Answer:
63%
Explanation:
the idea that as more and more units of a variable resource are applied to a fixed amount of other resources, output will eventually increase by smaller and smaller amounts is known as, true or false?
The idea that as more and more units of a variable resource are applied to a fixed amount of other resources, output will eventually increase by smaller and smaller amounts is known as the law of diminishing marginal returns. This is true.
This law applies to both agriculture and other industries. In agriculture, when more and more workers and machines are applied to a fixed amount of land, eventually output increases by smaller and smaller amounts because the land is a fixed amount of a resource. In other industries, the law of diminishing marginal returns applies when more and more workers are applied to a fixed amount of other resources, such as machines, or when more and more machines are applied to a fixed amount of other resources, such as workers. The law of diminishing marginal returns is an important principle to understand because it helps explain why there are limits to growth and why there is an optimal level of resource use.
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use the excerpt to answer the question- congress has a split personality. on the one hand, it is a lawmaking institution and makes policy for the entire nation. in this capacity, all the members are expected to set aside their personal ambitions and perhaps even the concerns of their constituencies. yet congress is also a representative assembly, made up of 535 elected officials who serve as links between their constituents and the national government. the dual roles of making laws and responding to constituent's demands forces members to balance national concerns against the specific interests of their states or districts. -james m. burns, et al., government by the people what is the best summary of this quotation?
This quotation is about how Congress has a dual role as both a lawmaking institution and as a representative of the people. Members of Congress are expected to prioritize the nation's interests over their own ambitions and must find a balance between addressing national concerns and the specific needs of their states or districts.
Congress refers to the national legislative body of the United States that makes laws, and its members are elected officials representing their districts or states. The two houses that makeup Congress are the Senate and the House of Representatives. Together, they work towards creating a fair and just society.
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Which of the following is true regarding the changing profile of a police officer?
The percentage of women has not changed since the 1970s
The percentage of women has doubled since the 1970s but females still only comprise 12%
O The large majority of police officers are people of color
O Today only one in three officers is male
O Today almost one in two officers is female
The answer is option b. The percentage of women has doubled since the 1970s but females still only comprise 12%.
This statement is true regarding changing profile of a police officer.
What does the word "police" really mean?Police, a group of policemen who serve as the government's civil service. Police are generally in charge of doing law and order, protecting the public, and stopping, identifying, and looking into illegal activity. Policing is the term used to show these activities.
Three main duties of the police?Investigation, capture, and custody of those accused of committing crimes are among the main responsibilities of law enforcement.
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Which of the following statements would NOT be true about the characteristics of automated execution systems used for securities transactions?
Automated execution systems can be used by institutions and by individual investors is not true about the characteristics of automated execution systems used for securities transactions.
The correct option is A.
Automated trading systems, also known as algorithmic trading, automated trading, or system trading, let traders set up specific rules for trade entry and exits that, once programmed, can be carried out automatically by a computer. In fact, various platforms report 70% to 80% or more of shares traded on U.S. stock exchanges come from automatic trading systems.
Automated trading systems typically require the use of software linked to a direct access broker, and any specific rules must be written in that platform's proprietary language. As an illustration, the Trade Station platform employs the Easy Language programming language. On the other hand, the Ninja Trader platform utilizes Ninja Script. An example of an automated strategy that initiated three trades during a trading session is shown in the figure below. The correct option is A.
The question is incomplete, complete question "Which of the following statements would NOT be true about the characteristics of automated execution systems used for securities transactions?
[A] They are used only by institutional investors
[B] They expedite the execution of most transactions
[C] Market and limit orders are allowed to be entered
[D] Execution is generally instantaneous"
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what the forensic lab plays within crime scene investigation?
who does the commandant of the marine corps report to?
The Commandant of the Marine Corps reports directly to the Secretary of the Navy, who is a member of the United States President’s cabinet.
This direct reporting relationship between the Commandant and the Secretary of the Navy is mandated by law and is outlined in Title 10 of the United States Code. The Commandant’s duties include serving as the head of the Marine Corps and ensuring its readiness for any type of mission, such as providing amphibious forces, training personnel, and providing support for combat operations. The Commandant is also responsible for overseeing Marine Corps recruiting, logistics, and the administration of justice.
The Commandant of the Marine Corps is the senior ranking officer in the Marine Corps and the only officer in the Corps to serve as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. In this capacity, the Commandant acts as an adviser to the President and Secretary of Defense. The Commandant also serves as the principal advisor to the Secretary of the Navy on all matters about the Marine Corps.
The Commandant is appointed by the President and confirmed by the Senate. The Commandant serves for a four-year term and is eligible for reappointment, though most Commandants serve no more than two consecutive terms. The Commandant is the leader and spokesman of the Marine Corps and serves as the primary representative of the Corps in relations with other branches of the United States Armed Forces, government agencies, and the public.
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Unauthorized practice of law and acting outside the scope of your expertise are similar issues. Which of these circumstances specifically relates to unauthorized practice of law?Writing contract addenda or additional provisions that cover unfamiliar circumstancesBottom of Form
Unauthorized practice of law is the act of providing legal advice or services without being licensed to do so. Writing contract addenda or additional provisions that cover unfamiliar circumstances relates to this.
The Unauthorized practice of law and acting outside the scope of your expertise also include activities such as giving legal advice, preparing legal documents, or representing someone in court. These are legal matters that requires a licensed attorney to interpret and advise on. By attempting to draft legal documents without the proper licensing, the individual would be engaging in unauthorized practice of law and could face legal charges. Due to the complexity and nuances of the law only lawyers are allowed to write contracts and other legal documents.
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fill in the blank. generally speaking, prejudice involves negative___, whereas stereotyping involves negative about someone based on their group membership.
Generally speaking, prejudice involves negative discrimination, whereas stereotyping involves negative about someone based on their group membership.
An unjustified, often unfavourable attitude towards a group and its members is called prejudice. The three elements of prejudice are attitudes (often stereotypes), feelings, and propensities to take action (discrimination).
Prejudice is a pejorative attitude and sentiment against a person that is exclusively motivated by that person's social group membership (Allport, 1954; Brown, 2010). Those who belong to an unknown cultural group can face prejudice.
Prejudice is a belief about a person or group that is often unfavourable and is based on a stereotype. A person's participation (or presumed membership) in a certain group generally serves as the foundation for the idea. People are divided by prejudice based on stereotypes as well.
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What is one trait that state and federal courts have in common?
A. Both must obey the laws outlined in the U.S. Constitution.
B. Both divide jurisdictions and name courts the same way.
C. Both set strict guidelines all defendants must meet before trial.
D. Both are presided over by judges who serve four-year terms.
Answer: A. Both must obey the laws outlined in the U.S. Constitution.
Explanation:
Both state and federal courts must obey the laws outlined in the U.S. Constitution because the Constitution is the supreme law of the land in the United States. The Constitution outlines the structure of the federal government, including the judicial branch, and sets forth certain rights and protections that apply to all individuals in the country. Both state and federal courts must adhere to the principles and protections set forth in the Constitution, such as the right to due process of law and the right to a fair trial. This ensures that the legal system operates in accordance with the principles of the Constitution and protects the rights of individuals who come before the courts.
Which of the following is NOT a group mentioned in the lesson that the bureaucracy is accountable to?a. Cabinetb. Judiciaryc. interest groups
Judiciary is NOT a group mentioned in the lesson that the bureaucracy is accountable to. (B)
The bureaucracy is accountable to the Cabinet, the President, Congress, the public, and interest groups. The judiciary is a branch of government, but the bureaucracy is not directly accountable to it; rather, it is accountable to the executive branch of government, which includes the Cabinet. (B)
The Cabinet is composed of the President and the heads of executive departments, who advise the President and collectively constitute the executive branch of the federal government.
Interest groups are organizations formed to represent citizens and to promote certain goals, and the bureaucracy is accountable to them because they can use their political power to influence public policy.
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In a 2003 case involving admissions practices at the University of Michigan, the Supreme Court reaffirmed its decision Bakke by rejecting the use of___
In a 2003 case involving admissions practices at the University of Michigan, the Supreme Court reaffirmed its decision Bakke by rejecting the use of racial quotas.
The case, Grutter v. Bollinger, centered around the University of Michigan's law school's affirmative action program, which used race as a factor in admissions decisions. The Court upheld the constitutionality of the program, stating that a diverse student body is a compelling state interest in the context of higher education. However, the Court also noted that race cannot be the sole factor in admissions decisions and that universities must consider other factors as well. The decision affirmed the principle of affirmative action in higher education while also establishing limits on its implementation.
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true/false. police are allowed to move belongings around under the plain view doctrine if they think that there may be illegal contraband hidden in the house.
The given statement " police are allowed to move belongings around under the plain view doctrine if they think that there may be illegal contraband hidden in the house." is false as the police may not move objects to get a better view, and they may not be in a location unlawfully.
The officer must have reasonable grounds to believe the object is either contraband or evidence of a crime in order to legally seize it. The police may not enter a space illegally or move objects to improve their view.
An officer may seize evidence of a crime that is plainly visible without a warrant under the plain view doctrine, a rule of criminal procedure. This doctrine serves as an exception to the Fourth Amendment's prohibition on unwarranted searches and seizures.
The probable cause requirement, however, places restrictions on the plain view doctrine because it allows officers to search or seize items only after they have reasonable grounds to believe they are contraband.
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someone please help me !!!!!!!!
Although every crime scene is unique, discuss the components of and things to be considered when conducting a scene assessment.
During a crime scene assessment, an investigator must consider the nature of the crime, potential evidence, scene condition and hazards, secure the scene, document, among others.
What is a Scene Assessment?Scene assessment is the process of evaluating and documenting a crime scene to determine the scope and nature of the crime, potential evidence, and any hazards present.
When conducting a crime scene assessment, the investigator should consider the scope and nature of the crime, potential evidence to be collected, the condition of the scene, and any hazards present.
Other factors to consider include securing the scene, identifying potential witnesses, documenting the scene through photography and sketches, and collecting physical evidence.
The investigator should also consider the possibility of trace evidence, such as fibers, hair, and DNA, and take steps to prevent contamination of the scene. Additionally, the investigator should ensure that proper chain of custody protocols are followed when collecting and handling evidence.
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please explain it HELP HELP HELP
A criminal code is a written compilation of the majority of the criminal laws in a certain jurisdiction. A criminal code will include the offences that are legal in the jurisdiction, potential punishments, and certain general regulations.
What is penal code, NAPOLCOM and PNP?
The National Police Commission is the body tasked with overseeing and managing the Philippine National Police in accordance with the 1987 Constitution and the Major Police Reform Laws, Republic Act Nos. 6975 and 8551. The Indian Criminal Code is broken into 511 sections spread across 23 chapters.
The Indian Criminal Code's main goals are to define good and wrong as well as the consequences of doing something illegal. The "intention" of committing the crime is a critical factor in criminal law for determining the offense's potential punishment. The Philippine National Police is administered and controlled by the National Police Commission, often known as NAPOLCOM, an affiliated agency of the Department of the Interior and Local Government.
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T/F. The fact that police usually have to react to the report of a crime may help explain the inability of the police to solve more crimes.
True. The fact that police usually have to react to the report of a crime may help explain the inability of the police to solve more crimes.
Police forces are often stretched thin, and they are unable to proactively monitor all areas of a city or town to prevent crime from occurring. Instead, they rely on citizens to report crimes to them, at which point they can begin their investigation.
However, this reactive approach can lead to delays in responding to crimes, and crucial evidence or witnesses may be lost in the time it takes for the police to arrive on the scene. Moreover, many crimes go unreported, particularly in disadvantaged communities where residents may not trust the police or may fear retaliation for reporting crimes. All of these factors can make it difficult for police to solve more crimes and reduce crime rates.
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occurs when both parties agree that the contract should be terminated without performance. A rescission discharges the obligations of both parties under the contract.
Rescission occurs when both parties agree that the contract should be terminated without performance.
When the parties to a contract decide to end the agreement, rescission takes place. Rescission only causes the old contract to be canceled; no new contract is created in its place. By mutual consent, the parties terminate the contract. Waiver is the act of giving up a right. Despite the parties' partial or complete failure to fulfill all of their obligations, the contract is void. When parties enter into contracts because they have mutually agreed to do so, the parties' individual contracts are terminated.
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Almond and Verba described three (3) general political cultures in their work, the civic culture. Which of the following was not one of them?a) Participant cultureb) Parochial culturec) Subject cultured) Patron-client culture
The correct answer is (C) subject culture. Almond and Verba described three general political cultures in their work—participant, parochial, and patron-client culture—but not subject culture.
C) Subject culture. Almond and Verba described one of three (3) general political cultures in their work, the civic culture. The culture that is not described by Almond and Verba is the patron-client culture.
Political culture refers to the attitudes, beliefs, and values that underpin political systems. Gabriel Almond and Sidney Verba, two political scientists, developed a theory that divides political cultures into three categories:
Parochial culture Participatory culture Subject culture It should be noted that there is no "perfect" or "right" political culture. There are pros and cons to each culture, and the best option is the one that best fits a nation's needs.
Almond and Verba introduced a fourth culture, the civic culture, which combines aspects of all three of the preceding cultures to produce the best outcome.
The culture that is not described by Almond and Verba is the patron-client culture. This is a clientelist culture in which individuals exchange services, money, or gifts for the guarantee of obtaining benefits such as employment or access to public goods.
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The administration of justice is an important aspect of the criminological study because it is concerned with those institutions that deal closely with crime and criminals throughout the justice system. In line with the above assertion, discuss the three (3) components of the criminal justice system in relation to the administration of justice in the Republic of South Africa.
The three main components of the criminal justice system in relation to the administration of justice in the Republic of South Africa are-
1. The prosecution service -
-It decides whether or not to prosecute someone who is suspected of having committed a crime.
2. The presiding officer-
-The magistrate or judge who hears the case, and the judiciary (the courts) decide if the accused is innocent or guilty after having heard evidence.
3. The Department of Justice provides accessible and quality justice for all-
- The prison system, done by the Department of Correctional Services (DCS), makes sure that sentences are done.
Justice actually mean?Justice is the ethical and philosophical thing that individuals should be treated impartially, fairly, nice, and rationally by the law and by those who leader it, that laws should guarantee that no one do damage, and that if harm is allegedly occurring, corrective action should be performed.
Justice means to different people?Giving each individual what they deserve, or, in more formal terms, giving each person their due, is what is meant by justice. Nowadays, the terms justice and fairness are used in pace of other since they are join.
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select the four control systems that are used in multinational firms.political cultural personal bureaucratic output monetary
Multinational firms need to implement four control systems used in multinational firms are political, cultural, personal, and bureaucratic. Political control is used to control international activities, such as when a government influences a multinational's business operations.
1.Personal control systemIn personal control systems, the top management supervises the activities of the lower-level employees. The management of the multinational firms personally observes the activities of employees to ensure that they are following company policies and regulations.
2. Bureaucratic control systemIn bureaucratic control systems, multinational firms create a set of policies and regulations that employees need to follow. The company establishes standard procedures and monitors employee behavior to ensure that they are following the regulations.
3. Output control systemIn output control systems, multinational firms set specific targets for their employees to meet. The company monitors the employees' performance and productivity to ensure that they are meeting the targets.
4. Monetary control systemIn monetary control systems, multinational firms use financial incentives to motivate employees. The company rewards the employees for their performance and productivity. This control system helps companies to retain employees and motivates them to work harder.
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Importance of finding a balance between person freedome and responsible behaviour
There is a good rea-son as to why we find a balance bet-ween personal freedom & responsible behavior. It prevents deindividuation among the group behavior and the collective behavior since one is able to identify there individual personal responsibility instead of the collective responsibility in there behavior.
There must be a balance between my freedom and responsible social behavior because otherwise life will be chaotic. If I could do what-ever I want and all of us could do what-ever we want, we couldn't live at all or life wo-uld be hell on earth. There is a proper place & time for each person's express-ion of his freedom & it should be main-tained under certain limits & conditions.
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what is The Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA)?
The Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977 (SMCRA) is a federal law that regulates the surface mining of coal in the United States.
The law was designed to address the negative effects coal mining has on the environment and society, including erosion, habitat damage, and air and water pollution.
The law puts rigorous regulations on mining activities, such as the reclamation of land when mining is finished, and requires mining operations to get permission from the state in which they are working.
The law also stipulates that mining operations must pay a reclamation charge, which goes towards cleaning up and restoring mined-out land.
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true or false. federal statutes govern the formation of sales and lease contracts.
The given statement federal statutes govern the formation of sales and lease contracts" is True because This includes the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), which sets out the terms of the contract that both parties must follow.
The UCC applies to transactions in goods, including sales and leases. It sets out the rights and obligations of buyers and sellers, including payment terms, delivery requirements, and remedies for breach of contract. The UCC also governs negotiable instruments, such as checks and promissory notes, and certain securities transactions. Additionally, the Federal Trade Commission (FTC) is authorized to issue regulations regarding the sale and lease of consumer goods.
These regulations set out what information must be provided to consumers, how consumer contracts may be cancelled, and how consumer disputes must be handled. In addition to the UCC and FTC regulations, state and local laws may also apply to sales and lease contracts. These laws may include consumer protection laws, zoning regulations, taxation requirements, and more. It is important to be aware of the relevant state and local laws when entering into a contract.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit?a. Identificationb. Clear and present dangerc. Defamationd. Faulte. Injury
Defamation is NOT one of the elements of a libel suit. (C)
Libel is a type of defamation that consists of false statements that are published in a written form. A libel suit requires four elements: identification, clear and present danger, fault, and injury. Identification means that the individual responsible for the libelous statement must be identified.
Clear and present danger means that the statement was false, and it created harm or the potential to cause harm. Fault means that the person who made the statement either acted negligently or with intentional malice. Injury means that the libelous statement caused some form of harm or damage to the plaintiff.
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Discuss in 100 words or more, the purpose of AFIS and why it is so important in crime scene investigation.
which of the following did hb 1337 allow? which of the following did hb 1337 allow? alcoholic beverages are exempt from all excise taxes beer not intended for sale was exempt from excise taxes excise taxes can be charged in proportion to brewery production (i.e. larger brewers paid less per barrel in taxes) none of the above
HB 1337 allowed the excise taxes to be charged in proportion to brewery production (i.e. larger brewers paid less per barrel in taxes).
HB 1337 refers to a law that was passed in Indiana in 2016, which is also known as the "Dignity for the Unborn Act." The law sought to increase the number of abortion restrictions in the state, with the hope of eventually banning the procedure completely.
It also contained several provisions that were intended to regulate the production and sale of alcohol in Indiana. What did HB 1337 allow? The provision of HB 1337 that is relevant to this question is that it allowed for excise taxes to be charged in proportion to brewery production. This means that larger breweries would pay less per barrel in taxes than smaller breweries, which would be charged more.
The purpose of this provision was to incentivize the growth of larger breweries and to encourage them to produce more beer. What is an excise tax? An excise tax is a tax that is levied on a specific good or service. In the case of the brewing industry, excise taxes are typically levied on the production of beer, and are used to generate revenue for the government. The amount of the tax is typically based on the volume of beer that is produced.
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which of the following are the three fundamental problems of democracy that political parties solve?
(i) Parties contest elections. (ii)Parties put ahead unique policies and programmes and voters pick out from them. (iii) Parties play a decisive function in making legal guidelines for a country. (iv)Parties structure and run goverments.
What are the three necessary functions of political events in a democratic government?Major functions of the Political Parties are as follows – i Parties contest elections. ii Parties put ahead exceptional policies and programmes. iii Parties play a decisive position in making laws of a country. iv Parties form and run the government.
What are the 3 challenges being faced by means of political parties in India discuss?The three challenges confronted by using political parties in India are: i Lack of inside democracy. ii Challenge of dynastic succession iii Growing role of money and muscle power. iv Often events do not appear to offer a significant choice to the voters.
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fill in the blank. a criminologist who believes that crime is caused by societal pressures such as social structures and culture would subscribe to___perspectives.
A criminologist who believes that crime is caused by societal pressures such as social structures and culture would subscribe to sociological perspectives.
Specifically, this perspective is often associated with the sociological theory of "social disorganization," which suggests that high levels of crime in certain neighborhoods or communities can be attributed to factors such as poverty, unemployment, racial segregation, and weak social institutions.
Criminologists who subscribe to this perspective argue that crime is not solely the result of individual choices or characteristics, but rather is influenced by larger societal factors. Other sociological perspectives that are commonly applied to the study of crime include strain theory, cultural deviance theory, and social learning theory.
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What can one do when the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergence? Secondly, pick and describe a scenario in which the Governor can legally declare a State of Emergency.
Explain the requirements necessary for reasonable suspicion, probable cause, and beyond a reasonable doubt, and provide an example of when each is required.
What does it mean to sustain an objection? What does it mean to overrule an objection?
You are representing Kevin, a Firestone State Trooper, in a civil case. The plaintiff, Sarah, is alleging that your client falsely arrested her for an offense she did not commit. During discovery, Sarah presents only a picture of the arrest record from the database. Given that Sarah is not alleging that she was overtimed, what motion could you make during pre-trial and what grounds should you use for the motion. What standards would you have to meet for the motion to be accepted?
You are a Public Defender working for the Department of Justice. An Associate Attorney General, Who is your superior and helps manage the State Attorney's Office, contacts you and orders you to take more guilty pleas in case you have a good chance of winning acquittals so that they can raise the conviction rate. Is this ethical? What should you do in this situation?
What legal grounds exist for an appeal? What court handles appeals, and how do you file for an appeal to be heard by them?
Explain sentencing Limitations in the State of Firestone as set by both statutory and Constitutional law. What are some types of punishments that could be issued other than incarceration? Can these punishments be issued in conjunction with the max incarceration time?
Roger is forbidden by his mother to cross the street without an adult. One day, as Roger is walking down the sidewalk alone, a car swerves off the road and onto the sidewalk. In order to avoid being hit, Roger jumps into the street. Explain if Roger has broken his mother's rule by its content and by the intent of the rule?
Explain the difference between a lay witness and an expert witness. How should you introduce a witness as an expert?
Dani is being battered to the point of serious bodily injury by an unidentified subject; as a result of this, she draws a legally obtained weapon and open fires on them. Unbeknownst to Dani, she is walking slow and Deputy Xavier is in her line of fire (though she does not see them), and is shot by Dani. Deputy Xavier returns fire, killing Dani. Between Dani and Deputy Xavier, who is justified in their usage of deadly force? 1) Dani 2) Deputy Xavier 3) Both of them 4) Neither of them
Which of these is NOT a reason a judge should dismiss a juror? 1) Conflict of interest 2) Legal competence 3) Potential bias 4) Employment
Which of these questions would you be most likely to object to? 1) where did the crime occur? 2) was there physical contact between the suspect and the victim? 3) was it the defendant who shot the victim and disposed of the murder weapon 4) how many times did the suspect fire their weapon?
On what grounds would you object to your selected question in 14(a)?
What party can walve their presentation of evidence? 1) The plaintiff/prosecution 2) the defense 3) both the plaintiff/prosecution and the defense 4) neither the plaintiff/prosecution nor the defense
The first question is about unlawful declaration of State of Emergency; the rest are related to legal proceedings and ethics.
(1) What can one do when the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergence? Secondly, pick and describe a scenario in which the Governor can legally declare a State of Emergency.
If the Governor unlawfully declares a State of Emergency, individuals can challenge the declaration in court through a lawsuit. They can argue that the Governor exceeded his/her legal authority, and therefore the declaration should be deemed invalid.
(2) Explain the requirements necessary for reasonable suspicion, probable cause, and beyond a reasonable doubt, and provide an example of when each is required.
Reasonable suspicion is a standard required for police officers to conduct a brief, investigatory stop of an individual. It is based on specific, articulable facts that, taken together with rational inferences from those facts, provide reasonable suspicion that the person has committed or is about to commit a crime. An example of when reasonable suspicion is required is when a police officer observes an individual acting suspiciously in a high-crime area and stops them for questioning.
(3)What does it mean to sustain an objection? What does it mean to overrule an objection?
To sustain an objection means that the judge agrees with the objection raised by a party, and therefore the objection is accepted. The judge will usually instruct the jury to disregard the evidence or testimony that was the subject of the objection.
To overrule an objection means that the judge disagrees with the objection raised by a party, and therefore the objection is rejected. The evidence or testimony that was the subject of the objection is allowed to be presented to the jury.
(4) You are representing Kevin, a Firestone State Trooper, in a civil case. The plaintiff, Sarah, is alleging that your client falsely arrested her for an offense she did not commit. During discovery, Sarah presents only a picture of the arrest record from the database. Given that Sarah is not alleging that she was overtimed, what motion could you make during pre-trial and what grounds should you use for the motion? What standards would you have to meet for the motion to be accepted?
You could make a motion for summary judgment during pre-trial, arguing that there is no genuine dispute of material fact and that Kevin is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. The grounds for the motion would be that Sarah has presented no evidence beyond the arrest record to support her claim of false arrest.
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according to the 14th amendment, citizenship is conferred on the basis of place of birth and the process of naturalization. therefore, an individual born in canada to american parents is automatically a u.s. citizen. true or false?
The given statement "according to the 14th amendment, citizenship is conferred on the basis of place of birth and the process of naturalization. therefore, an individual born in canada to american parents is automatically a us. citizen" is True because According to the 14th Amendment to the United States Constitution, all individuals born in the United States or "subject to the jurisdiction thereof" are granted US citizenship. This applies to persons born in the US, regardless of their parents' nationality or citizenship status. Therefore, an individual born in Canada to American parents is automatically a US citizen.
The 14th Amendment was passed in 1868 in the aftermath of the Civil War to protect the rights of the newly freed African American slaves. Section 1 of the Amendment specifically states, “All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside.” In essence, this means that any person born in the US or under US jurisdiction is automatically granted citizenship.
This includes persons born to American citizens outside the US. As long as the parent or parents of the individual were US citizens at the time of their birth, the individual is a US citizen by birth. Therefore, an individual born in Canada to American parents is automatically a US citizen.
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Assume that Iowa has passed a law requiring that motorcycle owners must ensure that anyone riding or operating their motorcycle wear a helmet. Marta enters an Iowa Harley-Davidson store and wants to take a test ride. She doesn't have a helmet with her and the dealership doesn't have one available in her size, so the proprietor lets her go without one. If she crashes and is injured, the proprietor has committed negligence per se.
True or False
The statement "If she crashes and is injured, the proprietor has committed negligence per se" is True. Why is this True? Negligence per se is a legal term that refers to a party being automatically considered negligent because they violated a law or regulation that was established to protect the safety of the public.
When a party breaks a law or rule that was created to protect the safety of the public, it is assumed that they have been careless, and it is typically easier to prove that they were negligent in causing an accident. The given case fits the conditions of negligence per se as the Iowa state requires that anyone riding or operating their motorcycle must wear a helmet.
Since Marta did not wear a helmet while test-riding a motorcycle, which was owned by the proprietor who let her go without one, it could be assumed that the proprietor did not take reasonable care for Marta's safety. Therefore, the proprietor committed negligence per se.
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