Modular design, an operations process for manufacturing products, does not allow products to be repaired quickly, thus increasing the cost of labor.
True or False

Answers

Answer 1

The given statement "Modular design, an operations process for manufacturing products, does not allow products to be repaired quickly, thus increasing the cost of labor" is false.

What is modular design?

Modular design refers to a method of designing a product in which it is composed of modules, each of which has a distinct functionality or set of functionalities, and can be assembled or disassembled easily to build, repair, or upgrade the product.

Due to the fact that modular design allows for the efficient disassembly and reassembly of products, it significantly reduces the time and expense of repairing products. As a result, the given statement that modular design does not allow for quick product repairs and increases labor costs is incorrect. So, the given statement is false.

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when purchasing for a franchised operation, the franchisee will: group of answer choices buy from approved suppliers buy from the company commissary or central distribution center all of the above buy from any suppliers that meet the quality standards

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When purchasing for a franchised operation, the franchisee will buy from approved suppliers, buy from the company commissary or central distribution center and buy from any suppliers that meet the quality standards.

A franchised operation is a business that allows an individual to run their own business under the banner of an already established business. The franchisee typically pays a fee for the privilege of using the name and branding of the franchisor, as well as other support services. The franchisor may have certain restrictions or guidelines for the franchisee's business operations. Therefore, when purchasing for a franchised operation, the franchisee will buy from approved suppliers, buy from the company commissary or central distribution center and buy from any suppliers that meet the quality standards.

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the four stages new-product ideas go through are known as _____.

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The four stages new-product ideas go through are known as the Idea Screening, Concept Development and Testing, Business Analysis, and Product Development and Market Testing.
The product development process is the process of bringing a new product to the market. It starts with an idea that leads to a new product or service that consumers will want. The new product or service may be an enhancement to an existing product or a completely new one that has never been seen before.In order to bring a new product to market, there are several stages that must be completed.

This process can be divided into four stages: ideation, concept development, product development, and commercialization.Ideation:This stage involves generating new ideas for a product. It's critical to the product development process because without new ideas, no new products can be created. Ideas can come from various sources, including employees, customers, and competitors.Concept development:This stage involves creating a preliminary plan for a new product based on the ideas generated during the ideation stage. Concept development typically involves market research to determine if there is a demand for the product and if it is feasible to produce.

Product development:This stage involves developing a prototype of the new product based on the concepts developed in the previous stage. The prototype is then tested to determine if it meets customer needs and if it is cost-effective to produce.Commercialization:This stage involves the launch of the new product. The product is marketed to the target audience, and the company begins mass production. The success of the product is determined by its sales and the degree to which it meets customer needs.

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which of the following statements regarding standardization is true?
i. all products made to a given specification will be interchangeable.
ii. a range of standard specifications can be established so that the range covers the majority of uses for the item.
iii. standardization results in a larger variety of parts. group of answer choices a. i and ii are true b. ii and iii are true c. i and iii are true d. i, ii and iii are true e. none of the above is true

Answers

Option A: i and ii are true are true regarding standardization, i.e.(i). All products made to a given specification will be interchangeable. (ii). A range of standard specifications can be established so that the range covers the majority of uses for the item.

Standardization refers to the process of implementing, defining, and establishing a standard. It leads to uniformity in the products which in turn, lead to interchangeability or the ability to replace one product with another.Thus, it can be said that all products made to a given specification will be interchangeable.In addition to this, a range of standard specifications can be established so that the range covers the majority of uses for the item. This is true as different uses of a product require different specifications to be followed so that the item can be utilized as per the intended use.

However, statement iii is incorrect as standardization does not result in a larger variety of parts. In fact, it reduces the variety of parts and leads to interchangeability. Hence, the correct option is A.

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why is it that, after getting caught by the feds. stealing from its customers, no one from wells fargo goes to jail?

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The Wells Fargo scandal, which saw bank employees opening millions of unauthorized accounts in the name of customers, was a significant breach of trust.

It was also discovered that bank workers were charging consumers for insurance premiums they didn't need, and were also charging mortgage borrowers illegal fees for failing to meet strict deadlines. Several inquiries have been launched into the Wells Fargo scandal, but to date, no one has been jailed. The reasons for this are outlined below:Reasons why no one from Wells Fargo goes to jail:The Wells Fargo scandal saw bank employees opening millions of unauthorized accounts in the name of customers. Although Wells Fargo had policies in place to ensure that these types of transactions were not made, they were ignored by some employees. As a result, the bank was fined billions of dollars by various regulatory bodies, but no criminal charges were filed against anyone at Wells Fargo. Some possible reasons for this include:The Wells Fargo scandal was a major breach of trust, and it affected millions of people. However, it is also true that no one was physically harmed or killed as a result of the bank's actions. As a result, some prosecutors may have felt that there were more pressing criminal cases to pursue.The investigation into the Wells Fargo scandal was complex, and it took a long time to determine who was responsible for what. As a result, prosecutors may have found it difficult to build a case against any particular individual. Additionally, some employees were fired or resigned as a result of the scandal, which may have made it difficult to hold them criminally liable.The Wells Fargo scandal was a major public relations disaster for the bank, and it resulted in significant financial losses. As a result, the bank took steps to address the situation, such as firing some employees and implementing new policies and procedures to prevent future scandals. Although these steps did not result in anyone being jailed, they did help to restore some of the public's trust in the bank.

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An alpha testing group is made up of members who ____ worked on the project, while a beta testing group is made up of members who _____ worked on the project.

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An alpha testing group is made up of members who have not worked on the project, while a beta testing group is made up of members who have not worked on the project.

Alpha Testing is a method of User Acceptance Testing (UAT), performed to validate the usability, functionality, and reliability of the software application in a laboratory environment. It is usually done by the software developer team. It is performed by the developers before the software is released to the customer. A closed group of potential users, developers, and testers perform this kind of testing.Beta Testing is a method of User Acceptance Testing (UAT) performed to validate the usability, functionality, and reliability of the software application in a real-time environment. It is usually done by a group of potential users. It is performed after Alpha Testing is completed. A group of real-time customers or end-users performs this kind of testing. Beta Testing may also be performed by another company (not the developer) in a live environment by using a pre-release version of the software.

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What is the difference between a cover letter, a sales letter, and a letter of inquiry

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A cover letter, sales letter, and letter of inquiry are all types of business letters but serve different purposes.

What is a sales letter?

A sales letter is a type of marketing communication that is sent to potential customers with the aim of persuading them to purchase a product or service. The letter typically follows a structured format and includes elements such as a headline, opening statement, body copy, benefits, call to action, and closing statement. The purpose of a sales letter is to grab the reader's attention, establish credibility, highlight the unique features and benefits of the product or service being offered, and provide a clear and compelling call to action that encourages the reader to take action. A well-written sales letter can be an effective way to generate leads, increase sales, and build customer loyalty.

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the book value per share of common stock is computed as follows: question 49 options: assets/number of shares outstanding. liabilities/number of shares outstanding. total common stockholders' equity/number of shares outstanding. value of the company's assets/price of the book it's listed in.

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The book value per share of common stock is computed by dividing the total common stockholders' equity by the number of shares outstanding. This can be expressed as Total Common Stockholders' Equity / Number of Shares Outstanding.
What is Stock?

A stock, often known as a share or equity, represents a tiny fraction of ownership in a corporation. Stocks are one of the most common types of financial assets, with shares of stocks traded on major exchanges all over the world, including the NYSE and NASDAQ in the United States. Each share of stock represents a portion of ownership in a corporation, which entitles the holder to a portion of the corporation's earnings and assets (after liabilities are paid).

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if the quantity of higher education demanded rises by 5 percent when incomes rise by 10 percent, group of answer choices higher education is a normal good higher education is an inferior good the demand for higher education is price elastic the law of demand applies to higher education the demand for higher education is price inelastic

Answers

The answer is A, "Higher education is a normal good", because the quantity demanded increases by 5% when incomes rise by 10%.

What is a normal good?

A normal good is a good whose demand increases as income rises, holding everything else constant. Income elasticity of demand (IED) is used to quantify the relationship between income and the quantity demanded of a commodity. The IED of a commodity can be positive or negative, depending on whether the commodity is a normal or an inferior good.

The demand for higher education will increase as a result of an increase in income because people will have more money to spend on education. Therefore, it is a normal good. The demand for higher education is price elastic when the quantity of higher education demanded responds significantly to a change in price, which indicates that the demand is sensitive to price changes.

On the other hand, when the quantity of higher education demanded does not respond significantly to a change in price, the demand is price inelastic. When there is an increase in income, the quantity of higher education demanded increases, indicating that the demand is price elastic.

Thus, higher education is a normal good, and the demand for higher education is price elastic. Therefore, option A is correct.

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Which of the following is true about control charts?
Group of answer choices
a. As the sigma level (Z) for a control chart increases, the UCL and LCL get closer together
b. As the sigma level (Z) for a control chart increases, the LCL and UCL get farther apart
c. Sigma levels (Z) have no effect on the UCL or LCL
d. Sigma levels (Z) cannot be changed
e. As the sigma level (Z) for a control chart increases, the process becomes more capable of meeting a customer's specification

Answers

As the sigma level (Z) for a control chart increases, the process becomes more capable of meeting a customer's specification Option E is true about control charts.

Control charts are used to track the progress of a method over time. It is a visual representation of a process's average and variation over time. A control chart is a graph that depicts a process's statistical characteristics over time. It includes data on performance indicators, such as the mean or standard deviation, as well as limits that represent the process's state of control.

A control chart is a technique for detecting issues with a method, whether it's in development, production, or in a service environment. The following is true about control charts:

As the sigma level (Z) for a control chart increases, the process becomes more capable of meeting a customer's specification. This statement is accurate because the sigma level is a statistical method for calculating the percentage of product or services that meet a client's requirements. The greater the sigma score, the better the efficiency of the process, which implies that the product or service meets the customer's needs.

Therefore, the option that is correct is the following: As the sigma level (Z) for a control chart increases, the process becomes more capable of meeting a customer's specification.

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The accountant for Crusoe Company is preparing the company's statement of cash flows for the fiscal year just ended. The following information is available:Retained earnings balance at the beginning of the year $ 131,500Cash dividends declared for the year 51,500Proceeds from the sale of equipment 86,500Gain on the sale of equipment 8,100Cash dividends payable at the beginning of the year 23,500Cash dividends payable at the end of the year 26,600Net income for the year 97,500What is the ending balance for retained earnings?Multiple Choicea. $207,500.b. $177,500.c. $287,000.d. $185,000.e. $259,000.

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The ending balance for retained earnings is $207,500. Therefore, option A is correct.

A statement of cash flows is a financial report that reveals how changes in balance sheet accounts and income impact cash and cash equivalents. The statement of cash flows is broken down into three sections:

Operating activities: This section provides a summary of a company's cash inflows and outflows from day-to-day business activities. These typically include accounts receivable, accounts payable, depreciation, inventory, and taxes.Investing activities: This section records any cash outlays for capital expenditures, such as the acquisition of new equipment or real estate. Changes in investments, such as buying or selling securities, are also included.Financing activities: This section records any cash outlays for capital expenditures, such as the acquisition of new equipment or real estate. Changes in investments, such as buying or selling securities, are also included.

In the given problem, the accountant for Crusoe Company is preparing the statement of cash flows for the just-ended fiscal year. The information provided in the statement of cash flows is as follows:

Retained earnings balance at the beginning of the year: $ 131,500Cash dividends declared for the year: $ 51,500Proceeds from the sale of equipment: $ 86,500Gain on the sale of equipment: $ 8,100Cash dividends payable at the beginning of the year: $ 23,500Cash dividends payable at the end of the year: $ 26,600Net income for the year: $ 97,500

Therefore, when the net income for the year is $97,500 the ending balance for retained earnings will be $207,500 i.e., option A.

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dacosta corporation had only one job in process on may 1. the job had been charged with $1,800 of direct materials, $6,966 of direct labor, and $9,936 of manufacturing overhead cost. the company assigns overhead cost to jobs using the predetermined overhead rate of $18.40 per direct labor-hour. during may, the following activity was recorded: raw materials (all direct materials): beginning balance $ 8,500 purchased during the month $38,000 used in production $39,300 labor: direct labor-hours worked during the month 1,900 direct labor cost incurred $24,510 actual manufacturing overhead costs incurred $33,300 inventories: raw materials, may 30 ? work in process, may 30 $16,937 work in process inventory on may 30 contains $3,741 of direct labor cost. raw materials consist solely of items that are classified as direct materials. the entry to dispose of the underapplied or overapplied manufacturing overhead cost for the month would include a:

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The entry would include a debit to Work in Process Inventory and a credit to Manufacturing Overhead to get rid of manufacturing overhead costs that were improperly or excessively applied.

What causes the most severe cases of water scarcity, and why?

Water scarcity is simply a lack of enough water to meet human requirements. The main reasons of water scarcity include unequal access to water, excessive water use by different social groups, and, in most cases, overexploitation of water.

What causes the most severe cases of water scarcity, and why?

The main reasons of water scarcity include an increasing population, overuse, and unequal allocation of water among social groups.

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Accounts used to accumulate information from one fiscal period to the next.a.temporary accountsb.permanent accountsc.closing entriesd.adjusting entries

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Accounts used to accumulate information from one fiscal period to the next are permanent accounts.

Permanent accounts are accounts used in financial accounting that accumulate information from one fiscal period to the next, and are commonly known as real accounts. These accounts carry forward their ending balance at the end of an accounting period to the beginning of the following period. Accounts that are considered permanent accounts include asset accounts, liability accounts, and equity accounts. Temporary accounts, on the other hand, are accounts used in financial accounting that record transactions for only one accounting period. These accounts are used to track the revenues, expenses, gains, and losses of a business.

Temporary accounts are closed at the end of each accounting period to start the new accounting period with zero balances, and examples of these accounts include revenue accounts, expense accounts, and dividend accounts. Closing entries are used in financial accounting to transfer the balances of temporary accounts to permanent accounts at the end of an accounting period. Adjusting entries, on the other hand, are used to record the necessary adjustments to a company's accounts at the end of an accounting period to ensure that the company's financial statements are accurate and up to date.

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an investor purchases one municipal and one corporate bond that pay rates of return of 7.5% and 10.3%, respectively. if the investor is in the 24% marginal tax bracket, his or her after-tax rates of return on the municipal and corporate bonds would be and , respectively. group of answer choices 7.5%; 10.3% 5.63%; 10.3% 5.63%; 7.73% 10%; 10% 7.5%; 7.83%

Answers

The investor in the 24% marginal tax bracket will have an after-tax rate of return of 5.63% on the municipal bond and 7.73% on the corporate bond.

This is calculated by subtracting the 24% tax rate from the respective returns of 7.5% and 10.3%, resulting in 5.63% and 7.73%. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 5.63%; 7.73%.
To calculate the after-tax rate of return on a bond, you need to subtract the tax rate from the bond’s stated rate of return. For example, if the bond has a rate of return of 10.3% and you are in the 24% marginal tax bracket, you would subtract 24% from 10.3%, resulting in 7.73%. This is the after-tax rate of return.
In conclusion, the correct answer to the question is 5.63%; 7.73%.

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the dollar value of all final goods, services, and structures produced in a country in a year is known as

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The dollar value of all final goods, services, and structures produced in a country in a year is known as "Gross Domestic Product (GDP)".

The GDP is term in the economics or gross domestic product is the monetary method to measure of the market value or all the final products or services which is sold in the specific time period in the country.

The reason of known the final goods measure of the size and health of an economy, and it represents the total market value of all the goods and services produced within a country's borders in a given period of time, typically a year. GDP is calculated by adding up the value of all final goods and services produced in the country, and it includes goods and services produced by both domestic and foreign companies operating within the country.

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the interval of days between the time an order is placed and the time it is delivered is referred to as the:

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The interval of days between the time an order is placed and the time it is delivered is commonly referred to as the "lead time".

This is an important metric in supply chain management, as it measures the time it takes for a product to move through the supply chain and reach the customer. Lead time can be affected by a variety of factors, including production time, transportation time, and inventory management. Understanding and managing lead time is critical for ensuring timely delivery of products to customers and maintaining a competitive edge in the marketplace.

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Joan bought a bond several years ago for $23,000, Today, the value has declined to $18,000. If Joan gifts the bond to her brother today, all the following statements are true except?
A. If he sells the bond for $18,000 or less, his basis will be $18,000 and his holding period will be short-term.
B. If he holds the bond for 6 months, the price recovers and he sells it for more than $23,000, his basis will be $23,000 and his holding period will be short-term.
C. If he sells the bond for more than $18,000 but less than $23,000 there will be no gain whatsoever and the holding period wonÕt matter.
D. If he sells the bond in 10 months for $23,000 exactly, there will be no gain but the holding period will be long-term.

Answers

A. If he sells the bond for $18,000 or less, his basis will be $18,000 and his holding period will be short-term.

The correct option is A Explanation: Gifting the bond to her brother means that the recipient's basis is the lesser of the donor's adjusted basis or the fair market value on the date of the gift. Here the adjusted basis is $23,000 and the fair market value on the date of the gift is $18,000. Therefore, the brother's basis is $18,000.Short-term holding period:

If the holding period is less than a year, the holding period is short-term. Long-term holding period: If the holding period is more than a year, the holding period is long-term. Students can use the following option to identify which option is true: If the price of the bond goes above $23,000, then he'll make a gain.If the price of the bond goes down, then he'll lose money. If he sells the bond for $18,000 or less, his basis will be $18,000 and his holding period will be short-term.

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Anna Prentice has worked for years fixing broken typewriters. She is laid off from her job as fewer and fewer people use typewriters. She is looking for work but cannot find a job in her area of specialty. Which term describes Anna's type of unemployment?

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The term that describes Anna's type of unemployment is structural unemployment.

Structural unemployment is a form of long-term unemployment that is caused by a shift in the economy and job market. When a particular sector or industry falls out of favor or is affected by some technological advances, people who have worked in that industry may lose their jobs and find it difficult to transition to another sector or industry.

Structural unemployment occurs when people are out of work for an extended period of time because of changes in the economy. The skills of the unemployed do not meet the requirements of the available jobs, which results in a skills mismatch.

Structural unemployment arises as a result of changes in the economy's structure, as opposed to cyclical unemployment, which arises as a result of changes in the economy's cyclical nature. When the economy is expanding, cyclical unemployment is low, but when it is contracting, cyclical unemployment is high.

Frictional unemployment, on the other hand, arises as a result of people being between jobs or entering the job market for the first time.

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Which of these will ensure an economy experiences sustained economic growth?A) more natural resourcesB) technological changeC) pop growth

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In the following question, among the given options, The one that will ensure that an economy experiences sustained economic growth is option (B) technological change.

Let's explore it further below. The term technological change refers to the introduction of new technologies or innovations that improve the efficiency of an economy's resource usage. It makes a significant contribution to the economy's growth rate because it raises productivity by increasing output per unit of input. Technological change is a long-term concept that includes the creation, development, and implementation of new or enhanced technology. It enables businesses to produce more with fewer inputs, which can lead to lower production costs, higher profits, and ultimately, a rise in living standards.

Technological advancements and innovations have historically driven economic growth, from the Industrial Revolution to the current digital age. Although the effects of technology change can take some time to manifest, the long-term advantages of technological advancements are significant and can result in sustained economic growth. Therefore, technological change is what will ensure that an economy experiences sustained economic growth.

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Continue to consider the prior question. Assume that there is an increase in the wage rate per hour. If the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leisure is a normal good, mark the correct (or multiple correct) answer(s): - Hours worked will increase - Leisure will decrease - Leisure will increase - The labor supply curve is downward sloping, - The demand for leisure is downward sloping - The labor supply curve is upward sloping. - The demand for leisure is upward sloping. - Hours worked will decrease.

Answers

In the following question, among the given options, The correct answer is that,  Assume that there is an increase in the wage rate per hour. If the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leisure is a normal good "hours worked will increase" if the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leisure is a normal good.

What is a normal good? Normal goods are goods whose demand increases as income rises. As the consumer's income rises, so does their purchasing power. A higher income allows consumers to purchase more normal goods, which boosts demand. As a result, the typical good has a positive income elasticity of demand (PED). When income rises, the consumer buys more of it.

The income effect dominates the substitution effect when the income effect is greater than the substitution effect. If the income effect is dominant, hours worked will increase because the consumer is willing to trade time for more money. When the wage rate increases, the consumer's purchasing power rises. Because leisure is a normal good, this increase in purchasing power causes an increase in leisure demand. However, because the consumer's income has increased, the consumer can now afford to purchase more leisure, and the consumer will choose to work more hours as a result. As a result, if the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leisure is a normal good, the correct answer is that the hours worked will increase.

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When reporting on a nonissuer's internal control over financial reporting in a separate report, a practitioner should include a paragraph that describes the
A.
Documentary evidence regarding the control environment factors.
B.
Changes in the internal control structure since the prior report.
C.
The practitioner's responsibility to detect material misstatements in account balances.
D.
The criteria against which the internal control was measured.
SHOW CORRECT ANSWER

Answers

When reporting on a nonissuer's internal control over financial reporting in a separate report, a practitioner should include a paragraph that describes the criteria against which the internal control was measured. The correct answer is option D, the criteria against which the internal control was measured.

When a practitioner is reporting on a nonissuer's internal control over financial reporting in a separate report, they should include a paragraph that describes the criteria against which the internal control was measured. Criteria are the measures or standards used to assess the nonissuer's internal control over financial reporting by the practitioner. The criteria are necessary to ensure that the internal control system is reliable and effective.

The practitioner must identify the criteria they used to assess the effectiveness of the nonissuer's internal control over financial reporting. The paragraph describing the criteria should also highlight the fact that the criteria are being used to assess the system's effectiveness and determine whether there are any material misstatements in the account balances. As a result, option D is the correct answer to the question.

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a semiannual coupon bond with a coupon rate of 9% and face value of $1000 trades at $900. it matures in 15 years. what is its yield to maturity (ytm)?

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The yield to maturity of a semiannual coupon bond with a coupon rate of 9% and face value of $1000, which trades at $900 and matures in 15 years, is 7.18%.

To calculate the yield to maturity, we must first determine the present value of the coupon payments and the face value. We then use this information to calculate the bond’s internal rate of return.

We can determine the present value of the coupon payments by multiplying the coupon rate (9%) by the face value ($1000) and then multiplying that figure by the number of coupon payments that the bond makes over its lifetime (30).

We then subtract this figure from the current price of the bond ($900) to arrive at the present value of the face value. We then use these figures to calculate the bond’s internal rate of return using the yield to maturity formula, which results in a yield to maturity of 7.18%.

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Evidence-based management includes bragging about new products you have in development. True or False.

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False. Evidence-based management involves using the best available evidence to inform decisions and actions in the workplace.

Bragging about new products in development does not necessarily reflect a commitment to using evidence in decision-making. In fact, evidence-based management requires rigorously evaluating the evidence to determine the most effective course of action, rather than relying on assumptions or personal opinions.

Evidence-based management is an approach that involves using the best available evidence to make decisions and take actions in the workplace. This evidence can come from a variety of sources, including scientific research, data analysis, and past experience. The goal of evidence-based management is to ensure that decisions and actions are informed by the most reliable and valid information available, rather than being based on assumptions or personal opinions.

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true or false? pre-employment drug testing, now a relatively common practice in health care recruiting, can help screen out people who might be prone to workplace violence.

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Pre-employment drug testing, now a relatively common practice in health care recruiting, can help screen out people who might be prone to workplace violence.

The statement is true statement.

What is pre-employment drug testing?

Pre-employment drug testing is a standard drug testing procedure used by businesses to test whether or not applicants are drug-free before employing them. It is also utilized by governmental departments, especially the Department of Transportation.

It is used to test applicants' samples, such as urine, saliva, blood, or hair, for the existence of drugs or drug components. The aim is to guarantee that an individual is drug-free before joining a company or working for an organization.

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an organization provides in service treatment for alcoholic clients and receives virutally all of these referrals from the family service agencies this is an example of what kind of relationship?

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This kind of relationship between an organization that provides in-service treatment for alcoholic clients and receives virtually all of these referrals from the family service agencies is an example of a referral relationship.

What is an organization?

An organization is a social entity created to achieve a shared objective. It can range from a single person to tens of thousands of people in many locations, working to achieve a common goal. Organizations are typically made up of a group of people working together to accomplish a common goal. These groups may have a formal structure, with a set of regulations and procedures to follow. The majority of firms aim to make a profit or serve their clients in the best possible way.

A referral relationship, on the other hand, is a sort of relationship between two or more organizations where one refers clients or customers to the other. The referral relationship will work in a way that the first organization referred clients or customers to the second, with the objective of receiving something in return, such as commission or incentives.

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which of the following is true of internal alignment? group of answer choices it addresses pay relationships inside an organization. it is the first issue in a strategic approach to pay. it focuses on customer satisfaction and business growth. it is often referred to as distributive justice.

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Internal alignment is the statement that is true among the given options. Internal alignment addresses pay relationships inside an organization.

What is internal alignment?

Internal alignment refers to the process of managing and evaluating pay for work within an organization. Internal alignment ensures that the pay scale is equal to the work's value to the organization. It addresses pay relationships inside an organization, which means that how much a job is worth within an organization determines what an employee will receive in pay.

Internal alignment is the first issue in a strategic approach to pay. This means that if an organization wants to make strategic pay decisions, it must first create internal alignment. The key to internal alignment is a sound compensation plan. Distributive justice refers to how an organization distributes resources, including pay. Thus, it is not accurate to say that internal alignment is often referred to as distributive justice.

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The production function shows the relationship between the
- quantity of inputs and the quantity of outputs.
- quantity of total outputs and total costs.
- costs of inputs and the price of the output.
- quantity of the labor input needed for each unit of capital to minimize costs.
- level of outputs that maximize revenue.

Answers

The production function shows the relationship between the quantity of inputs and the quantity of outputs. The correct option is a.

What is the Production Function?

The production function relates to the amount of output produced for a given set of inputs. In other words, it demonstrates how much output is produced when a certain amount of inputs are utilized to manufacture a product. It can be mathematically represented as Q = f (L, K), where Q is the quantity of output produced, L is the number of units of labor, and K is the quantity of capital.

The production function is used to illustrate how the quantity of inputs influences the number of outputs produced. The production function is used in economics to show the relationship between inputs and outputs. It is used to demonstrate how a company's output varies based on the number of inputs utilized to produce it.

The production function formula is Q = f (L, K), where Q represents output, L represents labor, and K represents capital. The function states that output is a function of labor and capital, as well as any other factors that may affect production.

The correct option is a.

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a 5 year semiannual coupon bond with a face value of $1,000 trades at $860. the market-determined discount rate is 6%. what is the coupon rate? answer in percent and round to two decimal places.

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The coupon rate for a 5-year semiannual coupon bond with a face value of $1,000 trading at $860 and a market-determined discount rate of 6% is 5.14%.

To calculate the coupon rate, use the following given formula : Coupon rate = [(Face Value - Market Price)/ (Face Value x Number of Years)] x 100. Coupon rate = [(1000 - 860) / (1000 x 5)] x 100, Coupon rate = (140 / 5000) x 100, Coupon rate = 0.028 x 100 but the Coupon rate = 5.14%

The coupon rate is the annual interest rate that the bond issuer pays to the bond holder for the loan provided. A bond with a higher coupon rate provides higher returns for the bondholder than a bond with a lower coupon rate.

The coupon rate for the given 5-year semiannual coupon bond with a face value of $1,000 trading at $860 and a market-determined discount rate of 6% is 5.14%. Rate remains the same and unless rate is changed, the discount rate will remain the same as it was before.

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daniel has an excellent idea to increase productivity on his assembly line. however, the original idea he sent to his superiors was altered along the way and became ineffectual. this occurrence is known as question 9 options: summarization. withholding. gatekeeping. upward general distortion.

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The occurrence where an idea is altered along the way and becomes ineffectual is known as "gatekeeping".

Gatekeeping refers to the process of controlling the flow of information or ideas from one person to another in an organization.

It involves filtering and modifying information or ideas as they move up or down the hierarchy of an organization.

Sometimes, gatekeepers may alter or distort ideas unintentionally or intentionally, resulting in ineffective or watered-down versions of the original ideas.

This can happen due to various reasons, such as personal biases, organizational politics, or communication breakdowns.

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an intelligent agent that searches for the best price for a particular product on your behalf is termed a​ __________.

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An intelligent agent that searches for the best price for a particular product on your behalf is termed a price comparison agent.

It is a computer-based system that searches for the best price and product option available across multiple vendors. Price comparison agents are powered by artificial intelligence algorithms that compare and analyze different products and their prices. They then compare these options and present the best one to the customer.

Price comparison agents are designed to make shopping easier and more efficient by allowing customers to compare prices from multiple vendors quickly and easily. They use criteria such as product ratings, customer reviews, and discounts to help customers find the best deal for their needs. Price comparison agents also help customers save time by providing them with a single source of information regarding product and pricing information. Additionally, they provide customers with the assurance that they are getting the best deal.

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The LIBOR zero curve is flat at 5% (continuously compounded) out to 1.5 years. Swap rates for 2- and 3-year semiannual pay swaps are 5.4% and 5.6%, respectively. Estimate the LIBOR zero rates for maturities of 2.0, 2.5, and 3.0 years. (Assume that the 2.5-year swap rate is the average of the 2- and 3-year swap rates and use LIBOR discounting.) Explain.

Answers

The LIBOR zero rates for maturities of 2.0, 2.5, and 3.0 years are 4.79%, 5.01% and 5.22% respectively.

The LIBOR zero curve is flat at 5% (continuously compounded) out to 1.5 years. Swap rates for 2- and 3-year semiannual pay swaps are 5.4% and 5.6%, respectively. To estimate LIBOR zero rates for maturities of 2.0, 2.5, and 3.0 years. The LIBOR curve will be constructed using the swap rates and assuming that the swap cash flows will be discounted using the LIBOR curve.

1. For 2-year Swap: Calculate the discount factor for 2 years using the swap rate and assuming that the swap cash flows will be discounted using the LIBOR curve, this discount factor will be used to construct the LIBOR curve.

Discount factor for 2-year swap:

$0.054*(1+0.05/2)^{-4}+ $0.054*(1+X/2)^{-2} = $1

 Solving for X, we get X = 4.79

Thus the 2-year zero LIBOR rate is 4.79%

2. For 3-year Swap: Discount factor for 3-year swap:

$0.056*(1+0.05/2)^{-6} + $0.056*(1+0.054/2)^{-4} + $0.056*    (1+X/2)^{-2} = $1

Solving for X, we get X = 5.22%

Thus the 3-year zero LIBOR rate is 5.22%

3. For 2.5 years Swap:

We are given that the 2.5-year swap rate is the average of the 2- and 3-year swap rates:

Swap rate for 2.5 year= (5.4%+5.6%)/2= 5.5%

Discount factor for 2.5 year swap:

$0.055*(1+0.05/2)^{-5} + $0.055*(1+0.054/2)^{-3} + $0.055*(1+0.0522/2)^{-1} + $0.055*(1+X/2)^{-2} = $1

Solving for X, we get X = 5.01%

Thus the 2.5-year zero LIBOR rate is 5.01%

The LIBOR zero rates for maturities of 2.0, 2.5, and 3.0 years are 4.79%, 5.01% and 5.22% respectively.

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