Answer:
NPV = $3,013,537.02
IRR = 20.15%
Explanation:
initial investment $19,500,000
sales revenue per year:
year 1 = 76,000 x $420 = $31,920,000
year 2 = 89,000 x $420 = $37,380,000
year 3 = 108,750 x $420 = $45,675,000
year 4 = 101,500 x $420 = $42,630,000
year 5 = 68,800 x $420 = $28,896,000
change in net working capital:
year 0 = $2,250,000
year 1 = ($37,380,000 - $31,920,000) x 0.2 = $1,092,000
year 2 = ($45,675,000 - $37,380,000) x 0.2 = $1,659,000
year 3 = ($42,630,000 - $45,675,000) x 0.2 = -$609,000
year 4 = ($28,896,000 - $42,630,000) x 0.2 = -$2,746,800
year 5 = -$1,646,000
fixed costs = $4,700,000
contribution margin per unit = $420 - $270 = $150 per unit
resale value at the end of year 5 = $3,900,000
MACRS depreciation 7 year property:
year % depreciation expense
1 14.29% $2,786,550
2 24.49% $4,775,550
3 17.49% $3,410,550
4 12.29% $2,396,550
5 6.44%* $1,255,800*
*net of resale value
net cash flow year 0 = -$19,500,000 - $2,250,000 = -$21,750,000
net cash flow year 1 = [($11,400,000 - $4,700,000 - $2,786,550) x 0.75] + $2,786,550 - $1,092,000 = $4,629,637.50
net cash flow year 2 = [($13,350,000 - $4,700,000 - $4,775,550) x 0.75] + $4,775,550 - $1,659,000 = $6,022,387.50
net cash flow year 3 = [($16,312,500 - $4,700,000 - $3,410,550) x 0.75] + $3,410,550 + $609,000 = $10,171,012.50
net cash flow year 4 = [($15,225,000 - $4,700,000 - $2,396,550) x 0.75] + $2,396,550 + $2,746,800 = $11,239,687.50
net cash flow year 5 = [($10,320,000 - $4,700,000 - $1,255,800) x 0.75] + $1,255,800 + $1,646,000 = $6,174,950
NPV = $3,013,537.02
IRR = 20.15%
In this exercise we will use our knowledge of finance to calculate interest, so we find that:
[tex]NPV = \$3,013,537.02[/tex] [tex]IRR = 20.15\%[/tex]
So knowing that from the initial investment we will obtain the following values per year:
[tex]year 1 = 76,000 * \$420 = \$31,920,000[/tex]
[tex]year 2 = 89,000 * \$420 = \$37,380,000[/tex]
[tex]year 3 = 108,750* \$420 = \$45,675,000[/tex]
[tex]year 4 = 101,500 * \$420 = \$42,630,000[/tex]
[tex]year 5 = 68,800 * \$420 = \$28,896,000[/tex]
So knowing that from the net working capital we will obtain the following values per year:
[tex]year 0 = \$2,250,000\\year 1 = (\$37,380,000 - \$31,920,000) * 0.2 = \$1,092,000\\year 2 = (\$45,675,000 - \$37,380,000) * 0.2 = \$1,659,000\\year 3 = (\$42,630,000 - \$45,675,000) * 0.2 = -\$609,000\\year 4 = (\$28,896,000 - \$42,630,000) * 0.2 = -\$2,746,800\\year 5 = -\$1,646,000[/tex]
Then from the values previously informed we can calculate the cash flow, as:
[tex]year 0 = -\$19,500,000 - \$2,250,000 = -\$21,750,000\\year 1 = [(\$11,400,000 - \$4,700,000 - \$2,786,550) * 0.75] + \$2,786,550 - \$1,092,000 = \$4,629,637.50\\year 2 =\$6,022,387.50\\year 3 = \$10,171,012.50\\year 4 = \$11,239[/tex]
See more about finances at brainly.com/question/10024737
A firm has net working capital of $2,715, net fixed assets of $22,407, sales of $31,350, and current liabilities of $3,908. How many dollars' worth of sales are generated from every $1 in total assets
Answer:
So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.
Explanation:
To calculate how many dollars worth of sales are generated by $1 of total assets, we use the total assets turnover ratio. It is an accounting measure that measures the efficiency of the company's assets in generating sales. It calculates the dollar values of sales generated by each $1 of total assets. The formula for total assets turnover is,
Total Assets Turnover = Sales / Average Total Assets
We already know the level of sales. We need to determine the value of total assets first.
Total Assets = Fixed assets + Current Assets
As we know that net working capital = current assets - current liabilities,
So, the current assets are,
2715 = Current assets - 3908
2715 + 3908 = Current assets
Current assets = $6623
Total assets = 6623 + 22407
Total assets = $29030
Total Assets Turnover = 31350 / 29030
Total assets turnover = 1.0799 rounded off to 1.08
So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.
Fed is open to changing bond policy Fed policymakers signaled for the first time that they could increase or decrease stimulation of the economy in the future, but not now. Source: Los Angeles Times, May 1, 2013 What are the ripple effects and time lags that the Fed must consider in deciding when to increase or decrease stimulation of the economy?
Answer:
When the Fed raises the federal funds rate, the inflation rate decreases about two years later.
Explanation:
When trying to stimulate the economy either by increasing or decreasing, policymakers have to take into consideration how it would effect interest rate, amount of money available in the economy, loans that would be acquired by banks and the behavior of interest rate.
Interest rate can be impacted quickly even though the period of time it would take for such action to have a reflection on what quantity of money is available in the economy. Then also a period of 2 years would be taken for this action to take effect on inflation.
Therefore
When the Fed raises the federal funds rate, the inflation rate decreases about two years later.
Which of the following are recommended ways to learn more about IT careers? Check all of the boxes
that apply.
scheduling an appointment with a career counselor at a school
attending an informational session
applying for an internship
renting a science fiction movie about computer viruses
contacting a professional organization, such as CompTIA
Answer:
scheduling an appointment with a career counselor at a schoolattending an informational sessionapplying for an internshipcontacting a professional organization, such as CompTIAExplanation:
To learn more about IT careers or just carriers in general, one can contact the Career counselor at school. Their job is to help students find out more abut careers so that they know which path they would like to follow.
One can also attend information sessions where they can listen to people speak on IT careers and ask questions they would like answers to as well.
A practical way to find out about IT careers is to intern at an IT firm. This way you get to see first hand what the job entails and if it is the kind of thing you would like to do.
There are also professional organizations that offer certifications in IT such as CompTIA. As they are well versed in the area, they can provide more information on IT careers including the educational background required.
Answer:
1. Scheduling an appointment with a career counselor at school.
2. Attending an informational session.
3. Applying for an internship
5. Contacting a professional organization, such as CompTIA.
Explanation: This is the correct answer on Edge 2021, just did the assignment. Hope this helps ^-^.
DPMO stands for:______
a) Defects Per Million Opportunity
b) Defectives Per Million Opportunity
c) Data Per Million Opportunity
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
Answer:
a) Defects Per Million Opportunity
Explanation:
DPMO is an acronym which stands for Defects Per Million Opportunity. Defects per Million Opportunities refers to a standard metric which represents the number of defects in a process per one million opportunities.
In order to calculate the DPMO, we divide the number of defects by the number of opportunities and then multiply by a million.
Additionally, when a quality characteristics or properties do not tally with a standard or specifications it is generally referred to as a defect.
Hence, in a six sigma approach to quality or level of performance, the defects per million opportunities (DPMO) is 3.4.
Charlie hopes to accumulate $83,000 in a savings account in 10 years. If he wishes to make a single deposit today and the bank pays 3 percent compounded annually on deposits of this size, how much should Charlie deposit in the account
Answer:
PV= $61,759.80
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Future value (FV)= $83,000
Number of years (n)= 10 years
Interest rate (i)= 3% compounded annually
To calculate the initial deposit, we need to use the following formula:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 83,000 / (1.03^10)
PV= $61,759.80
Suppose you are building a scatter plot in Excel for a large amount of data. After selecting the scatter plot option, how do you enter the data into your scatter plot?
a. By manually typing each data point into the scatter plot
b. By using the Quick Styles button under the Chart menu
c. By using the Select Data button and the Select Data Source option
Answer:
c. By using the Select Data button and the Select Data Source option
Explanation:
A scatter plot is a plot which is used to plot the points of the data on the horizontal and the vertical axis also it depicts how one variable is affected by the another.
After preparing the scatter plot to enter the data in the scatter plot we need to use the data button and then data source option so that the data could be entered in the scatter plot
hence, option c is correct
Which of the following is an advantage of job specialization? 1 point A. The quality of work increases. B. Jobs can be mastered quickly. C. Employees are more involved with their jobs. D. The work is less repetitive. E. Task specialization has no clear advantages to the organization
Answer: B. Jobs can be mastered quickly.
Explanation:
Job specialization is when the employees in an organization focuses and concentrates on one particular aspect in a organization. Specialization makes employees more efficient and also effective at their role.
Also, jobs can be mastered quickly since the employees typically focuses on one particular aspect in the organization.
A gift-wrapping business is staffed by Kaitlyn, Rob, Sam, Susan and Sarah. The production by each of the staff members for an average eight-hour work day is as follows:
Assume that the standard or normal productivity in the organization is 10 minutes per package. What is Kaitlyn's efficiency?
Kaitlyn Rob Sam Susan Sarah
72 packages 55 packages 52 packages 52 packages 48 packages
a. 0.75 (75%)
b. 1.50(150%)
c. 9.0 packages per hour
d. 1.50 packages per hour
e. 9.0 minutes per package
Answer:
b. 1.50(150%)
Explanation:
Given that, the standard time per packages is 10 minutes
Then, the total time taken in eight hour shift is 8 * 60 = 480 minutes
The standard output = Total time taken / Standard time = 480/10 = 48 packages
Therefore, the efficiency of Kaitlyn = Kaitlyn's Output / Standard output
=72 / 48
= 1.5
Hence, the answer is 150% or 1.5
Explain how to use the decision trees and Monte Carlo analysis for quantifying risk. Give an example of how you would use each technique on an IT project.
Answer:
The answer is below
Explanation:
Decision Tree Analysis is a form or type of quantitative risk assessment tool and techniques that involves a diagram that indicates the significances of choosing one or other alternatives.
In other words, the purpose of the tool is to assist you to select between several courses of action.
For example, lines are drawn towards the right for each possible solution, and then the solution is written along the line. Then evaluation of each alternative can be easily considered.
On the other hand, Monte Carlo Analysis is also a form or type of quantitative risk assessment tools and techniques that utilizes optimistic, most probable, and cynical estimates to infer the total project cost and project completion dates.
For example, an estimate of the probability of completing a project at a cost of $100M can be carried out using Monte Carlo Analysis
x
air pollution causes capital to wear out more rapidly, doubling the rate of depreciation. How would this affect economic growth?
Answer:
The economic growth will be lower.
Explanation:
The rise in pollution and the doubling of the rate of depreciation will affect economic growth adversely. However, rapid wear and tear of capital will cost the person and it will reduce the purchasing power. Thus, lower purchasing power will result in lower economic growth. Moreover, pollution creates three main problems that are reduced labor productivity, rise in health problems, and loss of crop yield. So the reduction in all these factors will also slow down economic growth.
What term means managing the entire organization so that it excels on all dimensions of products and services that are important to customers?
Answer:
Total Quality Management
Explanation:
Total Quality Management is an approach in which all the employees of the company work to improve the entire process to offer a good customer experience. According to this, the answer is that the term that means managing the entire organization so that it excels on all dimensions of products and services that are important to customers is Total Quality Management.
There is a 3 percent defect rate at a specific point in a production process. If an inspector is placed at this point, all the defects can be detected and eliminated. The inspector would cost $8 per hour and could inspect units in the process at the current production rate of 30 per hour. If no inspector is hired and defects are allowed to pass this point, there is a cost of $10 per defective unit to correct the defects later on. Assume that the line will operate at the same rate (i.e., the current production rate) regardless of whether the inspector is hired or not. a. If an inspector is hired, what will be the inspection cost per unit? (Round your answer to 3 decimal places.) Cost per unit $ b. If an inspector is not hired, what will be the defective cost per unit? (Round your answer to 3 decimal places.) Cost per unit $ c. Should an inspector be hired based on costs alone? Yes No
Answer:
1a. $2.67 cost per unit
1b. $0.3 cost per unit
1c. Yes
Explanation:
1a. Calculation for what will be the inspection cost per unit If an inspector is hired
The following details were given in the question.
Defective average =3/100= 0.03
inspection rate = 30 per hour
Cost of inspector = 8 per hour
Correction cost = $10 each
Using this formula
Hired inspector =Cost per hour/Current production rate per hour
Let plug in the formula
Hired inspector=8 per hour/30 rate per hour
Hired inspector =0.267×100
Hired inspector=$2.67 cost per unit
1b. Calculation for what will be the defective cost per unit If an inspector is not hired
Using this Formula
No inspector=Defect rate %/Cost per defective
Let plug in the formula
No inspector= 3/100×$10
No inspector= $0.3 cost per unit
1c. Based on the above calculation the inspector should be hired.
New Harvest Bakery acquired all the outstanding common stock of Red Rock Bakery for $69,300 in cash. The book values and fair values of Red Rock's assets and liabilities were as follows: Book Value Fair Value Current assets $ 28,700 $ 22,300 Property, plant, and equipment 47,800 52,600 Other assets 3,500 5,800 Current liabilities 15,100 14,900 Long-term liabilities 29,000 21,400 Calculate the amount paid for goodwil
Answer:
Amount paid for goodwill is $24,900
Explanation:
Note: The data in the question are merged and they first sorted before answering the question as follows:
Book Value Fair Value
Current assets $ 28,700 $ 22,300
Property, plant, and equipment 47,800 52,600
Other assets 3,500 5,800
Current liabilities 15,100 14,900
Long-term liabilities 29,000 21,400
The explanation of the answer to the question are now provided as follows:
Generally, goodwill refers to an intangible asset of a company and it can be in different for such as intellectual property, brand, commercial secrets, and reputation.
Amount paid for goodwill of an acquired company can be estimated by deducting the fair value of net identifiable assets acquired from the consideration paid.
For this question, fair value of net identifiable assets can be calculated as follows:
Particular Fair Value ($)
Current assets 22,300
Property, plant, and equipment 52,600
Other assets 5,800
Current liabilities (14,900)
Long-term liabilities (21,400)
Fair value of net asset 44,400
Therefore, we have:
Amount paid for goodwill = Cash consideration paid - Fair value of net asset = $69,300 - $44,400 = $24,900
The central problem in product-oriented layout planning is?
Answer: The minimizing the imbalance in the workloads among workstations.
Explanation:
Workspace can inspire informal and productive encounters if it balances what three physical and social aspects.
A mail-order house uses 18,000 boxes a year. Carrying costs are 60 cents per box a year, and ordering costs are $96. The following price schedule applies.
Determine:
A. The optimal order quantity.
B. The number of orders per year.
of boxes: 1,000-1,999 Price per box: $1.25
of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20
of boxes: 5,000- 9,999 Price per box : $1.15
of boxes: 10,000 or more Price per box : $1.10
Answer:
Explanation:
Given that:
A mail-order house uses 18,000 boxes a year.
Carrying costs are 60 cents per box a year =$0.60
and ordering costs are $96.
Determine:
A. The optimal order quantity.
The optimal order quantity can be calculated by using the formula:
[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{2DS}{H}}[/tex]
[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{2*18000*96}{0.60}}[/tex]
[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{3456000}{0.60}}[/tex]
[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{5760000}[/tex]
[tex]Q_o = 2400 \ boxes[/tex]
B. The number of orders per year.
of boxes: 1,000-1,999 Price per box: $1.25
of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20
of boxes: 5,000- 9,999 Price per box : $1.15
of boxes: 10,000 or more Price per box : $1.10
SInce 2400 boxes lies within ''of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20 ''
Total cost = Carrying cost + ordering cost + Purchasing cost
[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]
[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{2400}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{2400}) 96+1.20*18000[/tex]
Total cost = ( 1200) 0.60 + 7.5(96) + 1.20(18000)
Total cost = 720 + 720 + 21600
Total cost = $ 23040
If the order size is 5000, the price per box will be 1.15
[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]
[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{5000}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{5000}) 96+1.15*18000[/tex]
Total cost = 2500 (0.60) + 3.6 (96) + 20700
Total cost = 1500 + 345.6 + 20700
Total cost = $22545.6
If the order size is 10000 , the price per box will be 1.10
[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]
[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{10000}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{10000}) 96+1.10*18000[/tex]
Total cost = 5000 (0.60) + 1.8(96) + 19800
Total cost = 3000 + 172.8 + 19800
Total cost = $22972.8
From the three total cost, the least minimum cost of ordering is: 5000
So; the number of orders per year = total number of boxes per year/ boxes per order
the number of orders per year = 18000/5000
the number of orders per year = 3.6 orders per year
Determine the value-added, non-value-added, and total lead times, and the value-added ratio under the present and proposed production approaches. If required, round percentages to one decimal place. Present Approach Proposed Approach Value-added time 23 min 23 min Non-value-added time 1,582 min 105 min Total lead time 1,605 min 1,605 min Value-added ratio (as a percent) 14 % 21 %
Answer:
Hello some parts of your question is missing attached below is the missing part
Answer : value added times : 30 minutes , 30 minutes
non-value added times: 1210 minutes, 130 minutes
Total lead times : 1240 minutes, 160 minutes
value added time as a ratio: 2.4%, 18.8%
Explanation:
Given data:
production batch sizes = 40 units
process step 1 = 6 minutes
process step 2 = 10 minutes
process step 3 = 6 minutes
process step 4 = 8 minutes
Determining : The value added, non-value added , total lead times and value added ratio under the present and proposed production approaches
UNDER PRESENT PRODUCTION APPROACH
Th value added time:
= summation of all process times = (6+10+6+8) = 30 minutes
Non-value added time:
= Value added time *(Batch size -1) + move time between each step
= 30*39+8*5
= 1170 +40 = 1210 minutes
total lead time :
= value added time + non-value added time
= 30 + 1210 = 1240 minutes
value added time as a percentage/ratio
(value added time / total lead time) * 100
= 30 / 1240 * 100 = 2.4%
UNDER PROPOSED PRODUCTION APPROACH
value added time :
= summation of all process times = (6+10+6+8) = 30 minutes
Non-value added time :
= Value added time *(Batch size -1) + time between each step
= 30*4+2*5 = 120 + 10 = 130 mins
total lead time :
= value added time + non-value added time = 30 +130 = 160 mins
value added time as a percentage/ratio:
(value added time / total lead time ) * 100
= (30 / 160) * 100 = 18.8%
Identify factors that could prevent an older, established company from effecting an enterprise-wide, customer-centric culture.
Answer:
A more established company may find it difficult to implement an enterprise-wide, customer-centric culture due to the following reasons:
A) Existence of a Multi-Product Business Model
A business entity that is well established with a lot of years under its belt will find it a tough challenge to shift from a product-oriented business model to a customer-oriented business model.
To be product-focused simply means that that a company has woven its organisational structure around products. For examples, a company that is into the gaming business may have teams for their Sports Betting Section, another for their online gaming section, game hardware section, gaming apps section etc.
First, for these various teams, their performance metric will largely depend on how functionally efficient their products are.
Second, techy or geeky staff are seldom efficient when it comes to emotional intelligence - a key requirement for being customer efficient.
One way to handle this is to ensure that there is a central Customer Relationship Management team that oversees the customers for each product.
B) Organisational Inflexibility
As direct to the point as it sounds, getting market intelligence for with the intention to use them for decision making is challenging. What is tougher is the ability to implement the insights from such intelligence to effect a turn around in the way customers perceive and respond to a company's offerings.
The ability to quickly take gather market intel, agree on a strategic direction based on same and execute can be referred to organisational agility.
The more bureaucratic and hierarchical an organisation is (this, by the way, characterises older and more established business systems) the less agile it is likely to be.
Cheers!
Midyear on July 31st, the Digby Corporation's balance sheet reported: Total Assets of $205.498 million Total Common Stock of $6.350 million Cash of $10.050 million Retained Earnings of $44.117 million. What were the Digby Corporation's total liabilities?
a) $165.081 million.
b) $144.981 million.
c) $155.031 million.
d) $161.381 million.
Answer:
The value of total liabilities is $155.031 million and option c is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The basic accounting equation states that the total value of assets is always equal to the sum of the total value of liabilities and the total value of equity.
Thus, we can say that,
Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Total Equity
The equity part can contain various components. In the given question it has two components namely Common Stock and retained earnings.
205.498 = Total Liabilities + (6.350 + 44.117)
205.498 = Total Liabilities + 50.467
205.498 - 50.467 = Total Liabilities
Total Liabilities = $155.031
The Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) is a mathematical approach to understanding market concentration that provides a single concentration indicator. What is the HHI for an industry characterized by the below noted data?Firm 1 has a market share of 40%Firm 2 has a market share of 20%Firm 3 has a market share of 15%Firm 4 has a market share of 15%Firm 5 has a market share of 10%HHI=___
Answer:
2550
Explanation:
The HHI is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm in the industry.
40² + 20² + 15² + 15² + 10² = 1600 + 400 + 225 + 225 + 100 = 2550
The marketing department of Jessi Corporation has submitted the following sales forecast for the upcoming fiscal year (all sales are on account):
1st Quarter 2nd Quarter 3rd Quarter 4th Quarter
Budgeted unit
sales 12,200 13,200 15,200 14,200
The selling price of the company’s product is $21 per unit. Management expects to collect 65% of sales in the quarter in which the sales are made, 30% in the following quarter, and 5% of sales are expected to be uncollectible. The beginning balance of accounts receivable, all of which is expected to be collected in the first quarter, is $72,600.
The company expects to start the first quarter with 2,440 units in finished goods inventory. Management desires an ending finished goods inventory in each quarter equal to 20% of the next quarter’s budgeted sales. The desired ending finished goods inventory for the fourth quarter is 2,640 units.
Required
1-A. Complete the company's sales budget.
1st Quarter 2nd Quarter 3rd Quarter 4th Quarter Year
Budgeted Units Sales
Selling Price Per Unit
Total Sales
1-B. Complete the schedule of expected cash collections.
1st Quarter 2nd Quarter 3rd Quarter 4th Quarter Year
Beginning Accts Receivable
1st Quarter Sales
2nd Quarter Sales
3rd Quarter Sales
4th Quarter Sales
Total Cash Collections
2. Prepare the company’s production budget for the upcoming fiscal year.
1st Quarter 2nd Quarter 3rd Quarter 4th Quarter Year
Budgeted Unit Sales
Total Needs
Required Production in Units
Answer:
1-A. Sales budget
1st 2nd 3rd 4th
Quarter Quarter Quarter Quarter Year
Sales units 12,200 13,200 15,200 14,200 54,800
Price per unit $21 $21 $21 $21 $21
Total sales $256,200 $277,200 $319,200 $298,200 $1,150,800
1-B. Cash collections budget
1st 2nd 3rd 4th
Quarter Quarter Quarter Quarter Year
Collections from $72,600 $76,860 $83,160 $95,760 $72,600
previous quarter
Collections from $166,530 $180,180 $207,480 $193,830 $1,003,900
current quarter
Total $239,130 $257,040 $290,640 $289,690 $1,076,500
2. Productions budget
1st 2nd 3rd 4th
Quarter Quarter Quarter Quarter Year
Sales units 12,200 13,200 15,200 14,200 54,800
Planned ending 2,640 3,040 2,840 2,640 2,640
inventory
Total production 14,840 16,240 18,040 16,840 65,960
required
- Beginning 2,440 2,640 3,040 2,840 2,440
inventory
Units to be 12,400 13,600 15,000 14,000 63,520
produced
Answer:
sells budget
Explanation:
Founder of Vanguard, Jack Bogle, believes that all investors should buy stock indices. Group of answer choices He believes in strong form market efficiency. He believes in semi-strong form market efficiency. He believes in weak form market efficiency. He believes markets are not efficient.
Answer:
Correct Answer:
1. He believes in strong form market efficiency.
Explanation:
Jack Bogle believed that, in a situation where people simply buy an entire group of stocks as a result of investors investing money into the index fund, it will create a strong market. That is, if every investor in the world only purchased the same index fund, then the market of buyers and sellers would no longer set the fair market price of the stocks in the stock market.
A couple thinking about retirement decide to put aside $3,000 each year in a savings plan that earns 8% interest. In 5 years they will receive a gift of $10,000 that also can be invested. a. How much money will they have accumulated 30 years from now
Answer:
Total future value= $408,334.38
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A couple thinking about retirement decide to put aside $3,000 each year in a savings plan that earns 8% interest. In 5 years they will receive a gift of $10,000 that also can be invested.
First, we will determine the future value of the annual deposit investment. We need to use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {3,000*[(1.08^30) - 1]} / 0.08
FV= $339,849.63
Now, for the $10,000:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 10,000*(1.08^25)
FV= $68,484.75
Total future value= 339,849.63 + 68,484.75
Total future value= $408,334.38
On August 1, 2010, a company issues bonds with a par value of $600,000. The bonds mature in 10 years and pay 6% annual interest, payable each February 1 and August 1. The bonds sold at $592,000. The company uses the straight-line method of amortizing bond discounts. The company's year-end is December 31. Prepare the general journal entry to record the interest accrued at December 31, 2010.
Answer:
Dr Discount on BP 8,000
Cr Cash 592,000
Cr Bond payable 600,000
Dr Interest expense 15,333.33
Cr Interest payable 15,000
Cr Discount on BP 333.33
Dr Interest payable 15,000
Dr interest expense 3,066.67
Cr Cash 18,000
Cr Discount on BP 333.33
Explanation:
Preparation of the general journal entry to record the interest accrued at December 31, 2010.
Based on the information given we were told that the company issues bonds with a par value of the amount of $600,000 in which the bonds mature in 10 years with a 6% annual interest and sold at the amount of $592,000 this means that the transaction will be recorded as:
Dr Discount on BP 8,000
(600,000-592,000)
Cr Cash 592,000
Cr Bond payable 600,000
(To record issuance of the bonds)
Dr Interest expense 15,333.33
Cr Interest payable 15,000 (600,000 x 6% x 5/12 )
Cr Discount on BP 333.33
(8,000 / (10years* 2 payment =400*5/6=333.33)
(To record year end adjustment entry)
Dr Interest payable 15,000
(600,000 x 6% x 5/12 )
Dr interest expense 3,066.67
(600,000 x 6% x 1/12=3,000)
(400 - 333.33= 66.67)
(3,000+66.67=3,066.67)
Cr Cash 18,000
(600,000 x 6% x 6/12)
Cr Discount on BP 333.33
(8,000 / (10years* 2 payment =400*5/6=333.33)
(To record first interest payment to bondholders)
Suppose that in 1969, the U.S. economy was operating close to potential. The budget deficit experienced by the United States in 1969 was:
Answer: primarily cyclical deficit
Explanation:
Budget deficit occurs when the government expenditure for a certain year is more than the revenue the government makes.
Since the the United States economy was operating close to potential. The budget deficit experienced by the United States in 1969 was primarily cyclical deficit.
assume the following information about the market and JumpMaster's stock. JumpMaster's beta = 1.50, the risk free rate 2%, the market risk premium is 10.0%. Using CAPM, what is the expected return for JumpMaster's stock?
Answer:
Expected market return = 17%
Explanation:
Given the Jump master’s beta = 1.50
Risk free rate = 2%
Market risk premium = 10%
To find the expected return we have to use the below formula.
Expected market return = Riskfree rate + Beta × Market risk premium
Now insert all the values in order to get the expected market return.
Expected market return = 2 + 1.50 × 10
Expected market return = 17%
King Company issued bonds with a face amount of $1,600,000 in 2015. As of January 1, 2020, the balance in Discount on Bonds Payable is $4,800. At that time, King redeemed the bonds at 102.Required:Assuming that no interest is payable, make the entry to record the redemption.
Answer:
January 1, 2020
Bonds Payable 1600000 Dr
Loss on Redemption of bonds 36800 Cr
Discount on Bonds Payable 4800 Cr
Cash 1632000 Cr
Explanation:
The redemption of bonds before the maturity usually requires a payment for redemption which is a certain percentage of its face value. It is usually higher than the face value. The above bonds are redeemed at 102 which means at 102% of the face value of the bonds. Thus, the cash paid to redeem the bonds is,
Cash = 1600000 * 102% = 1632000
The bonds have a carrying value, which is the face value less discount or add premium, of,
Carrying value = 1600000 - 4800 = $1595200
If they are redeemed for an amount in excess of the carrying value, they are redeemed at a loss.
The loss on redemption is,
Loss = 1595200 - 1632000 = $36800
Identify whether each of the following examples belongs in M1 or M2.
a. Van has $2,500 in a savings account.
b. Paolo has a $10 bill in his wallet.
c. Amy has $7,000 in a six-month certificate of deposit (CD).
Answer: The answer is given below
Explanation:
It should be noted that M1 will be derived as Currency plus the Travelers check while M2 will be M1 plus the certificate of deposit plus the money market account.
a. Van has $2,500 in a savings account.
It should be noted that money in a savings account will have to be included in M2.
b. Paolo has a $10 bill in his wallet.
This fits into the description of both M1 and M2 forms of money.
c. Amy has $7,000 in a six-month certificate of deposit (CD)
The certificate of deposit is included in the M2.
Answer:
Option A is M2
Option B is M1
Option C is M2
Explanation:
The above classifications speak to various categories of money supply.
M1 refers to the supply of money that is composed of physical currency such as notes, coins, demand deposits other checkable deposits, etc.
Simply put, M1 would include forms of money that are liquid or easy to convert into cash.
M2 and M3 which are also known as "near money" and "near, near money," are money types which cannot be converted to currency as quickly as M1.
Another example of M2 is Money Market Mutual Funds. M1 is often included when calculating for M2.
Cheers!
As an American investor, you are trying to calculate the present value of a £25 million cash flow that will occur one year in the future. You know that the spot exchange rate is S= $1.9397/ £ and one-year forward rate is F= $1.9581/ £. You also know that the appropriate dollar cost of capital for this cash flow is 6.25% and that the appropriate pound cost of capital for this cash flow is 5.25%. a) What is the present value of the £25 million cash flow from the standpoint of a British investor, and what is the dollar equivalent of this amount? b) What is the present value of the £25 million cash flow from the standpoint of a U.S. investor who first converts the £25 million into dollars and then applies the dollar discount rate?
Answer:
1. Present value in pound=$23,752,969
Dollar equivalent=$46,073,634
2.Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$48,952,500
Present value in pound=$46,072,918
Explanation:
1a.Calculation for present value of the £25 million cash flow
Using this formula
Present value in pound =cash flow*(1/1+Cash flow cost of capital)^ One year in the future
Let plug in the formula
Present value in pound=$25,000,000*(1/1+0.0525)^1
Present value in pound=$25,000,000*(1/1.0525)^1
Present value in pound=$25,000,000*0.950119
Present value in pound=$23,752,969
1b.Calculation for the dollar equivalent of this amount
Using this formula
Dollar equivalent=Present value in pound*Spot exchange rate
Let plug in the formula
Dollar equivalent=$23,752,969*$1.9397
Dollar equivalent=$46,073,634
2a. Calculation for the Dollar equivalent for U.S investors
Using this formula
Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=Cash flow*one-year forward rate
Let plug in the formula
Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$25,000,000*$1.9581
Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$48,952,500
2b. Calculation for the present value of the £25 million cash flow from the standpoint of a U.S. investor .
Using this formula
Present value in pound =Cash flow*(1/1+Cash flow cost of capital)^ One year in the future
Let plug in the formula
Present value in pound=$48,952,500*(1/1.0625)^1
Present value in pound=$48,952,500*0.941176
Present value in pound=$46,072,918
Therefore the Present value in pound for question 1 is $23,752,969 while the Dollar equivalent is $46,073,634.
The Dollar equivalent for U.S investors in question 2 is $48,952,500 while the Present value in pound is $46,072,918
Given the following information. Which of the statements below can you support with this information?
Maximum capacity (labor hours): 480 hours per week
Effective capacity ratio: 85 %
Actual time worked: 380 hours per week over the last two weeks
On-time delivery %: 75 percent of the jobs are being completed on time
a. More capacity needs to be added in the short term to improve performance in the system.
b. We need to look at variability in the rate at which jobs enter the shop.
c. Our workforce is not working hard enough.
d. Our workforce may be waiting on delayed arrivals of inputs needed to do the work.
Describe the reasons why you selected the specific option(s) that you did.
Answer:
d. Our workforce may be waiting on delayed arrivals of inputs needed to do the work.
Explanation:
There are two possible sources for 25% of the jobs not being delivered on time:
we have a problem with inputs required (materials or labor)we have a problem with the capacity of our facilityIf we followed Juran's Law, we can simply assume that the problem here has to do with our productive system (like 85% of production errors). Two clear problems are obvious:
only 380 hours worked out of total of 480 hours per week ⇒ why didn't anyone work during the remaining 100 hours? Is there a delay with the inputs or we don't have enough workers?only 85% of the facility's capacity is being used ⇒ why only 85% of the effective capacity ratio? If we are finishing jobs late, why do we have 15% of unused capacity?Obviously we cannot answer these questions just be reading two paragraphs, but that is what should be answered in order to solve the issues.
Badger Corporation declared a stock distribution to all shareholders of record on March 25 of this year. Shareholders will receive one share of Badger stock for each 10 shares of stock they already own. Madison Cheesehead owns 1,000 shares of Badger stock with a tax basis of $100 per share. The fair market value of the Badger stock was $110 per share on March 25 of this year.Required:a. What amount of taxable dividend income, if any, does Madison recognize in 2009? b. What is Madison's income tax basis in her new and existing stock in Badger Corporation, assuming the distribution is non-taxable? c. How would you answer questions a and b if Madison was offered the choice between 1 share of stock in Badger for each 10 shares she owned or $100 cash for each 10 shares she owned in Badger?
Answer:
a. What amount of taxable dividend income, if any, does Madison recognize in 2009?
Madison doesn't have to recognize any income because she is not getting any. Only after Madison decides to sell his stocks will he recognize any taxable income if she makes a gain.
b. What is Madison's income tax basis in her new and existing stock in Badger Corporation, assuming the distribution is non-taxable?
Madison current basis is $100 per stock, and after the stock dividend it will be $100 / 1.1 = $90.91 per stock
c. How would you answer questions a and b if Madison was offered the choice between 1 share of stock in Badger for each 10 shares she owned or $100 cash for each 10 shares she owned in Badger?
then the cash dividend would be $10 per stock, which results in $10 x 1,000 = $10,000 taxable income. Her basis in the stock will remain not change.
