If the rectangle were translated three units down, then reflected across the y-axis, what would be the coordinates of point D ?

Answer:

[tex]12a^3d^2-6ad^3[/tex]

To factor an integer, we need to divide it by the ascending sequence of primes 2, 3, 5

In the end, the number of times each prime divides the original integer becomes its exponent.

Prime number 2  to the power of 2 equals 4 .

Prime number 3 to the power of 1 equals 3 .

[tex]2^{2} \times 3\times a^{3} \times b^{2} -(2\times3)ad^{3}[/tex]

Result:-  [tex]6ad^2\left(2a^2-d\right)[/tex]

 OAmalOHopeO

Answer:

B+A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

110000/8π

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 1100000 by 80 and cancel 0. Then divide pi

Answer:

[tex](a)\ f(4) = v[/tex]

(b) There are 7 gallons left in the tank after 4 minuted

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]f(t) = v[/tex]

[tex]t \to[/tex] time since water began draining

[tex]v \to[/tex] gallons in the tank

Solving (a): Notation for gallons remaining at 4 minutes

This means that [tex]t=4[/tex]

[tex]f(t) = v[/tex] becomes

[tex]f(4) = v[/tex]

Solving (b): Interpret f(4) = 7

We have:

[tex]f(t) = v[/tex]

[tex]t \to[/tex] time since water began draining

[tex]v \to[/tex] gallons in the tank

This means that:

[tex]t =4[/tex]

[tex]v =7[/tex]

It can be interpreted as:

There are 7 gallons left in the tank after 4 minuted

A = πr^2 and d = 2r.

So r = 8/2 = 4 cm.

Now use the first formula

A = π(4 cm)^2 = 50.265 cm^2

Answer:

the probability that a truck drives less than 159 miles in a day = 0.9374

Step-by-step explanation:

Given;

mean of the truck's speed, (m) = 120 miles per day

standard deviation, d = 23 miles per day

If the mileage per day is normally distributed, we use the following conceptual method to determine the probability of less than 159 miles per day;

1 standard deviation above the mean = m + d, = 120 + 23 = 143

2 standard deviation above the mean = m + 2d, = 120 + 46 = 166

159 is below 2 standard deviation above the mean but greater than 1 standard deviation above the mean.

For normal districution, 1 standard deviation above the mean = 84 percentile

Also, 2 standard deviation above the mean = 98 percentile

143 --------> 84%

159 ---------> x

166 --------- 98%

[tex]\frac{159-143}{166-143} = \frac{x-84}{98-84} \\\\\frac{16}{23} = \frac{x-84}{14} \\\\23(x-84) = 224\\\\x-84 = 9.7391\\\\x = 93.7391\ \%[/tex]

Therefore, the probability that a truck drives less than 159 miles in a day = 0.9374

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Pick two points on the line

(0,-5)  and (1,-1)

We can find the slope using

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

   = ( -1 - -5)/(1 - 0)

  (-1+5)/(1-0)

    4/1

  = 4

Answer:

0.05x + 0.1(55 - x) = 3.9

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 55 coins.

Let x = number of nickels.

The number of dimes is 55 - x.

The value of a nickel is $0.05, and the value of a dime is $0.10.

The value of x nickels is 0.05x

The value of 55 - x dimes is 0.1(55 - x)

The total value of the coins is 0.05x + 0.1(55 - x)

The total value of the coins is $3.90

0.05x + 0.1(55 - x) = 3.9

Answer:

y = - x - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

y=mx+b

m refers to slope

b refers to y intercept

y = (-1)x + (-2)

y = - x - 2

Answer:

y=-1x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

plug in the slop and y intercept to the equation y=mx+b

Answer:

it is true

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

question 1

angle DBA=90°, meaning to find m<D you have to add 90+38 then subtract by 180, because ABD is a triangle

90+18+m<D=180

108+m<D=180

m<D=180-108

=72°

question 2

m<D again in this case angle ABD is also 90

m<D=180-(90+48)

=180-138

=42°

I hope this helps

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  7.3 in

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the lengths of the sides shown is 100.2 in, so the missing length is ...

  107.5 -100.2 = 7.3 . . . inches

Answer:

a = 3√6 in

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question given above, the following data were obtained:

Angle θ = 60°

Adjacent = 3√2 in

Opposite = a =?

The value of 'a' can be obtained by using the tan ratio as illustrated below:

Tan θ = Opposite / Adjacent

Tan 60 = a / 3√2

√3 = a / 3√2

Cross multiply

a = √3 × 3√2

Recall:

c√d × n√m = (c×n) √(d×m)

Thus,

√3 × 3√2 = (1×3)√(3×2)

√3 × 3√2 = 3√6

a = 3√6 in

Answer: i) [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

              ii) [tex]\frac{5}{9}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Total length of film = 45 mins

Fraction of time left after 15 mins = [tex]\frac{15}{45}[/tex]

                                                       = [tex]\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

Fraction of time left after 25 mins = [tex]\frac{25}{45}[/tex]

                                                        = [tex]\frac{5}{9}[/tex]

Answer:

4. 53

5. 66

6. 89

7. 31

Step-by-step explanation:

4.  14 + 18 + 21

     ^      ^

        33 + 21

            53

5.  86 - 20

        66

6.  34 + 55

        89

7.  14 + 11 + 6

     ^     ^

      25 + 6

          31

Answer:

y = 3/2x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

slope intercept form is

y = mx+b where m is the slope and b is the y intercept

y = 3/2x+b

Substitute the point in for x and y

1 = 3/2(2)+b

1 = 3+b

1-3 =b

-2=b

y = 3/2x-2

Step-by-step explanation:

4. the area of semi circle R =

3²/5² × 75π = 9/25 × 75π = 27π cm²

5. the ratio of their areas = 1²:7² = 1:49

Answer:

4842.24 cubic feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the formula for the volume of a cone, V = [tex]\pi[/tex]r²[tex]\frac{h}{3}[/tex]

The diameter of the cone is 34 ft, so the radius is 17 ft.

Plug in the radius and height into the formula, and solve for the volume:

V = [tex]\pi[/tex]r²[tex]\frac{h}{3}[/tex]

V = [tex]\pi[/tex](17)²[tex]\frac{16}{3}[/tex]

V = [tex]\pi[/tex](289)[tex]\frac{16}{3}[/tex]

V = 4842.24

So, the volume of the cone is 4842.24 cubic feet

Answer:

4,841.32 ft³.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let’s assume that this is a right circular cone and that the radius of the cone is r.

For our problem, r = (1/2)d = (1/2)34 = 17.

The volume of the cone is:

V = (1/3)pi r^2 h, where r is the radius and h is the height.

So, V = (1/3)pi(17^2)16 = 4,841.32 ft³.

Answer:

432

Step-by-step explanation:

x=1hr (6x)=6hours x= 72 hours through train so (6x)=72x6=432

260 pairs

Step-by-step explanation:

220-100= 120

(29200+2000)÷120= 260

Answer:

a) the probability that the defective board was produced during the first hour of operation is [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] or 0.1000

b) the probability that the defective board was produced during the  last hour of operation is [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] or 0.1000

c) the required probability is 0.2000

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the data in the question;

During a specific ten-hour period, one defective circuit board was found.

Lets X represent the number of defective circuit boards coming out of the machine , following Poisson distribution on a particular 10-hours workday which one defective board was found.

Also let Y represent the event of producing one defective circuit board, Y is uniformly distributed over ( 0, 10 ) intervals.

f(y) = [tex]\left \{ {{\frac{1}{b-a} }\\\ }} \right _0[/tex];   ( a ≤ y ≤ b )[tex]_{elsewhere[/tex]

= [tex]\left \{ {{\frac{1}{10-0} }\\\ }} \right _0[/tex];   ( 0 ≤ y ≤ 10 )[tex]_{elsewhere[/tex]

f(y) = [tex]\left \{ {{\frac{1}{10} }\\\ }} \right _0[/tex];   ( 0 ≤ y ≤ 10 )[tex]_{elsewhere[/tex]

Now,

a) the probability that it was produced during the first hour of operation during that period;

P( Y < 1 )   =   [tex]\int\limits^1_0 {f(y)} \, dy[/tex]

we substitute

=    [tex]\int\limits^1_0 {\frac{1}{10} } \, dy[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{1}{10} [y]^1_0[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{1}{10} [ 1 - 0 ][/tex]

= [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] or 0.1000

Therefore, the probability that the defective board was produced during the first hour of operation is [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] or 0.1000

b) The probability that it was produced during the last hour of operation during that period.

P( Y > 9 ) =    [tex]\int\limits^{10}_9 {f(y)} \, dy[/tex]

we substitute

=    [tex]\int\limits^{10}_9 {\frac{1}{10} } \, dy[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{1}{10} [y]^{10}_9[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{1}{10} [ 10 - 9 ][/tex]

= [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] or 0.1000

Therefore, the probability that the defective board was produced during the  last hour of operation is [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] or 0.1000

c)

no defective circuit boards were produced during the first five hours of operation.

probability that the defective board was manufactured during the sixth hour will be;

P( 5 < Y < 6 | Y > 5 ) = P[ ( 5 < Y < 6 ) ∩ ( Y > 5 ) ] / P( Y > 5 )

= P( 5 < Y < 6 ) / P( Y > 5 )

we substitute

 [tex]= (\int\limits^{6}_5 {\frac{1}{10} } \, dy) / (\int\limits^{10}_5 {\frac{1}{10} } \, dy)[/tex]

[tex]= (\frac{1}{10} [y]^{6}_5) / (\frac{1}{10} [y]^{10}_5)[/tex]

= ( 6-5 ) / ( 10 - 5 )

= 0.2000

Therefore, the required probability is 0.2000

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  a = 3, b = -8

Step-by-step explanation:

Solving the first equation for y, we get ...

  2y +16 = 6x . . . . . given

  y = 8 +3x . . . . . . . divide by 2

  y = 3x -8 . . . . . . . subtract 8

In order for the system of equations to have infinitely many solutions, the second equation must be the same as this:

  y = ax +b

  a = 3, b = -8

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2 × ( 3x + 6 )° + ( 16x + 14 )° = 180°

22x + 26 = 180

22x = 154

x = 7

Answer:

main aapki madad karna chahti hun per Mujhe Ae Jahan question Nahin Aata sorry I don't know

sorry dear friend

Step-by-step explanation:

ok I don't know

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3/16 = 0.1875

As a % this is 18.75%

18.75/100 * 200 = 37.5

I'm not sure from the question, exactly what you want. 18.75% of 200 is one possibility.

3/16 of 200 as a percentage is 3750%

The question can be represented as:

[tex]\frac{3}{16} * 200[/tex]

Rewrite as:

[tex]\frac{3}{16} * 200 =\frac{3* 200}{16}[/tex]

Multiply the numerator

[tex]\frac{3}{16} * 200 =\frac{600}{16}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{3}{16} * 200 =37.5[/tex]

Multiply by 100% to represent it as a percentage

[tex]\frac{3}{16} * 200 =37.5 * 100\%[/tex]

[tex]\frac{3}{16} * 200 =3750\%[/tex]

Read more at:

https://brainly.com/question/19994306

Answer:

116 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

We can solve this by first writing an equation for the cost of the car rental. To begin, the base cost is $17.95, so any further costs must be added to that. Next, the car costs 19 cents (0.19 dollars) for each mile driven, so for each mile, we add 19 cents. This can be written as 0.19 *x if x represents the amount of miles driven. Therefore, we can add the two input costs of the car (the base cost and cost per mile) to get

17.95 + 0.19 * x = total cost.

After that, we want to maximize x/the number of miles with only 40 dollars. We can do this by setting this equal to the total cost, as going over the total cost is impossible and going under would be limiting the amount of miles (this because we are adding money for each mile, so more money means more miles). Therefore, we have

17.95 + 0.19 * x = 40

subtract 17.95 from both sides to isolate the x and its coefficient

22.05 = 0.19 * x

divide both sides by 0.19 to isolate x

22.05/0.19 = x = 116.05

The question asked us to round down, and 116.05 rounded down is 116 for our answer

Solution :

[tex]$H_0: p = 0.5$[/tex]

[tex]$H_a: p > 0.5$[/tex]

Alpha, α = 0.01

The sample proportion is :

[tex]$p'=\frac{x}{n}$[/tex]

   [tex]$=\frac{513}{806}$[/tex]

   = 0.636

Test statistics, [tex]$z=\frac{p'-p}{\sqrt{\frac{pq}{n}}}$[/tex]

[tex]$z=\frac{0.636-0.5}{\sqrt{\frac{0.5\times 0.5}{806}}}$[/tex]

[tex]$z=\frac{0.136}{0.0176}$[/tex]

z = 7.727

The p value = 0.00001

Here we observe that p value is less than α, and so we reject the hypothesis [tex]H_0[/tex].

Therefore, there is sufficient evidence,

Answer:

The area formula is= 1/2(a+b)×height

1/2×20×6=60metres squared

Step-by-step explanation:

kindly correct me if am wrong