Be careful of the wire size application chart you use, because many of them allow up to a ____ voltage drop over the length of the wire, which is more than is allowed in most automotive circuits. Group of answer choices

Answer:

1) The density of the object = 2500 kg/m³

2) The density of the oil = 1250 kg/m³

Explanation:

1) The information relating to the question are;

The mass of the object in air = 0.250 kgf

The mass of the object in water = 0.150 kgf

The mass of the object in the oil  = 0.125 kgf

By Archimedes's principle, we have;

The upthrust on the object in water = Mass in air - mass in water = The weight of the water displaced

The upthrust on the object in water = 0.250 - 0.150 = 0.1 kgf

∴ The weight of the water displaced = 0.1 kgf

Given that the object is completely immersed in the water, we have;

The volume of the water displaced = The volume of the object

The volume of 0.1 kg of water water displaced = Mass of the water/(Density of water)

The volume of 0.1 kg of water = 0.1/1000 = 0.0001 m³

The density of the object = (Mass in air)/ volume = 0.250/0.0001 = 2500 kg/m³

The density of the object = 2500 kg/m³

2) Whereby the mass of the object in the oil = 0.125 kgf

The upthrust of the oil = The weight of the oil displaced

The upthrust of the oil on the object = Mass of the object in air - mass of the object in the oil

The upthrust of the oil on the object = 0.250 - 0.125 = 0.125 kgf

The weight of the oil displaced = The upthrust of the oil

Given that the volume of the oil displaced = The volume of the oil, we have;

The volume of the oil displaced = 0.0001 m³

The mass of the 0.0001 m³ = 0.125 kg

Therefore the density of the oil = 0.125/0.0001 = 1250 kg/m³.

The density of the oil = 1250 kg/m³.

Answer: React with the skin

Explanation:

lab safety test Safety goggles and an apron must be worn when handling chemicals labeled corrosive because they React with the skin

Answer:

47.17 m

Explanation:

From the diagram of the question attached, The length of the legs are 25 m and 40 m . This legs form a right angle triangle with the length of the swimming course (L).

Pythagoras theorem states that for a right angle triangle with hypotenuse a and legs b and c, then:

a² = b² + c²

In the triangle, the length of the swimming course (L) is the hypotenuse and the two legs are 25 m and 40 m. Using Pythagoras:

L² = 25² + 40²

L² = 625 + 1600

L² = 2225

L = √2225

L = 47.17 m

Answer:

The volume of the cavity is 0.013m^3

Explanation:

To find the volume of the cavity, the major parameter missing is the diameter of the cavity itself. we can obtain this using the following steps:

Step one:

Obtain the volume of the cylinder by dividing the mass of the cylinder by the density.

Volume of the cylinder = 2.1 / 11.053 =0.19[tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Step two:

From the volume of the cylinder, we can get the radius of the cylinder.

[tex]radius = \sqrt{\frac{V}{\pi \times h}} = \sqrt{\frac{0.19}{\pi \times 0.32}} =0.44m[/tex]

Step three:

From the cross-sectional area, we can obtain the radius of the cavity.

Let the radius of the cavity be = r, while the radius of the cylinder be = R

CSA of cavity =

[tex]\pi({R^2}-r^2) = CSA\\0.65 = \pi (0.32^2-r^2)\\r= 0.115m[/tex]

Step Four:

calculate the volume of the cavity using volume =[tex]\pi r^2 \times h[/tex]

Recall that the cavity has the same height as the original cylinder

[tex]volume = \pi \times 0.115^2\times 0.32= 0.013m^3[/tex]

Answer:

H = 0.06 kWh

Explanation:

Given that,

Power of an electric lamp, P = 60 W

Voltage, V = 240 V

It is operated for 1 hour

We need to find the heat generated by the lamp. Heat generated is given by :

[tex]H=P\times t\\\\H=60\ W\times 1\ h\\\\H=60\ Wh\\\\H=0.06\ kWh[/tex]

So, 0.06 kWh of the heat is generated by the lamp.

Answer:

a)0.51°

b)1.47×10^-4m

Explanation:

a)for a single slit experiment, the minima that has an angle of θ towards the centre needs to satisfy the expression below.

bsin(θ)= mλ.........................(*)

Where b= width of the slit

The distance on the screen from Central angle can be expressed as

Sin(θ)= y/d............. (**)

d and y is the horizontal distance between slit and screen

If we input eqn(**) into equation (*) we have

y= mλd/b................(z)

In order to find angle (θ) we have

(θ)= sin-(1.99×10^-2)/2.25

= 0.51°

Therefore, angle of diffraction θ of the second minimum is 0.51°

b)to find the width of the sloth using eqn(z) by substitute the values, we have

b= (2)(649×10^-9)(2.25)/1.99×10^-2

b= 1.47×10^-4m

Therefore, the width of the slit is 1.47×10^-4m

Answer:

Given that;

Number of turns in the solenoid N = 310

Length of the solenoid L = 18 cm = 0.18 m

Radius of the solenoid r = 1.60 cm = 0.016 m

Current in the first Circuit I₁ = 1.90A

Number of turns in second coil N₂ = 4

Final Current solenoid I₂ = 5.0 A

Time interval to change the time Δt = 0.9 s

a)

According to Ampere's law, magnetic field inside a conductor is calculated as;

B₁ = ц₀N₁I₁ / L

(ц₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷  constant)

therefore we substitute

{(4π × 10⁻⁷) ×  310 × 1.9A} / 0.18m

= 0.0041 T

b)

Magnetic field inside the solenoid after t = 0.9

B₁ = ц₀N₁I₂ / L

= {(4π × 10⁻⁷) ×  310 × 5.0A} / 0.18m

= 0.0108 T

c)

Area of coil is

A = πr²

A = π ×  ( 0.016 )²

A = 0.000804 m²

d)

Change in magnetic influx is

dФ = (B₂ - B₁) A

= ( 0.0108 T - 0.0041 T) × 0.000804 m²

= 0.0000053868 ≈ 5.39 × 10⁻⁶

e)

Average induced emf is

e = -N₂ ( dФ / dt )

e = ( -4 ) ( 5.39 × 10⁻⁶ / 0.9)

e = - 2.39 × 10⁻⁵V ( NOTE, this is not equal to the instantaneous induced emf )

f)

The induced emf is very low, so the contributions to the magnetic field in the coil is Negative.

Answer:

13.4 m/s

Explanation:

Given:

Δx = 20 m

v₀ = 10 m/s

a = 2 m/s²

Find: v

v² = v₀² + 2aΔx

v² = (10 m/s)² + 2 (2 m/s²) (20 m)

v = 13.4 m/s

Answer:

A. It is always a positive force

Explanation:

Hooke's law describes the relation between an applied force and extension ability of an elastic material. The law states that provided the elastic limit, e, of a material is not exceeded, the force, F, applied is proportional to the extension, x, provided temperature is constant.

i.e F = - kx

where k is the constant of proportionality, and the minus sign implies that the force is a restoring force.

The applied force can either be compressing or stretching force.

Answer:

40085 Hz

Explanation:

We are given; Sound frequency emmision of bat;f = 38.9 kHz = 38900 Hz

Bat is moving at 0.015 times the speed of sound in air.

Speed of sound in air = 343 m/s

The formula for waves reflected off the wall is calculated from Doppler equation as:

f' = f(v + v_d)/(v - v_s)

Where;

f is the frequency = 38900 Hz

f' is the detected frequency,

v_d is the velocity of the detector = 0.015 × 343 = 5.145

v_s is the velocity of the source = 0.015 × 343 = 5.145 m/s

v is the velocity of the sound = 343 m/s

Thus;

f' = 38900(343 + 5.145)/(343 - 5.145)

f' ≈ 40085 Hz

Answer:

Water waves are an example of waves that involve a combination of both longitudinal and transverse motions. As a wave travels through the waver, the particles travel in clockwise circles. The radius of the circles decreases as the depth into the water increases.

Answer:

I assume its c. Since its talking about testing.

Explanation:

Answer:

The answer is test of durability

Explanation:

This question is incomplete; here is the complete question:

Marco is conducting an experiment. He knows the wave that he is working with has a wavelength of 32.4 cm. If he measures the frequency as 3 hertz, which statement about the wave is accurate?

A. The wave has traveled 32.4 cm in 3 seconds.

B. The wave has traveled 32.4 cm in 9 seconds.

C. The wave has traveled 97.2 cm in 3 seconds.

D. The wave has traveled 97.2 cm in 1 second.

The answer to this question is D. The wave has traveled 97.2 cm in 1 second.

Explanation:

The frequency of a wave, which is in this case 3 hertz, represents the number of waves that go through a point during 1 second. According to this, if the frequency of the wave is 3 hertz this means in 1 second there were 3 waves. Moreover, if you multiply the wavelength (32.4cm) by the frequency (3) you will know the distance the wave traveled in 1 second: 32.4 x 3 =  97.2 cm. This makes option D the correct one as the distance in 1 second was 97.2 cm.

Answer:Is D!

Explanation:TEAT(Sorry) -_-*

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{0}[/tex]

Explanation:

Momentum is the measure of mass in motion.

[tex]\sf momentum = mass \times velocity[/tex]

An object at rest has a velocity of 0.

[tex]p=mv[/tex]

[tex]p = 25 \times 0[/tex]

[tex]p=0[/tex]

The momentum of an object at rest is always 0.

Answer:

Well if they playing a game like that

Answer:

27.34 (no unit)

Explanation:

26.975*82.33%+29.018*17.67%

=27.34

Answer:

Explanation:

a) From the diagram, the load will be expressed in newton. The load will be the weight of the box on the inclined plane.

Load = mass * acceleration due to gravity.

Given the mass of the object = 100kg

acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m/s²

Load (in Newton) = 100*9.8

Load (in Newton) = 980N

b) The formula for calculating the velocity ratio of an inclined plane is expressed as VR = 1/sinθ where θ is the angle of inclination.

Given θ = 30°,

VR = 1/sin30°

VR = 1/0.5

VR = 1/(1/2)

VR = 1* 2/1

VR = 2

The velocity ratio is 2.

c) Length of the inclined plane can be calculated using the SOH, CAH, TOA trigonometry identity.

According to SOH, sinθ = opposite/hypotenuse

sin30°  = 1/2 = opp/hyp

This shows that the opposite side of the triangle is 1 and the hypotenuse is 2. The length if the inclined is the length of the longest side i.e the hypotenuse. Hence the length of the inclined plane is 2m

d) Mechanical Advantage is the ratio of the load to the effort applied on an object.

Given the Load = 980N and the effort applied to the load on the incline plane = 400N

MA = Load/Effort

MA = 980/400

MA = 2.45

e) Efficiency = MA/VR * 100

Efficiency = 2.45/2 * 100

Efficiency  = 122.5%

Answer:

17.15 m

Explanation:

Assuming the well is empty (full of air instead of water), the speed of sound is v = 343 m/s.

The water well acts as a pipe closed at one end.  Therefore, the depth of the water well must be an odd multiple of a quarter of the resonant wavelength.

L = (2n − 1) λ/4, n = 1, 2, 3, etc.

v = λf, so λ = v/f.  Substituting:

L = (2n − 1) v/(4f)

Solving for frequency:

f = (2n − 1) v/(4L)

The difference between two successive resonant frequencies is therefore:

Δf = (2(n+1) − 1) v/(4L) − (2n − 1) v/(4L)

Δf = (2n + 1) v/(4L) − (2n − 1) v/(4L)

Δf = 2 v/(4L)

Δf = v/(2L)

Plugging in values:

50 Hz − 40 Hz = 343 m/s / (2L)

2L = 34.3 m

L = 17.15 m

Answer:

  2.4583 ± 0.0207 seconds

Explanation:

The time period of a pendulum is approximately given by the formula ...

  T = 2π√(L/g)

The maximum period will be achieved when length is longest and gravity is smallest:

  Tmax = 2π√(1.51/9.7) ≈ 2.47903 . . . seconds

The minimum period will be achieved for the opposite conditions: minimum length and maximum gravity:

  Tmin = 2π√(1.49/9.9) ≈ 2.43756 . . . seconds

If we want to express the uncertainty using a symmetrical range, we need to find half their sum and half their difference.

  T = (2.47903 +2.43756)/2 ± (2.47903 -2.43756)/2

  T ≈ 2.4583 ± 0.0207 . . . seconds

__

We have about 2+ significant digits in the given parameters, so the time might be rounded to 2.46±0.02 seconds.

Answer:

The first answer is W and Z, since they appear to be a period apart. Dont know the second question. I did what I could, hope someone can answer the second.

Answer:

[tex]\Large \boxed{\mathrm{5.67 \ seconds }}[/tex]

Explanation:

[tex]\displaystyle \mathrm{acceleration \ = \ \frac{final \ velocity - initial \ velocity }{elapsed \ time}}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle A \ = \ \frac{V_f - V_i }{t}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle 3 \ = \ \frac{25 - 8 }{t}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle 3 \ = \ \frac{17 }{t}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle t \ = \ \frac{17 }{3} \approx 5.67[/tex]

Answer:

Answer:

The answer  is The acceleration is double its original value.

Explanation:

Hope this helps....

Have a nice day!!!!

Answer:

The acceleration is half of its original value

Explanation:

Answer:

first part the skater goes down a constant slope ramp, initially he has Newton's second law

pply Newton's third law, the normal is the reaction to the support of the body on the surface

the ramp shoots off.  axis becomes zero and therefore with Newton's first law its speed

Explanation:

It is the description of this movement let's write Newton's laws.

* The first law that a body goes at constant speed or zero if the sum of the external forces is zero

* the second law is F = m a

* The third law states that the forces act in pairs of equal magnitude and opposite direction, one applied to each body.

Let's apply these laws to our case

In the first part the skater goes down a constant slope ramp, initially he has Newton's second law when he accelerates from the initial velocity of zero to a terminal velocity.

The expression for this is

             Wₓ - fr = ma

             W sin θ - μ W cos θ = m a

             W = mg

             g (sin θ - μ cos) = a

the value of the coefficient of kinetic friction depends on the condition of the surface, dry, wet or muddy

This is Newton's second law

On the Y axis, which is perpendicular to the ramp we have

            N- [tex]W_{y}[/tex] = 0

If we apply Newton's third law, the normal is the reaction to the support of the body on the surface, note that it can be different from the weight.

In the second part when he is on the ramp.

In the ramp the skater enters with a speed v, suppose that the ramp has an incline so that the skater can jump, in this case the angle is positive with respect to the axis x

In this case the analysis is similar to the previous one

Newton's second law gives the acceleration of the skater, who when he reaches the end of the ramp shoots off.

 At this point the force in the x (horizontal) axis becomes zero and therefore with Newton's first law its speed this axis remains constant and the force in the y axis is the force of gravity and has an acceleration that changes if velocity according to Newton's second law

Answer:look at explanations

Explanation:

Answer:

answer is B

Explanation:

Acc. to Ohm's Law:

V = I.R and therefore R=( V/I )

For line A, R = 6/2 = 3

line B, R = 4/2 = 2 ( for all the points plotted on this line the ratio of V and I is 2)

Line C = 2/2 = 1

Line D < 1

Hence, the correct answer is Line B :-)

Explanation:

Volume is the amount of space an object takes up, while mass is the amount of matter in an object. ... To find the volume of an irregular sized object, one would use the displacement method for measuring volume and place the object in water and measure the amount of water that is displaced.

Answer:

To measure the volume of an irregularly shaped object, pour some water in a measuring cylinder. Then suspend the irregularly shaped object with a thread. After that , move the object gradually downwards and immerse it in water. The volume of the irregularly shaped object is the difference between the volume of the liquid before and after. After measuring the difference, we come to know about the volume of the irregularly shaped object.

Answer:

1. direction of propagation of sound

2.medium through which sound trsnsmitted

Answer:

HELLO BELOW IS THE ATTACHED DIAGRAM USED TO ANSWER YOUR QUESTION AS IT WAS MISSING

A) 1270⁰c

B) 65%

C) 1320⁰c

D)  62%

Explanation:

Nickel alloy composition : 50 wt% Ni - 50 wt%

initial temperature = 1200⁰c = 2190⁰F

A) The temperature at which the first liquid phase form

from the attached diagram the temperature at which the first liquid if formed is 1270⁰c ( at point 2 )

B ) The composition of this liquid phase ( THE FIRST LIQUID )

the composition is found at point 3

wt % of Nickel = 35%, wt% of copper = 100 - 35 = 65%

C ) The temperature at which the alloy melts completely

from the attached diagram the temperature = 1320⁰c ( point 4 )

D)  The composition of the last solid remaining prior to complete melting

this can be gotten at point 5 and calculated as

wt % of Ni = 62%

wt % of Cu = 100 - 62 = 38%

Answer:

kinetic and potential