an independent auditor asked a client's internal auditor to assist in preparing a standard financial institution confirmation request for a payroll account that had been closed during the year under audit. after the internal auditor prepared the form, the controller signed it and mailed it to the bank. what was the major flaw in this procedure?

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Answer 1

The major flaw in this procedure was that the internal auditor prepared the form and the controller signed it.

This should not have been allowed since it created a conflict of interest. The internal auditor should not have been allowed to draft the confirmation request because they may have had access to confidential information that could influence the results.

Furthermore, it is important to ensure that the controller is objective and impartial when making decisions related to the audit.

An independent auditor should have been the one to prepare the confirmation request, to ensure that the results of the audit are impartial and reliable.

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a leader who demonstrates blank behavior develops trusting relationships with followers, cares for their well-being, and supports them.

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A leader who demonstrates consideration behavior develops trusting relationships with followers, cares for their well-being, and supports them.

Consideration behavior in a leader refers to the extent to which a leader shows concern, support, and respect for the needs and feelings of their followers. It is a people-centered leadership style that prioritizes building relationships and creating a positive work environment.

A leader who exhibits consideration behavior shows empathy, listens to their followers, provides support and guidance, and values their contributions to the organization. They also recognize and acknowledge the personal and professional needs of their followers and take steps to meet those needs. This type of behavior is essential for building trust and fostering a positive workplace culture.

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the number of federal government employees has grown more rapidly that was the case in many state and local governments. if this trend continues, how will it affect the field of public administration? if growth declines, what are the implications for public employment?

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The number of federal government employees has grown more rapidly that was the case in many state and local governments.

If this trend of rapid growth of federal employees continues, the field of public administration will undergo a radical transformation.

It will lead to an increase in the number of federal employees working in the public administration sector. This will cause an increase in the size of the federal government, thereby reducing the size of the state and local government.

It will affect the field of public administration as it will shift the focus of public administration towards the federal government. It will also increase the demand for jobs in the public sector, which will affect the overall employment rate in the country.

If growth declines, it will have implications for public employment. It will lead to a decrease in the number of federal employees working in the public administration sector.

It will result in a decrease in the size of the federal government, thereby increasing the size of the state and local government. This will have implications for the overall employment rate in the country.

It will lead to a decrease in the demand for jobs in the public sector, which will affect the overall employment rate in the country. It will also shift the focus of public administration towards the state and local governments.

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companies make investments for various reasons, including: having excess cash or in anticipation of a need for cash at some distant point in the future. to exercise significant influence or control over another company. neither a nor b. both a and b.

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Companies make investments for various reasons, including both having excess cash or in anticipation of a need for cash at some distant point in the future and to exercise significant influence or control over another company. The correct answer is both a and b.

Investment is the allocation of resources to a specific financial asset with the intention of earning a financial return in the future. Companies can make investments to have control over other companies or have a source of income for future needs.

Some of the most common reasons for companies to make investments are:

To secure a supply of goods and services: Companies often invest in other businesses to guarantee a continuous supply of the products or services they require. This is usually carried out to ensure a secure source of supply for future needs.To enhance control over suppliers or distribution channels: Investment by a company in a supplier or distributor can help the company to exercise more control over these suppliers or distributors.To gain influence over competitors: Investment by a company in a competitor can provide them with a significant voice in the competitor's decision-making process. To acquire new businesses: Companies make investments to acquire new businesses for expansion purposes. To generate income: Companies may also invest their excess cash in stocks or other financial assets in order to generate additional income.

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Which of the following statements regarding risk-averse investors is true?
A. They only care about the rate of return.
B. They accept investments that are fair games.
C. They only accept risky investments that offer risk premiums over the risk-free rate.
D. They are willing to accept lower returns and high risk.
E. They only care about the rate of return, and they accept investments that are fair
games.

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Option C: "They only accept risky investments that offer risk premiums over the risk-free rate" is the true statement regarding risk-averse investors.

Risk-averse investors are those who prefer lower risk investments rather than high-risk investments. These investors avoid taking unnecessary risks and only accept investments that provide a reasonable rate of return. They are more interested in capital protection than capital appreciation. Therefore, it is correct to say that they only accept risky investments that offer risk premiums over the risk-free rate.

In contrast, options A and E are incorrect. These investors care about the rate of return, but it is not the only factor that they consider when investing. Options B and D are also incorrect. Fair game investments are those in which the probability of winning is equal to the probability of losing, and high-risk investments are those that offer high returns but are also high risk. Risk-averse investors do not prefer fair game investments and high-risk investments.

Thus, option C is the correct answer.

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which one of these correctly summarizes the future value formula? assume the interest rate is positive. multiple choice question. A. the higher the present value, the lower the future value, all else held constant.
B. the higher the interest rate, the lower the future value, all else held constant.
C. the lower the interest rate, the greater the future value, all else held constant. D. the greater the number of time periods, the higher the future value, all else held constant

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In other words, the greater the present value, the higher the future value, all else held constant. The lower the interest rate, the lower the future value, all else held constant. And the greater the number of time periods, the greater the future value, all else held constant.

The Future Value Formula states that the future value of a given amount (the present value) can be calculated by multiplying the present value by a factor based on the interest rate and the number of time periods. The formula is:
Future Value = Present Value x (1 + Interest Rate) ^ Number of Time Periods

To summarize, the future value formula states that the greater the present value, the lower the interest rate, and the greater the number of time periods, the greater the future value, all else held constant.

This can be demonstrated using a simple example. Consider a present value of $1000, an interest rate of 5%, and 5 years. The future value would be $1,276.28, calculated using the Future Value formula. If the present value remains constant at $1000, and the interest rate is lowered to 3%, the future value would be $1,321.51. Similarly, if the present value remains constant at $1000, and the number of time periods is increased to 10, the future value would be $1,609.89.

In conclusion, the future value formula states that the higher the present value, the lower the future value, all else held constant. The lower the interest rate, the greater the future value, all else held constant. And the greater the number of time periods, the higher the future value, all else held constant.

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true ior false once credit is established, most people should plan on having at least eight to ten credit cards at any given time

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The statement "once credit is established, most people should plan on having at least eight to ten credit cards at any given time" is False because it is important to maintain a balance between the number of credit cards and your ability to manage them responsibly.

What is credit?

Credit refers to the ability of a person or organization to borrow money with the promise of repaying it later. It involves the use of credit cards, loans, and other types of credit facilities. Establishing credit is essential since it allows you to borrow money when you need it for significant purchases such as a house or car.

While having several credit cards can help you build a credit history, it is not advisable to have too many credit cards. Having too many credit cards can hurt your credit score and make it challenging to manage your finances effectively. It is advisable to have two to three credit cards and ensure that you make timely payments on them to maintain a good credit score.

It is worth noting that establishing credit and maintaining it takes time and effort. It would be best if you made timely payments and avoid maxing out your credit cards to maintain a healthy credit score. It is also essential to monitor your credit report regularly and report any errors to ensure that your credit score remains accurate.

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Which of the following statements about enterprise applications is not true?- Enterprise applications are based on organization-wide definitions of data.- Enterprise applications require fundamental changes in the way a business operates.- Enterprise applications are best implemented when few changes in business processes are required.- Enterprise applications require organizational learning.- Enterprise applications introduce "switching costs."

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Enterprise applications are best implemented when few changes in business processes are required. This statement is not true.This statement is not true. Enterprise applications require fundamental changes in the way a business operates. Therefore, changes in business processes are required.

What are Enterprise Applications?

Enterprise applications are computer software designed for large organizations to optimize their operations by improving business processes. These applications are meant for corporate rather than personal use. They are used to support the organization's goals and operations by improving and increasing efficiency in business processes.Enterprise applications offer benefits such as cost reduction, increased flexibility and scalability, increased productivity, and customer service. Some examples of enterprise applications include supply chain management, customer relationship management (CRM), human resource management (HRM), enterprise resource planning (ERP), and business intelligence (BI).Statements about Enterprise ApplicationsEnterprise applications are based on organization-wide definitions of data. This statement is true. Enterprise applications are based on organization-wide definitions of data because they are used across an entire organization. The data and information used in enterprise applications are shared among different business units.Enterprise applications require fundamental changes in the way a business operates. This statement is true. Enterprise applications are implemented to optimize business operations. Therefore, to achieve maximum benefits, a business must change the way they operate.Enterprise applications require organizational learning. This statement is true. Enterprise applications are complex systems that require training and learning for users to effectively use the software.Enterprise applications introduce "switching costs." This statement is true. Enterprise applications introduce "switching costs," which is the cost incurred when switching to a new software. It includes the cost of new hardware, software licensing, and retraining of employees.Enterprise applications are best implemented when few changes in business processes are required.

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1. An argument is a piece of information a function needs to complete its task. List five different forms that the information can take. (an argument can be any one of these types)a. A numberb. __________c. ___________d. ___________e.____________f. _____________2. T or F All functions have exactly one argument ___________3. T or F All functions have more than one argument __________4. T or F Some functions do not require an argument ____________

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1. An argument is a piece of information a function needs to complete its task. Five different forms that the information can take. (an argument can be any one of these types) a. A number b. A string c. A Boolean valued. d. A variable. e. A function f. A set or list.

2.  All functions have exactly one argument: False

3. All functions have more than one argument: False

4. Some functions do not require an argument: True

Functions are defined as code blocks that perform specific tasks. Functions accept input, known as arguments, and provide an output.

Arguments are data that is passed into a function, which it then uses to execute a specific task. These arguments may take on a variety of shapes, including numbers, strings, Boolean values, variables, functions, and sets or lists. The arguments that are used by a function are usually specified when the function is defined. Functions do not always require the same number of arguments. Some functions require one argument, while others require more than one or no arguments at all.

False is the answer to questions 2 and 3. Not all functions have the same number of arguments, and some may not have any arguments at all. The answer to question 4 is true. While arguments are needed by most functions to operate, some do not require any arguments to be passed to them.

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which of the following are true? multiple select question. t-bills sometimes outperform common stocks. common stocks may experience negative returns. on average, t-bills outperform common stocks. t-bills occasionally show negative returns.

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The following options are true:

B: Common stocks may experience negative returns.

D: T-bills occasionally show negative returns.

The following options are false:

A: T-bills sometimes outperform common stocks.

C: On average, T-bills outperform common stocks.

T-bills are generally considered less risky than common stocks, but they also offer lower returns on average. It is not uncommon for T-bills to underperform common stocks in certain periods, but over the long run, common stocks tend to outperform T-bills. However, both T-bills and common stocks are subject to market fluctuations and can experience negative returns in certain circumstances.

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an erroneous decision to assess control risk at excessively high levels can have an adverse effect on:

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An erroneous decision to assess control risk at excessively high levels can have an adverse effect on the audit.

What is an erroneous decision?

An erroneous decision is a mistake or an incorrect choice that has been made. A decision may be erroneous if it is based on incorrect information or if the information used to make the decision is incorrect.

What is control risk?

Control risk is the risk that a material misstatement will not be discovered or prevented by an entity's internal controls. This can occur if the controls are not properly designed or implemented, or if they are overridden or ignored by management. An erroneous decision to assess control risk at excessively high levels can have an adverse effect on the audit because it can lead to an audit opinion that is too low. This means that the auditor may not detect material misstatements in the financial statements, which can have serious consequences for the users of the financial statements. For example, if a company's financial statements are misstated, investors may make incorrect decisions based on those statements, which could lead to financial losses.

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The Four-Fifths Rule applies when the number of employees from a protected class is less than four-fifths of the number of employees hired from the class with the highest selection rate. a. True
b. False

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The statement, "The Four-Fifths Rule applies when the number of employees from a protected class is less than four-fifths of the number of employees hired from the class with the highest selection rate," is true as the statement describe correct information.

The Four-Fifths Rule is an approach used to determine if there is adverse impact, which occurs when an employment policy or practice adversely affects the employment of individuals based on their race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.

Adverse impact is identified by utilizing a benchmark, in this case, the selection rate for the most represented group. A selection rate is the number of applicants hired divided by the number of applicants who applied.

The Four-Fifths Rule is used when the selection rate for the protected group is less than 80% (or 4/5) of the selection rate for the most represented group. In other words, if the selection rate for the most represented group is 60%, then a selection rate of less than 48% (60% x 0.8 = 48%) for the protected group is considered adverse impact.

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T/F: among the various international trade agreements, the north american free trade agreement represents the highest level of integration across individual nations.

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True, the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) represents the highest level of integration across individual nations among various international trade agreements.

An international trade agreement is an agreement between two or more countries that aims to regulate trade between them. Its goal is to reduce barriers to trade, such as tariffs and quotas, and to increase the flow of goods and services between countries.NAFTA is one of the most significant international trade agreements, as it was the first to link a developed and an emerging economy (the United States and Mexico, respectively). The agreement came into effect in 1994 and created a free trade area among Canada, Mexico, and the United States.NAFTA eliminated many tariffs on goods and services traded between the three countries, as well as certain non-tariff trade barriers. It also established new rules and regulations to protect intellectual property rights and to regulate investments and services.To determine the level of integration among individual nations, we must consider the following factors:Tariff reductions: The degree to which tariffs on goods and services have been reduced or eliminated.Non-tariff barriers: The extent to which non-tariff barriers, such as import quotas and licensing requirements, have been removed.Regulatory cooperation: The level of regulatory cooperation between the countries in areas such as intellectual property rights and investments.In terms of these factors, NAFTA represents the highest level of integration across individual nations among various international trade agreements. NAFTA removed nearly all tariffs on goods and services traded between the United States, Canada, and Mexico, and established new rules and regulations to protect intellectual property rights and regulate investments and services.Therefore, it is true that among various international trade agreements, the North American Free Trade Agreement represents the highest level of integration across individual nations.

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The American Marketing Association defines marketing as "the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large."a. Trueb. False

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The statement the American Marketing Association defines marketing as "the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society at large is true because to assist marketers in acquiring the skills necessary to stay on top of new trends and advance their long-term professional growth.

AMA offers specialty conferences, one-day hot subject seminars, bootcamps, and workshops. Credible, scholarly research that has undergone peer review serves as the foundation for the American Marketing Association. The AMA Academic Community supports innovative thinking, encourages working connections, and improves the area of marketing by bringing together academics from other fields who are eager to find solutions to pressing issues.

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During adolescence, (racial centrality/private regard) increases and (racial centrality/private regard) remains stable. racial centrality; private regard.

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During adolescence, racial centrality increases and private regard remains stable.

What is adolescence? Adolescence is a developmental stage that occurs after childhood and before adulthood, typically between the ages of 10 and 19. It is a period of substantial physical, psychological, and social transformation. Adolescence is a period of transition, growth, and challenges, as well as an opportunity for development and creativity. Racial Centrality and Private Regard

During adolescence, racial centrality increases, and private regard remains stable. Adolescents' perception of their race or ethnicity is known as racial centrality, and it appears to play an essential role in their identity formation.

Private regard is an individual's emotional response to his or her race or ethnicity, as well as an assessment of his or her own worth as a member of that race or ethnicity. Private regard, unlike racial centrality, is stable throughout adolescence, indicating that adolescents' self-worth as members of a particular racial or ethnic group remains consistent throughout this critical developmental period, according to research by researchers at Stanford University's School of Education in California.

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label each sampling type as either biased or unbiased. labels can be used more than once.

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snowball sampling, purposive sampling and convenience sampling are biased. systematic sampling, probability sampling and stratified random sampling are unbiased.

Probability sampling is a type of sampling method in which each member of a population has an equal chance of being selected for the sample. This method is considered to be the most reliable and accurate way of obtaining a representative sample from a larger population. Probability sampling can be done using various accounts techniques, including simple random sampling, stratified random sampling, and cluster sampling.

In simple random sampling, each member of the population is selected randomly and independently, while in stratified random sampling, the population is divided into strata or subgroups, and random samples are taken from each stratum. Cluster sampling involves dividing the population into clusters or groups, and random samples are taken from each group.

the complete question is:

label each sampling type as either biased or unbiased. labels can be used more than once.

snowball sampling

purposive sampling

convenience sampling

systematic sampling

probability sampling

stratified random sampling

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.the him manager tasked the coding manager to development a dashboard that shows the discharges pending final billing so that she can plan for staffing. because this data changes throughout the day, what analysis technique is needed?

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The analysis technique required in this scenario is Real-Time Analysis. Real-time analytics is a type of business analytics that uses data generated by devices, machines, sensors, and people in real-time or near-real-time to identify patterns, gain insight, and guide business decisions.

To ensure that the manager can plan for staffing based on the changing data of discharges pending final billing, an analysis technique that can track and analyze data in real time analysis is needed. One such technique is streaming analytics, which can process large amounts of data and identify patterns in real-time.

Real-Time Analysis is similar to other types of data analytics, except that it is performed on data as it is created or entered, rather than on data that has been stored and collected over time. Real-time analysis is required in this case because the data changes throughout the day.

Real-Time Analysis can be useful when immediate decision-making is required, as is the case with discharges pending final billing, which necessitates staffing considerations based on real-time data.

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the purpose of recording an allowance for uncollectible accounts is to: multiple choice report accounts receivable at the net amount expected to be collected. report net sales conservatively. record the sales returns and allowances. report accounts receivable for the total amount of sales in the period.

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An allowance for uncollectible accounts is recorded for the following reasons: C. Declare the net realizable value of accounts receivable.

What is the reason for recording a recompense for uncollectible records?

The motivation behind the stipend for dubious records is to appraise the number of clients that out of the 100 won't pay everything they owe. The company will charge a bad debt expense and credit allowance for questionable accounts rather than waiting to see how payments go exactly. The remittance for uncollectible records is determined by duplicating the receivable equilibrium in the different maturing classifications (see table underneath) by a hold rate. Because older receivables are less likely to be collected, a higher reserve rate is applied to them.

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in 2010, new health insurance plans had to cover all fda-approved methods of birth control without cost sharing. what does it mean to be covered without cost sharing?

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To be covered without cost-sharing means that the health insurance plan must cover the full cost of a particular service or treatment.

Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA) of 2010, health insurance plans are required to cover certain preventive services, including FDA-approved methods of birth control, without imposing co-payments, deductibles, or coinsurance on the individual.

This means that if an individual is covered under a health insurance plan that is subject to the ACA's provisions, they can access FDA-approved methods of birth control without any out-of-pocket costs.

Covering preventive services without cost-sharing is intended to make it easier for individuals to access necessary care and to reduce financial barriers to preventive care. It is important to note that not all health insurance plans are subject to the ACA's provisions, and some plans may offer different levels of coverage for preventive services.

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when the bank returns a check for which there is not enough money in the bank to cover it, what do we call the check? responses free free bounced bounced uncovered uncovered irresponsible

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The term commonly used for a check that is returned by the bank due to insufficient funds in the account is B: "bounced check".

A bounced check is a check that has been written for an amount greater than the available balance in the account from which it was drawn. When the bank processes the check and finds that there are insufficient funds to cover it, they return the check to the account holder, marked as "bounced" or "NSF" (non-sufficient funds).

This can result in additional fees and penalties for the account holder, as well as damage to their credit rating. Bounced checks can also have consequences for the recipient of the check, who may face delays in receiving payment and incur fees for depositing a bounced check.

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helmuth inc's latest net income was $1,050,000, and it had 225,000 shares outstanding. the company wants to pay out 45% of its income. what dividend per share should it declare? do not round your intermediate calculations. group of answer choices $2.10 $2.39 $1.74 $1.97 $2.54

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The dividend per share that the company should declare is $2.10 per share. Therefore, the correct option is A.

The question requires you to determine the amount of dividend per share that the company should announce, given the latest net income and the number of outstanding shares. The steps that you need to follow to calculate the dividend per share are as follows:

Step 1: Calculate the total amount of dividends to be paid out by the company.

Dividend = 45% × Net Income

Dividend = 45% × $1,050,000

Dividend = $472,500

Step 2: Determine the dividend per share.

Dividend per share = Total Dividend / Number of Outstanding Shares

Dividend per share = $472,500 / 225,000

Dividend per share = $2.10

Thus, the amount of dividend per share that the company should declare is $2.10 per share, which is option A.

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Which of the following is an example of a project that belongs to the functional area of accounting and finance?Select one:a. Installing a revenue management systemb. Planning a firm's initial public offeringc. Annual performance and compensation reviewd. Market research study

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One example of a project that belongs to the functional area of accounting and finance is annual performance and compensation review.

What is Accounting and Finance?

Accounting and Finance refer to the two separate but related fields that deal with the management of money. Accounting is a subset of finance that focuses on the collection, classification, and analysis of financial transactions and their consequences.

Finance, on the other hand, is concerned with the management of money, including its acquisition, allocation, and investment.The functional area of accounting and finance is responsible for financial management, control, and analysis, as well as the planning and implementation of financial strategies. It is the area of the company that oversees all financial matters, including budgeting, forecasting, financial reporting, taxation, and risk management.

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inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time. a. true b. false

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Answer:

The correct option is A) True. Inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time.

Explanation:

What are inflation-indexed treasury bonds?

Inflation-indexed treasury bonds (I-bonds) are a type of treasury bond (T-bond) that is linked to the rate of inflation. The United States Treasury Department issued I-bonds in 1998. Treasury bonds are bonds sold by the United States government, and they are regarded as one of the safest investments. These bonds are considered to be an investment vehicles because they have a fixed interest rate.The benefits of investing in inflation-indexed treasury bonds are as follows: When you invest in I-bonds, your investment is shielded from inflation, which ensures that the value of your investment increases over time.You will receive interest on your investment in addition to the money you invested. I-bonds have a set maturity date, which ensures that you will receive the entire amount you invested plus the interest earned at the time of maturity. In conclusion, inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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The correct option is A) True. Inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time.

What are inflation-indexed treasury bonds?

Inflation-indexed treasury bonds (I-bonds) are a type of treasury bond (T-bond) that is linked to the rate of inflation. The United States Treasury Department issued I-bonds in 1998. Treasury bonds are bonds sold by the United States government, and they are regarded as one of the safest investments. These bonds are considered to be an investment vehicle because they have a fixed interest rate.

In conclusion, inflation-indexed treasury bonds are intended for investors who wish to ensure that the returns on their investments keep up with the increase in prices over time. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.

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nikita enterprises has bonds on the market making annual payments, with seven years to maturity, a par value of $1,000, and selling for $950. at this price, the bonds yield 6 percent. what must the coupon rate be on the bonds? (do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)

Answers

Nikita Enterprises has bonds on the market with annual payments, seven years to maturity, a par value of $1,000, and are selling for $950. If the bonds are yielding 6%, the coupon rate must be 6.95%.

The coupon rate on a bond refers to the annual interest paid to the bondholder in percentage form. It is calculated by dividing the annual interest payment by the par value of the bond.

To determine the coupon rate for the Nikita Enterprise bond, the formula for calculating bond yields must be used: $950 = $1000 / (1 + r)7.

Using algebra to solve for r, we can rewrite this equation as $950 * (1 + r)7 = $1000. Expanding the left side of this equation, we get $950 + $950 * r * 7 = $1000. Simplifying this, we have $950 * r * 7 = $50, so r = 0.0695 or 6.95%.Therefore, the coupon rate on the bonds is 6.95%.

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What is a positive element of narrowcasting from the consumer’s prospective?
Select one:
a. Narrowcasting makes it easier to create television shows that resonate with a broad audience, like Game of Thrones or Stranger Things.
b. Without narrowcasting, programs that are narrowly tailored to specific interest wouldn’t exist.
c. Narrowcasting helps huge audiences find popular shows on major networks.

Answers

The positive element of narrowcasting from the consumer's perspective is: b. Without narrowcasting, programs that are narrowly tailored to specific interests wouldn't exist.

What is a positive element of narrowcasting from the consumer’s prospective?

Narrowcasting allows for the creation of content that is specifically targeted to niche audiences, which may not be served by more general programming.

This means that consumers with specific interests or preferences can find content that speaks directly to them, rather than having to sift through a sea of more generic programming. In this way, narrowcasting helps to increase the diversity of programming available to consumers and allows for a more personalized viewing experience.

Therefore the correct option is B.

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Alberto plans to apply for a car loan. When should he check his credit report?
a) 1 week before applying for the loan
b) 1 month before applying for the loan
c) Around 3 to 6 months before applying for the loan
d) He does not need to check his credit report

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Alberto plans to apply for a car loan. It is ideal to check his credit report around 3 to 6 months before applying for the loan option (c) . This will allow him enough time to identify and fix any errors, dispute any inaccuracies, and take steps to improve his credit score, if necessary.

A credit report is a record of your borrowing history, including loans, credit cards, and other forms of credit. Credit reports contain information about the amount you owe and how you repay your debts, as well as other financial information that may influence your ability to receive credit. Your credit report is an essential component of your credit score, which is a measure of your creditworthiness. Credit scores are used by lenders to determine whether to grant you credit, and at what interest rate.

A credit report contains several key components, including the following: Personal Information: This includes your name, address, social security number, and other identifying information. Creditors use this information to verify your identity and ensure that your credit history is accurate. Credit History: This section contains a list of your current and past credit accounts, including credit cards, mortgages, car loans, and other forms of credit. This section also includes information about the amount you owe, your payment history, and any delinquent accounts.

Public Records: This section includes any public records associated with your credit history, including bankruptcies, tax liens, and judgments. Inquiries: This section contains a list of companies or individuals who have requested a copy of your credit report. Hard inquiries can negatively impact your credit score, so it is important to limit the number of inquiries you have on your credit report. Improving your credit score requires a long-term commitment to responsible credit behavior. Some tips for improving your credit score include the following:

Pay your bills on time. Late payments can have a significant negative impact on your credit score. Keep your credit card balances low. High balances can also negatively impact your credit score. Don't close unused credit accounts. This can lower your credit utilization ratio, which is a key component of your credit score. Review your credit report regularly. Identify and dispute any errors or inaccuracies, and take steps to improve your credit score over time.

Thus option (c) is correct.

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Tarzak Inc. has earnings of $10 per share, and investors expect that the earnings per share will grow by 3 percent per year. Furthermore, the mean PE ratio of all other firms in the same industry as Tarzak is 15. Tarzak is expected to pay a dividend of $3 per share over the next four years, and an investor in Tarzak requires a return of 12 percent. The estimated stock price of Tarzak today should be ____ using the adjusted dividend discount model.

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In the following question, in the missing blank, Given that,  the estimated stock price of Tarzak today should be "$34.33" using the adjusted dividend discount model.

Tarzak Inc. has earnings of $10 per share, and investors expect that the earnings per share will grow by 3 per cent per year. Furthermore, the mean PE ratio of all other firms in the same industry as Tarzak is 15. Tarzak is expected to pay a dividend of $3 per share over the next four years, and an investor in Tarzak requires a return of 12 per cent.

We have to calculate the estimated stock price of Tarzak today using the adjusted dividend discount model. The formula used for the Adjusted Dividend Discount Model is, P0 = D1 /(kg)Where, P0 = estimated stock price, D1 = the dividend expected one year from now, k = the required rate of return, g = the growth rate of dividends.

The value of P0 using the adjusted dividend discount model is calculated as P0 = 3(1.03) / (0.12 - 0.03)P0 = 3.09 / 0.09P0 = $34.33 Therefore, the estimated stock price of Tarzak today should be $34.33 using the adjusted dividend discount model.

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many companies, called allied industries, do not sell food directly but are still deeply involved in the food industry. the dairy industry is a good example of an allied industry.

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The dairy industry is an example of an allied industry that does not sell food directly but is still deeply involved in the food industry.

What are the allied industries?

Allied industries provide an important role in the food industry by providing services such as the production, packaging, distribution, and marketing of food products. These services enable the food industry to produce, store, and distribute food to consumers.


Many companies, called allied industries, do not sell food directly but are still deeply involved in the food industry. The dairy industry is a good example of an allied industry. Allied industries refer to the economic activity created by indirect and direct economic ties between suppliers of goods and services and those who make goods and services available to customers.

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shirley, a u.s. citizen, has invented a solar-powered amplifier that can be used in small speakers, such as bluetooth speakers, to increase the volume up to five times. she decides to apply for a patent for this device in the united states. if she receives approval for the patent, what would be the duration of patent protection?

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Shirley, a U.S. citizen, has invented a solar-powered amplifier that can be used in small speakers, such as Bluetooth speakers, to increase the volume up to five times. She decides to apply for a patent for this device in the United States. If she receives approval for the patent, the duration of patent protection would be 20 years.

What is a patent?

A patent is a legal document granted by a government that gives the patent holder exclusive rights to use, manufacture, and sell an invention for a certain amount of time. The inventor may gain the right to prevent other people from manufacturing, selling, or utilizing their invention. There are a few requirements for getting a patent, such as uniqueness, non-obviousness, usefulness, and public disclosure.

What is the duration of patent protection?

The duration of patent protection is the length of time during which the patent holder may exercise their exclusive rights. Patent protection lasts for a set amount of time, typically 20 years from the filing date of the patent application, according to the United States Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO). After that time, the patent holder must relinquish their exclusive rights, and the invention enters the public domain, becoming available for others to utilize or sell.

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which of the following describe two limitations of using an international strategy? (check all that apply.)

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Option (a) and (b), Two drawbacks of employing an international approach are the inability to benefit from new developments and innovations occurring in regional markets and the restricted capacity to react to regional markets.

What serves as the overarching goal of global strategy?

Employing an international strategy entails concentrating on selling goods and services on worldwide markets, or vice versa, importing resources and supplies for use domestically from other nations.

The initial step in most organizations' global development plans is often an international strategy, which involves exporting or importing goods and services while keeping a head office or offices in their home nation. There isn't a single strategy that works for all business endeavors that include worldwide expansion.

What are the disadvantages of becoming global?

The drawbacks to take into account when a firm expands abroad are as follows: difficult supply chains. Communication difficulties might result from time zone, linguistic, and cultural issues. Account settlement and debt collection can develop into a drawn-out and tiresome process.

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The complete question is:

Which of the following describe two limitations of using an international strategy? (check all that apply.)

inability to take advantage of new ideas and innovations occurring in local marketslimited ability to adapt to local marketsnot able to use the local resourcesnot able to adapt to the environment

the world's best coffee beans come from costa rica. therefore, the more costa rican beans in a blend of coffee, the better the blend; and no company purchases more costa rican beans than superior coffee. which positioning strategy is the company demonstrating?

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The company Superior Coffee is demonstrating the positioning strategy of attribute-based positioning.

Attribute-based positioning is a positioning strategy in which a product's distinct characteristics are highlighted to convey the product's advantage over other brands. The advertising campaign for the brand of the product may emphasize the exclusive features of the product by stating that these attributes are what make the product superior to other brands, which can prompt the consumers to choose this product over other brands.

Superior Coffee is a coffee company that claims to have the best blend of coffee. They claim that the more Costa Rican beans in a coffee blend, the better the blend. Superior Coffee, according to the company's claim, is the only brand that purchases more Costa Rican beans than any other brand.

Therefore, the company is highlighting the Costa Rican beans as their unique selling point or attribute, and they claim that no other brand can offer as many Costa Rican beans as they do. Superior Coffee is demonstrating attribute-based positioning by highlighting the distinct feature of Costa Rican beans in their coffee blend to promote their brand as unique and superior.

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