which of the following student routines should be in place in order for sustained, silent reading to be an effective literacy practice in the upper elementary
A. Engaging in sustained silent reading for an hour once a week while the teacher reads a book to model engaged reading behaviors
B. Dropping everything and reading several times a week for 30 minutes while the teacher grades papers or prepares instructional materials
C. Reading silently any time independent work has been completed early while the teacher keeps anecdotal records of student behaviors
D. Participating in scaffolded silent reading for 20 minutes every day while the teacher confers with students individually about their reading

Answers

Answer 1

The most effective routine for sustained, silent reading in the upper elementary is Option D: Participating in scaffolded silent reading for 20 minutes every day while the teacher confers with students individually about their reading.

Scaffolded silent reading encourages students to become more engaged readers by providing a structure that allows the teacher to work with students individually and discuss their reading progress.

This type of individualized support gives students a chance to ask questions and receive tailored guidance as they practice their reading skills. By making silent reading a part of the daily routine, students become familiar with the practice and can effectively use it as an independent literacy strategy.

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Related Questions

a developmental psychologists is interested in the effects of social environment on children's language development during infancy and toddlerhood. what is one known variable that he knows will most likely affect child's language development?

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One known variable that affects a child's language development is the number of words they hear at home. Research has shown that the more words children are exposed to at home, the more developed their language skills are.

Language development is the process through which children acquire language from infancy to adolescent age. It includes the development of various aspects such as phonetics, syntax, semantics, morphology, pragmatics, and vocabulary acquisition. The child's environment, interactions, and experiences play a crucial role in shaping their language development.

Research suggests that the quantity and quality of words children hear in their environment have a significant impact on their language development. The number of words children hear at home is one of the most critical environmental factors affecting their language development. Children who hear more words tend to have a more extensive vocabulary and better language skills than children who hear fewer words. This is why a rich, stimulating language environment is crucial to promote healthy language development in children.

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Consider the following argument: "Ned argues that IT employees should be given the raise they were promised. But of course Ned thinks that; he works for IT. I believe we can safely ignore his argument." What fallacy does this argument commit?
a.personal attack
b.attacking the motive
c.look who's talking

Answers

Look at the speaker in this debate. When an argument's fallacy make the conclusion seem true, this mistake is known as asking the question.

What are the three primary categories of fallacies?

The key is to adhere to the erroneous logic's general pattern. The four fallacies include the following: ad hominem (attack the person, not their arguments), false dichotomy, false analogy, and the smoking doctor, which mixes consensum gentium (wisdom of the public) and a call to authority.

What sort of argument follows the Petitio Principii?

(4) The petitio principii fallacy, also referred to as the fallacy of circular argument, occurs when the premises implicitly or explicitly assume the very conclusion that is being shown (for instance, "Gregory always votes intelligently"). But how do you know? ("Because he usually votes Libertarian," I responded).

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the u.s. supreme court can review a state supreme court decision the u.s. supreme court can review a state supreme court decision only if a federal question is involved. True or False

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The statement that the U.S. Supreme Court can review a state supreme court decision only if a federal question is involved is: True.

What is the U.S. Supreme Court?

The Supreme Court of the United States is the highest court in the United States, and it serves as the ultimate arbitrator of federal law. The Supreme Court has ultimate control over all federal and state courts, and it has the power to declare legislation and actions unconstitutional.

The Supreme Court of the United States can review state supreme court decisions, but only if there is a federal question involved. A federal question is a legal issue that arises from federal law or the U.S. Constitution.

If there is no federal question involved, the Supreme Court will not review the decision of a state supreme court. In conclusion, the U.S. Supreme Court can review a state supreme court decision only if a federal question is involved.

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a graduate student is using a statistical method for identifying associations among a large number of variables to reveal more general patterns. they are performing a ____ analysis. a. matrix b. correlation c. trend d. factor

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A graduate student is using a statistical method for identifying associations among a large number of variables to reveal more general patterns. they are performing a (b) correlation analysis.

Correlation analysis is a statistical method used to measure the degree of association between two or more variables. It determines the strength and direction of the linear relationship between variables by calculating a correlation coefficient, which ranges from -1 to 1.

A correlation coefficient of 1 indicates a perfect positive correlation, meaning that the variables are perfectly linearly related and increase or decrease together. A correlation coefficient of -1 indicates a perfect negative correlation, meaning that the variables are perfectly linearly related but move in opposite directions. A correlation coefficient of 0 indicates no linear relationship between the variables.

However, it is important to note that correlation does not imply causation. Just because two variables are highly correlated does not mean that one causes the other. It is important to conduct further analysis to establish a causal relationship between variables.

Therefore, the graduate student is performing a (b) correlation analysis. This type of statistical method is used to identify associations between two or more variables and reveal more general patterns. Correlation analysis is used to measure the strength and direction of the relationship between two or more variables.

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when did jesus’ conflict with the chief priests come to a head? why?

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Jesus' conflict with the chief priests came to a head during the Passover festival in Jerusalem, which is believed to have occurred around 30 AD. Jesus' growing popularity among the people and his teachings.

All four gospels detail Jesus' battle with the top priests, which is a crucial New Testament occurrence (Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John).Jesus' teachings, which questioned the authority of the religious establishment and the conventional interpretation of Jewish law, were the primary cause of the dispute between him and the chief priests.The high priests' authority and control over Jewish religious life was further undermined by Jesus' rising popularity and influence among the populace.The tension between Jesus and the top priests reportedly reached a boiling point during the Passover feast, a significant religious event in Jerusalem, according to the gospels.The multitude welcomed Jesus' arrival in Jerusalem on a donkey, hailing him as a messianic figure. This further infuriated the high priests and increased their worry about Jesus' expanding influence.

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in the context of prioritizing goals, if the items on the behavior never get done, that would be just fine. (true or false)

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The answer is true.

of the four approaches to crime control - deterrence, retribution, incarceration, and rehabilitation - explain which one you feel may be least effective in reducing the crime rate

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Deterrence, retribution, incarceration, and rehabilitation are all approaches to crime control. Of these four approaches, retribution may be the least effective in reducing the crime rate.

What is Retribution?

Retribution is the act of imposing a penalty on someone as vengeance for a wrongdoing or criminal act they have committed, particularly through the legal system. In general, punishment-based solutions such as retribution are less effective in reducing crime rates. When dealing with crime, it is more effective to use methods that focus on addressing the root causes of criminal behavior or preventing it from occurring in the first place, rather than merely punishing the offender after the fact.

Retribution involves punishing the offender for their crime, often with harsh consequences, but does not focus on prevention or rehabilitation. This means that while it may act as a deterrent to some, it does not directly address the root causes of crime, meaning it is less likely to reduce the crime rate than other approaches.

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the struggle to fulfill the promise of america and create a more perfect union will not be easy. it will require hard work, dedication, and a willingness to confront the contradictions and challenges that exist. but it is a struggle that is worth fighting for. and it is a struggle that can only be won through liberalism, through a commitment to individual freedom, equality, and the rule of law

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The quote stresses the need for hard work, dedication, and confronting challenges to achieve the promise of America and create a better future. It calls for a commitment to liberalism, including individual freedom, equality, and the rule of law, to achieve this goal.

The quote emphasizes that the journey towards fulfilling the promise of America and creating a more perfect union requires significant effort, dedication, and the willingness to confront challenges and contradictions. This task is not an easy one, but it is worth fighting for.

The struggle towards achieving this goal can only be achieved through liberalism, which involves the commitment to individual freedom, equality, and the rule of law. It is a call to action, urging people to work towards these values to create a better future for everyone.

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what explains this feeling that matrilineal descent is unnatural since as americans we also recognize that we are descended from one mother and her parents?

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As Americans, we all have descended from one mother and her parents. The feeling that matrilineal descent is unnatural might stem from the fact that it is less common in American culture

Matrilineal descent

The feeling that matrilineal descent is unnatural might stem from the fact that it is less common in American culture. While most Americans are indeed descended from one mother and her parents, family lineage in the US is usually traced through the father's side. This can lead to the perception that matrilineal descent is unusual or unnatural.

However, matrilineal descent is actually a common feature in many cultures around the world. Some examples of cultures that use matrilineal descent include Khasi people of Northeast IndiaMinangkabau people of IndonesiaJewish peopleOneida people of upstate New York.

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which schedule of reinforcement involves reinforcement being given for the first correct response made after a varied amount of time has passed since the last reinforced response?

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The type of reinforcement that involves reinforcement being given for the first correct response made after a varied amount of time has passed since the last reinforced response is called a variable interval schedule of reinforcement.

What is a variable interval schedule of reinforcement?

The variable interval schedule of reinforcement is a reinforcement schedule that rewards a behavior after a random amount of time has passed. A variable interval schedule of reinforcement is one in which the interval of time between the reinforced response and the next potential reinforcement is unpredictable. The interval duration is not constant, which means that the first response after a random time interval is reinforced.

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Kira just moved apartments and had to get a new TV. Everytime she goes to turn the volume up she accidentally hits the button on the left side of the remote. On her old remote the volume button was on the left side of the remote. On her new remote, the volume button is actually on the right side of the remote. Everytime she accidentally hits the button on the left side of the new remote, what type of memory error is she committing?

Answers

Muscle memory, I think. Muscle memory is a type of memory your brain gains after a long time of doing it in a repeated manner.

which of these concepts is not particularly important to understanding the theory of concertive control? a. framing b. discipline c. control d. identification

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The concept that is not particularly important to understanding the theory of concertive control is framing. The correct answer is option a. framing.

Framing Identification Control Discipline:

Framing refers to the way in which individuals make sense of the world. It is a cognitive process that shapes how people view their experiences. Framing is important to the theory of concertive control because it determines how employees perceive the norms, values, and beliefs that are shared by their peers. This understanding helps them to regulate their behavior accordingly.

Control refers to the process of regulating employee behavior within a workplace. It is important to the theory of concertive control because it shows how employees monitor and enforce these shared norms, values, and beliefs. Control is achieved through peer pressure and informal sanctions.

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which reformer is correctly paired with her accomplishments?responsesalice paulalice paulflorence kelleyflorence kelleyida tarbellida tarbellcarrie chapman catt

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The reformer is correctly paired with her accomplishments such as:

A: Alice Paul: Instrumental in securing women's right to vote in the United States.

B: Florence Kelley: Fought for labor rights and the abolition of child labor.

C: Ida Tarbell: Exposed unethical business practices of the Standard Oil Company.

D: Carrie Chapman Catt: Instrumental in securing the 19th Amendment and founder of the League of Women Voters.

Alice Paul: Alice Paul was a women's rights activist who was instrumental in securing women's right to vote in the United States. She co-founded the National Women's Party and organized a series of protests, including the Silent Sentinels, to draw attention to the suffrage movement. She was also involved in drafting the Equal Rights Amendment.

Florence Kelley: Florence Kelley was a social reformer who fought for labor rights and the abolition of child labor. She was a prominent member of the National Consumers League and worked to improve working conditions for women and children.

Ida Tarbell: Ida Tarbell was an investigative journalist and muckraker who exposed the unethical business practices of the Standard Oil Company, which ultimately led to the breakup of the company. Her reporting helped to spark public awareness of the need for corporate regulation.

Carrie Chapman Catt: Carrie Chapman Catt was a women's suffrage leader who was instrumental in securing the 19th Amendment, which granted women the right to vote. She was also the founder of the League of Women Voters, which encouraged women to become informed and engaged in the political process.

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Suggest ONE strategy that families can put into place to help improve the well-being of their family member who lost their job. ​

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A strategy that families can put into place to help improve the well-being of their family member who lost their job is to provide emotional and practical support.

How can emotional and practical support improve the well-being of their family member?

Losing a job can be a stressful and traumatic experience that can lead to feelings of isolation, depression, and anxiety. Family members can help by providing emotional support, listening to their loved one's concerns, and encouraging them to seek professional help if needed.

Families can also provide practical support, such as helping their loved one update their resume, search for job opportunities, and connect with potential employers. Additionally, families can encourage their loved one to engage in activities that promote well-being, such as exercise, socializing with friends and family, and pursuing hobbies and interests.

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Reasons why grade 11s could experience positive changes within friendship due to their renewed focus on academics

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Answer:

Reasons why grade 11s could experience positive changes within friendship due to their renewed focus on academics

Explanation:

Grade 11s may experience positive changes within their friendships due to their renewed focus on academics for several reasons:

Shared goals: When students in a friend group all focus on their academics, they share a common goal. This can create a sense of solidarity and camaraderie among friends, which can strengthen their bond.

Reduced distractions: As students become more focused on their studies, they may spend less time engaging in activities that could be a distraction, such as partying or socializing excessively. This can result in more meaningful and focused time spent with friends.

Improved communication skills: Focusing on academics may require students to improve their communication skills with teachers and peers. These skills can then be applied to their interactions with friends, resulting in clearer and more positive communication within the friendship.

Better time management: By prioritizing academics, students may become better at managing their time effectively. This could lead to more opportunities to spend time with friends, and for more meaningful interactions when they do spend time together.

Overall, a renewed focus on academics in grade 11 can provide an opportunity for students to strengthen their friendships through shared goals, improved communication, and better time management.

T or F: Savvy bureaucrats design and manage their programs to build support in Congress by producing widely distributed local benefits even when their main purpose is generating diffuse national benefits.

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Savvy bureaucrats design and manage their programs to build support in Congress by producing widely distributed local benefits even when their main purpose is generating diffuse national benefits. The statement is True.

Who are the savvy bureaucrats?

Bureaucrats who are skilled, knowledgeable, and sophisticated are known as savvy bureaucrats. They have extensive experience and knowledge of the bureaucratic process, which they use to influence decision-making and policy outcomes.

Savvy bureaucrats also understand the significance of building support in Congress, as this can have a significant impact on the success of their programs.

This is done to encourage support from local legislators who can advocate for the programs in Congress. This approach has proven to be effective for savvy bureaucrats in terms of gaining support for their programs.

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what type of study design should be used to investigate an exposure that is relatively uncommon, but a source of exposed individuals is available?

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When investigating an exposure that is relatively uncommon, but a source of exposed individuals is available, a case-control study design may be appropriate.

In a case-control study, individuals who have the outcome of interest (cases) are compared to individuals who do not have the outcome (controls) in terms of their exposure to the risk factor of interest. This study design is particularly useful when the outcome of interest is rare or uncommon, and the risk factor may not be easily identifiable or measurable.

In this scenario, individuals who have been exposed to the rare risk factor can be identified from the available source, and compared to a group of unexposed individuals. This can help to determine whether the exposure is associated with the outcome of interest, and to estimate the strength of this association. Case-control studies can be conducted relatively quickly and inexpensively, and can provide valuable information about the relationship between an exposure and an outcome. However, they are also subject to various biases, and the results may not be generalizable to the broader population.

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458. Which of the following intelligence communities is responsible for providing intelligence support inareas such as human factors analysis, counterterrorism, personal recovery, and noncombatantevacuation operations?
a)Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)
b)National Security Agency (NSA)
c)Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
d)Central Security Service (CSS)

Answers

The Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) is responsible for providing intelligence support in areas such as human factors analysis, counterterrorism, personal recovery, and noncombatant evacuation operations. (A)

The DIA is a combat support agency and an important member of the United States Intelligence Community. It provides intelligence support to the Department of Defense, the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the Military Services, and combatant commands. (A)

It focuses on foreign military intelligence and provides support for noncombatant evacuation operations, counterintelligence, and counterterrorism.

Additionally, it provides human factors analysis and personal recovery operations, as well as research, analysis, and production in multiple disciplines such as counterintelligence, signals intelligence, and measurement and signature intelligence.

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according to abraham maslow, people are motivated through: please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. a hierarchy of needs. kinesthesis. drive-reduction. instincts.

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According to Abraham Maslow, people are motivated through a hierarchy of needs. The correct option is a hierarchy of needs.

Abraham Maslow and hierarchy of needs

Abraham Maslow developed the hierarchy of needs, which is a theory that explains human motivation and behavior. Maslow suggested that human needs could be organized into a hierarchical system, with basic physiological needs, such as hunger and thirst, at the bottom of the hierarchy, followed by safety needs, social needs, self-esteem needs, and self-actualization needs.

Maslow suggested that people were motivated by the need to fulfill these needs, and they would move up the hierarchy as they achieved each level of need.

In conclusion, the correct option is ''a hierarchy of needs.''

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what rock produced by solidification of molten material, either lava or magma is called?

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The rock produced by the solidification of molten material, either lava or magma, is called an igneous rock.

Igneous rocks are one of the three main types of rocks, the others being sedimentary and metamorphic rocks. They are formed when magma or lava cools and solidifies, either on the Earth's surface or beneath it. Igneous rocks can be classified based on their mineral composition, texture, and the environment in which they were formed. They can range from fine-grained rocks, such as basalt, to coarse-grained rocks, such as granite. Igneous rocks have important uses in many areas, including construction, as decorative stones, and as sources of metals and minerals.

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camille knew that her boss was going to be furious when he learned that she hadn't met her sales quota. rather than face his ire, she quickly arranged a business trip that so she would be out of the office for several days and hoped he'd have cooled off when she returned. which style of conflict resolution is camille using?

Answers

Camille knew that her boss would be furious if he found out that she had not met her sales quota. Rather than facing his anger, she quickly arranged a business trip so she would be out of the office for several days and hoped he would have cooled off when she returned. The style of conflict resolution that Camille is utilizing is Avoidance.

Avoidance is a conflict resolution style in which people choose not to engage in conflict. Conflict avoidance can take many forms, from physically leaving a situation to silently agreeing to disagree. Conflict avoidance is sometimes seen as a bad thing because it can result in unresolved conflicts that linger and resurface later, but it can also be helpful when temporary conflict avoidance is the best way to allow time for emotions to cool before a more productive conversation takes place. Therefore, the style of conflict resolution that Camille is using is Avoidance.

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dr. angelos is interested in studying factors that affect athletic achievement, such as skill learning, the personality profiles of champion athletes, and the effects of spectators. dr. angelos is most likely a(n) psychologist.

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Dr. Angelos is most likely a(n) SPORT psychologist.

Sports psychology is the study of how psychological variables influence performance, and it is a branch of psychology that focuses on athletes, coaches, and sports organizations' mental and emotional facets. Sports psychology, often known as performance psychology, examines how various psychological factors, such as motivation and anxiety, affect performance. Sports psychology can also help individuals learn how to cope with the pressures that come with being an athlete and improve their overall well-being.

A sports psychologist's primary responsibility is to work with athletes and teams to help them develop the psychological skills required to perform effectively in their sport. Among the responsibilities of a sports psychologist are the following:

Teach athletes how to regulate their emotions, improve their focus, and handle the pressures of competitionAssist athletes in developing the self-confidence necessary to succeed in their sportAssist athletes in dealing with and overcoming any anxiety that may arise from athletic competition or injuryHelp athletes establish goals and create mental toughness strategies to help them achieve their objectivesImprove athletes' team cohesion and communication, as well as their general mental and emotional health

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a behavior pattern that is not excessively competitive and has no free-floating hostility or sense of time urgency is called the .

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A behavior pattern that is not excessively competitive and has no free-floating hostility or sense of time urgency is called the Type B personality.

Type B personality is the behavior pattern that is not excessively competitive and has no free-floating hostility or sense of time urgency. Type B personality is one of the personality types that were initially identified by cardiologists in the 1950s as a risk factor for heart disease. In comparison to Type A personality, Type B personality is more easy-going, relaxed, patient, and tolerant. Therefore, the answer is Type B personality.

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Some epidemiological studies, using instruments like the Dissociative Experiences Questionnaire (DEQ), have reported high rates of dissociative symptoms, but these studies are viewed skeptically becausea.dissociative symptoms cannot be measured based on self-reports.b.the symptoms measured by the DEQ are far less dramatic than those found in dissociative disorders.c.there is no agreement as to what dissociative symptoms should be measured.d.people with real dissociative disorders are not able to complete the DEQ.

Answers

The correct answer is B. the symptoms measured by the DEQ are far less dramatic than those found in dissociative disorders.

Dissociative symptoms can be classified into many categories like dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization disorder, derealization disorder, etc. Several epidemiological studies using instruments like the Dissociative Experiences Questionnaire (DEQ) have reported high rates of dissociative symptoms. But these studies are viewed skeptically because the symptoms measured by the DEQ are far less dramatic than those found in dissociative disorders.

Dissociative experiences refer to the temporary disconnection from self or surroundings, usually as a result of severe trauma, stress, or abuse. Dissociative symptoms are usually not the primary diagnosis, but they occur in many disorders, such as dissociative identity disorder, borderline personality disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Dissociative experiences can be measured using self-reporting questionnaires like the Dissociative Experiences Questionnaire.

The DEQ comprises 28 items that assess the dissociative experiences of individuals. The DEQ is a widely used instrument for measuring dissociative experiences in different populations. It is a useful tool for measuring the presence of dissociative symptoms in the general population, but the severity and duration of dissociative symptoms in individuals with dissociative disorders are far more pronounced than the symptoms measured by the DEQ. Therefore, the answer to this question is option B.

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the president’s role as chief diplomat is derived from

Answers

It is derived from the constitution. Section 2
The President of the United States, in Article II, Section 2 of the Constitution, is given the power to negotiate with foreign governments and appoint ambassadors. These responsibilities make the President the Chief Diplomat of the United States

how many customers does wal-mart serve globally in one week?

Answers

According to Walmart's annual report for fiscal year 2022, the company serves more than 265 million customers each week across its various stores, websites, and mobile apps globally.

Walmart is a multinational retail corporation based in Bentonville, Arkansas, that operates a chain of discount department stores, hypermarkets, and grocery stores. The company was founded in 1962 by Sam Walton and has grown to become the largest retailer in the world by revenue and the largest private employer in the world, with over 2.3 million employees.

Walmart's business model is focused on offering low prices to its customers through a combination of operational efficiencies, large-scale purchasing power, and innovative supply chain management.

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based on the information in the excerpt, how are the perceptions of the two groups in conflict in south sudan impacting the region?

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Sudan's conflict between African and Muslim groups led to civil wars, instability and economic issues.

A peace agreement in 2005 granted semi-autonomous status to South Sudan and a referendum led to its independence in 2011.

The perceptions of the two groups in conflict in South Sudan, namely the predominantly African cultures who tend to adhere to Christian or animist beliefs in the south and the largely Muslim and Arab northern government, have led to a lengthy civil war (1955-72) and a second civil war (1983-2005). The conflict continued until the Comprehensive Peace Agreement in 2005 granted southern Sudan semiautonomous status and stipulated a referendum on independence for the region. Despite some obstacles, the referendum was held in 2011, and the results indicated the south's overwhelming preference to secede, leading to the country of South Sudan declaring independence on July 9, 2011.

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The information missing in the question is written below:

South Sudan, also called Southern Sudan, country located in northeastern Africa. Its rich biodiversity includes lush savannas, swamplands, and rainforests that are home to many species of wildlife. Prior to 2011, South Sudan was part of Sudan, its neighbour to the north. South Sudan’s population, predominantly African cultures who tend to adhere to Christian or animist beliefs, was long at odds with Sudan’s largely Muslim and Arab northern government. South Sudan’s capital is Juba.

South Sudan was settled by many of its current ethnic groups during the 15th–19th centuries. After the Sudan region was invaded in 1820 by Muḥammad ʿAlī, viceroy of Egypt under the Ottoman Empire, the southern Sudan was plundered for slaves. By the end of the 19th century the Sudan was under British-Egyptian rule. Although the north accepted British rule relatively quickly, there was greater resistance in the south. Because of this, British energies in the north were free to be directed toward modernization efforts, whereas in the south they were more focused on simply maintaining order, leading to a dichotomy of development between north and south that continued for several decades. After Sudan became independent in 1956, numerous governments over the years found it difficult to win general acceptance from the country’s diverse political constituencies, especially in the south. An early conflict arose between those northern leaders who hoped to impose the vigorous extension of Islamic law and culture to all parts of the country and those who opposed this policy. The latter group included the majority of southern Sudan’s population, many of whom were already up in arms over fears that the south would be further marginalized by the northern-based government; those fears led to a lengthy civil war (1955–72). The Addis Ababa Agreement of 1972 ended the conflict only temporarily, and in the next decade widespread fighting resumed with the second civil war (1983–2005).

Numerous discussions, cease-fires, and agreements between southern leaders and their northern counterparts occurred but yielded very little success until the 2005 Comprehensive Peace Agreement (CPA), which ended warfare and generated an outline of new measures to share power, distribute wealth, and provide security in Sudan. Significantly, it also granted southern Sudan semiautonomous status and stipulated that a referendum on independence for the region would be held in six years. Despite some obstacles, the eagerly awaited referendum did take place: a weeklong vote on independence for southern Sudan was held January 9–15, 2011, with the results indicating the south’s overwhelming preference to secede. The country of South Sudan declared independence on July 9, 2011.

Which of the following audit opinions would most likely be issued if the financial statements are materially misstated due to a misstatement in one particular account balance?
a. Disclaimer
b. Unqualified
c. Adverse
d. Qualified

Answers

The audit opinion that would most likely be issued if the financial statements are materially misstated due to a misstatement in one particular account balance is qualified. Option D is the correct option.

A qualified audit opinion is a type of audit report in which the auditor has limitations that lead them to express reservations on some aspect of the audited financial statements. This indicates that while the financial statements are fairly presented, there was an issue that needed to be addressed by the auditee. The most common situation is when the auditor disagrees with an accounting policy or a specific estimation used in preparing the financial statements. In other words, the audit report is qualified when the financial statements are true and correct except for a specific material item, which is stated in the report itself.

Therefore, if the financial statements are materially misstated due to a misstatement in one particular account balance, the audit opinion that would most likely be issued is a qualified opinion. The opinion letter would state that except for the misstatement, the financial statements are fairly presented, and the auditor expresses an opinion that is qualified as to the effect of the misstatement on the financial statements.

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just prior to performing a compulsive action, a small majority of individuals with ocd experience feelings of .

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Before performing a compulsive action, a slight majority of individuals with OCD often experience anxiety, tension, and dread.


Prior to performing a compulsive action, a small majority of individuals with OCD experience feelings of anxiety. A small majority of individuals with OCD experience feelings of anxiety prior to performing a compulsive action.

OCD stands for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, and it is a type of anxiety disorder. It has two components, as the name suggests: obsessions and compulsions.

OCD manifests as unwanted, recurrent thoughts, pictures, or impulses (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) that aim to decrease or eliminate anxiety created by habits.

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how many countries sell coca-cola beverages around the world?

Answers

Coca-Cola is one of the most widely recognized and consumed beverages in the world, and it is sold in over 200 countries worldwide.

The exact number may vary slightly due to political and economic factors, but it is safe to say that Coca-Cola is widely available and enjoyed in most countries around the globe.

Coca-Cola is a carbonated soft drink that is one of the most popular and recognizable brands in the world. The drink was invented in 1886 by John Pemberton in Atlanta, Georgia, and was initially marketed as a tonic that could cure a variety of ailments. The original recipe contained cocaine, which was later removed in the early 1900s, and the drink now contains caffeine, high fructose corn syrup, and various other flavorings and ingredients.

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