diagnosis is that the method of crucial that sickness or condition explains a human symptoms and signs. it's most frequently spoken as designation with the medical context being implicit. There ar four sorts of nursing diagnoses: risk-focused, problem-focused, health promotion-focused, or syndrome-focused.
Contamination is that the presence of a constituent, impurity, or another undesirable part that spoils, corrupts, infects, makes unfit, or makes inferior a fabric, soma, natural atmosphere, workplace, etc. Contamination generally comes from explicit industrial, agricultural or business activities.
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Scattered and off-focus radiation outside of the collimated field can have what effect on the width of the histogram?
A. Causes narrowing of the histogram
B. Causes widening of the histogram
C. Causes both narrowing and widening of the histogram
D. Causes neither narrowing nor widening of the histogram
Scattered and off-focus radiation outside of the collimated field can (B) Causes widening of the histogram.
Off-focus radiation in x-ray generation is the emission of x-ray photons from sources other than the anode focal area. These photons, which are essentially a type of scatter, may blur and are useless for diagnostic purposes.
When a radiation beam comes into contact with a substance, such body tissue, more radiation is produced that spreads out in various directions.
In order to concentrate light as sharply as possible, a telescope must be collimated, or all of its parts must be in perfect alignment.
In a histogram, several classifications are grouped into columns along the horizontal x-axis, resembling a bar graph in its display of the data. Each column's data count or percentage of occurrences are shown on the vertical y-axis. Data distribution patterns can be seen visually using columns.
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lamivudine is prescribed for a client diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) who is prescribed zidovudine. which would the nurse reinforce in the medication instructions to the client
The nurse must reinforce the medication as this is an anti-HIV drug that slows down the damage of immune system.
Lomofen Plus Tablet 20's carries an anti-diarrheal medication, basically used to deal with diarrhea in Inflammatory Bowel Disease and Short Bowel Syndrome via way of means of reducing over-energetic bowel, which include unexpected diarrhea. Diarrhea is a circumstance wherein bowel moves are too frequent, main to loose, watery stools. Lamivudine (3TC) is an antiretroviral medication that reduces the amount of HIV in the body. Anti-HIV drugs such as lamivudine slow down or prevent damage to the immune system, and reduce the risk of developing AIDS-related illnesses. Lamivudine is also active against hepatitis B virus (HBV).
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Which of the following is NOT a recommended guideline of the American Medical Association as a way to protect electronic medical records?
Keep all backup disks in a safe place away from the practice
Prepare a backup plan for use when the computer system is down
Change login codes every 18 months
Store disks in a bank safe deposit box
Set security levels to limit entry to all functions
In order to safeguard electronic medical records, the American Medical Association changes login codes every 18 months.
Which medical course is the best?Medical and surgical bachelor's degree: This degree, which is sometimes referred to as MBBS, is frequently regarded as the most prestigious in the medical industry. To enroll in this programme, one must successfully pass the NEET UG admission test.
What does a work medical entail?Pre-placement health testing and pre-employment medical exams both seek to analyze and monitor people in order to identify risk factors that could prevent them from performing effectively at work. It guarantees there is no risk to the employee or their coworkers.
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the school nurse is urgently called to the gymnasium regarding an injured student. the student is crying in severe pain with a malformed fractured lower leg. which proper sequence will the nurse follow to perform the initial assessment?
The proper sequence followed by the nurse will be Inspection and light palpation.
The body begins the healing process after a bone is broken (fractured). If the two ends of the broken bone are not lined up properly, the bone can heal with a deformity called a malunion. A malunion fracture occurs when new bone fills a large space between the displaced ends of the bone.
A malunion occurs when a fractured bone heals in an abnormal position, which can impair the function of the bone or limb and cause it to appear bent. Similarly, a nonunion occurs when a fractured bone fails to heal after an extended period of time - in some cases, 9 to 12 months.
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which statement is not a prediction of the hygiene hypothesis? group of answer choices children who frequently play outside should develop allergic diseases les often than children who don't play outside. pathogens that have long historical associations with humans, such as h. pylori, should be more positively related to immune system function than pathogens with more recent associations. extensive use of antibiotics as a child may affect how the body responds to future bacterial invasions. children who never wash their hands or bathe will be less likely to develop immune disorder than children who wash regularly. the more infectious diseases an individual is exposed to as a child, the less likely that person will be to develop immune disorders as an adult.
Children who NEVER wash they hands or bathe will be less likely to develop immune disorders than children who wash regularly.
According to the hygiene hypothesis, childhood exposure to germs and certain infections aids in the development of the immune system. This teaches the body to distinguish between harmless and harmful substances that cause asthma. Exposure to certain germs, in theory, teaches the immune system not to overreact. The hygiene hypothesis presumes that humans evolved in a pathogen-rich environment that no longer exists in industrialized societies.
The hygiene hypothesis presumes that humans evolved in a pathogen-rich environment that no longer exists in industrialized societies. According to the original hygiene hypothesis, decreased microbial exposure would increase the incidence of allergies and allergic asthma through enhanced atopic immune responses.
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Glucose polymers that can enhance performance by helping to maintain hydration and blood glucose levels are available in ____.
a. protein water
b. soft drinks
c. enhanced water
d. vitamin water
e. sports drinks
Glucose polymers that could decorate performance by way of supporting preserving hydration and blood glucose levels are available in sports drinks.
Option e. sports activities liquids.
Glycogen is a glucose polymer this is on the whole stored inside the liver and muscle and is required for glucose homeostasis all through fasting.
Amylose and cellulose are both linear polymers of glucose units, however, the glycosidic linkages between the glucose devices vary. The linkages in amylose are α-1,4-glycosidic linkages, at the same time as the linkages in cellulose they're β-1,4-glycosidic linkages.
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hich factor prolongs death for 3 to 5 days in patients who develop gastrointestinal syndrome after exposure to a radiation dose of 30 gyt (3000 rad)?
The cell regeneration process has a turnover duration of 3 to 5 days, which is the answer.
In patients who suffer gastrointestinal syndrome after receiving a radiation dose of 3000 rad, the turnover period of 3 to 5 days for the cell renewal process factor causes the death to be postponed for 3 to 5 days.
Any condition or illness that affects the gastrointestinal tract is referred to as having gastrointestinal disorders. The GI tract can be impacted by a variety of ailments or disorders, which may then have an effect on digestion and/or general health. Before making a diagnosis, a doctor may need to conduct more tests because some disorders have identical symptoms.
So, the answer is that the cell regeneration process takes between three and five days to complete.
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a post-menopausal woman with osteoarthritis of the left hip underwent a total hip replacement. after the surgery, the patient suffered total paralysis of the left quadriceps muscle group and radiating pain along the posterior thigh. it was determined that nerves from the lumbar plexus and the sacral plexus were damaged during the surgery. what two nerves were most likely damaged?
excessive growths of stratum corneum layer of epidermis that often occur on hands and feet
Stratum corneum hyperplasia refers to abnormal stratum corneum growths, which frequently affect the hands and feet. as well as bedsores and pressure sores.
Which layer of epidermis is mostly found in the skin on hands and feet?The whole outside of the body is covered by the biggest organ in the body, the skin. The epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis, the three layers that make up the skin, have distinctly different anatomical structures and physiological roles. The complex network of cells that make up the skin act as the body's first line of defense against viruses, UV rays, chemicals, and mechanical harm. The volume of water discharged into the environment and temperature are both controlled by it. This page covers the relevant vascular supply, innervation, embryology, anatomical components, function, and clinical relevance of the skin's epidermal layer.Skin layer thicknesses are classified according to the thickness of the epidermal and dermal layers and vary depending on the area of the body. Because of a second layer of epidermis called the stratum lucidum, the hairless skin on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet is the thickest. According to the thickness of the dermis, the upper back is the thickest, but histologically it is referred to as "thin skin" since the epidermal thickness is thinner than hairless skin and lacks the stratum lucidum layer.To Learn more About stratum corneum growths, refer to:
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