A car travels down the road for 535 m in 17.3 s. What is the velocity of the car in m/s and in km/h?

Complete question is;

A rope, under a tension of 153 N and fixed at both ends, oscillates in a second harmonic standing wave pattern. The displacement of the rope is given by

y = (0.15 m) sin[πx/3] sin[12π t].

where x = 0 at one end of the rope, x is in meters, and t is in seconds. What are (a) the length of the rope, (b) the speed of the waves on the rope, and (c)the mass of the rope? (d) If the rope oscillates in a third - harmonic standing wave pattern, what will be the period of oscillation?

Answer:

A) Length of rope = 4 m

B) v = 24 m/s

C) m = 1.0625 kg

D) T = 0.11 s

Explanation:

We are given;

T = 153 N

y = (0.15 m) sin[πx/3] sin[12πt]

Comparing this displacement equation with general waveform equation, we have;

k = 2π/λ = π/2 rad/m

ω = 2πf = 12π rad/s

Since, 2π/λ = π/2

Thus,wavelength; λ = 4 m

Since, 2πf = 12π

Frequency;f = 6 Hz

A) We are told the rope oscillates in a second-harmonic standing wave pattern. So, we will use the equation;

λ = 2L/n

Since second harmonic, n = 2 and λ = L = 4 m

Length of rope = 4 m

B) speed is given by the equation;

v = fλ = 6 × 4

v = 24 m/s

C) To calculate the mass, we will use;

v = √T/μ

Where μ = mass(m)/4

Thus;

v = √(T/(m/4))

Making m the subject;

m = 4T/v²

m = (4 × 153)/24²

m = 1.0625 kg

D) Now, the rope oscillates in a third harmonic.

So n = 3.

Using the formula f = 1/T = nv/2L

T = 2L/nv

T = (2 × 4)/(3 × 24)

T = 0.11 s

Explanation:

(a) Given that,

Area of a parallel plate capacitor, [tex]A=1.8\ cm^2=1.8\times 10^{-4}\ m^2[/tex]

The separation between the plates of a capacitor, [tex]d=0.01\ mm = 10^{-5}\ m[/tex]

The dielectric constant of, k = 2.1

When a dielectric constant is inserted between parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance is given by :

[tex]C=\dfrac{k\epsilon_o A}{d}[/tex]

Putting all the values we get :

[tex]C=\dfrac{2.1\times 8.85\times 10^{-12}\times 1.8\times 10^{-4}}{0.01\times 10^{-3}}\\\\C=3.345\times 10^{-10}\ F\\\\C=334.5\ pF[/tex]

(b) We know that the Teflon has dielectric strength of 60 MV/m, [tex]E=60\times 10^6\ V/m[/tex]

The voltage difference between the plates at this critical voltage is given by :

[tex]V=Ed\\\\V=60\times 10^6\times 0.01\times 10^{-3} \\\\V=600\ V[/tex]

or

V = 0.6 kV

We have that the Capacitance and potential difference is mathematically given as



Question Parameters:

having a plate area of 1.80 cm2 and a plate separation of 0.010 0 mm

having a plate area of 1.80 cm2 and a plate separation of 0.010 0 mm.

a)

Generally the equation for the Capacitance  is mathematically given as

[tex]C=\frac{ke_0A}{d}\\\\Therefore\\\\C=\frac{2.1*1.80e-4*8.85e12}{0.01e-3}\\\\[/tex]

C=334.68pF

b)

Generally the equation for the Capacitance  is mathematically given as

[tex]Vmax=\frac{Q}{C}[/tex]

Where

Q is the charge on the plates, and hence not given

Therefore, maximum potential difference is

[tex]Vmax=\frac{Q}{334.68pF}[/tex]

For more information on potential difference visit

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Answer:

Ultraviolet light from the sun.

Explanation:

This is an example of radiation.

Answer:

X-Ray

Explanation:

x-Ray is an example of radiation.

Explanation:

Hey, there!

Here, In question given that,

potential difference (V)= 8V

resistance (R)= 10 ohm

Now,

According to the Ohm's law,

V= R×I { where I = current}

or, I = V/R

or, I = 8/10

Therefore, current is 4/5 A or 0.8 A.

(A= ampere = unit of current).

Hope it helps...

Answer:

D) diffraction

Explanation:

Corona is an optical phenomenon produced by the diffraction of sunlight or moonlight, as light moves through water droplets in the atmosphere.

This phenomenon produces one or more diffuse concentric rings of light around the Sun or Moon, usually seen as colored circles.

Therefore, the explanation for these phenomena of colored concentric circles, sometimes seen with the Sun or the Moon involves diffraction.

Answer:

The actual distance is  [tex]d_a = 0.3233\ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The  distance of the can is d =  43 cm  =  0.43 m

Generally the actual distance is mathematically represented as

         [tex]d_a = [\frac{ n_a }{n_w} ]* d[/tex]

Where  [tex]n_a , n_w[/tex] are the refractive index of air and water and their value is  

         [tex]n_a = 1 , \ \ \ n_w = 1.33[/tex]

So

       [tex]d_a = [\frac{ 1 }{1.33} ]* 0.43[/tex]

       [tex]d_a = 0.3233\ m[/tex]

Answer:

only in or near star-forming clouds

Explanation:

CHECK COMPLETE QUESTION BELOW

you weigh 685 NN on the earth, what would be your weight on the surface of a neutron star that has the same mass as our sun and a diameter of 25.0 kmkm ? Take the mass of the sun to be msmsm_s = 1.99×1030 kgkg , the gravitational constant to be GGG = 6.67×10−11 N⋅m2/kg2N⋅m2/kg2 , and the free-fall acceleration at the earth's surface to be ggg = 9.8 m/s2m/s2 .

Answer:

5.94×10^15N

Explanation:

the weight on the surface of a neutron star can be calculated by below expresion

W= Mg

W= weight of the person

m= mass of the person

g=gravity of the neutron star

But we need the mass which can be calculated as

m= W/g

m= 685/9.81

m= 69.83kg

From the gravitational law equation we have

F= GMm/r^2

G= gravitational constant = 6.67x10⁻¹¹

M= mass of the neutron star = 1.99x10³⁰ kg

r = distance between the person and the surface

Then r can be calculated as = 25/2 = 12.5 km , we divide by two because it's the distance between the person and the surface

g=gravity of the neutron star can be calculated as

g=(6.67×10^-11 ×1.99×10^30)/(12.5×10^3)^2

= 8.50×10^13m/s^2

Then from W= mg we can find our weight

W= 8.50×10^13m/s^2 × 69.83

= 5.94×10^15N

Therefore, weight on the surface of a neutron star is 5.94×10^15N

Answer:

y = 12.82 m

Explanation:

We can solve this exercise using the energy work theorem

          W = ΔEm

friction force work is

          W = fr . s = fr s cos θ

the friction force opposes the movement, therefore the angle is 180º

           W = - fr s

we write Newton's second law, where we use a reference frame with one axis parallel to the plane and the other perpendicular

           N -Wy = 0

           N = mg cos θ

the friction force remains

            fr = μ N

            fr = μ mg cos θ

work gives

           W = - μ mg s cos θ

initial energy

           Em₀ = ½ m v²

the final energy is zero, because it stops

we substitute

          - μ m g s cos θ = 0 - ½ m v²

          s = ½ v² / (μ g cos θ)

let's calculate

          s = ½ 20² / (0.55 9.8 cos 20)

          s = 39.49 m

this is the distance it travels along the plane, to find the vertical distance let's use trigonometry

            sin 20 = y / s

           y = s sin 20

           y = 37.49 sin 20

           y = 12.82 m

Answer:

a. 0.058°

b.  0.117°

Explanation:

a. The angular position of the first-order is:

[tex] d*sin(\theta) = m\lambda [/tex]

[tex] \theta = arcsin(\frac{m \lambda}{d}) = arcsin(\frac{1* 590 \cdot 10^{-9} m}{0.580 \cdot 10^{-3} m}) = 0.058 ^{\circ} [/tex]

Hence, the angular position of the first-order, two-slit, interference maxima is 0.058°.

b. The angular position of the second-order is:

[tex] \theta = arcsin(\frac{m \lambda}{d}) = arcsin(\frac{2* 590 \cdot 10^{-9} m}{0.580 \cdot 10^{-3} m}) = 0.12 ^{\circ} [/tex]

Therefore, the angular position of the second-order, two-slit, interference maxima is 0.117°.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

The frequency of the coil is 7.07 Hz

Explanation:

Given;

number of turns of the coil, 200 turn

cross sectional area of the coil, A = 300 cm² = 0.03 m²

magnitude of the magnetic field, B = 30 mT = 0.03 T

Maximum value of the induced emf, E = 8 V

The maximum induced emf in the coil is given by;

E = NBAω

Where;

ω is angular frequency = 2πf

E = NBA(2πf)

f = E / 2πNBA

f = (8) / (2π x 200 x 0.03 x 0.03)

f = 7.07 Hz

Therefore, the frequency of the coil is 7.07 Hz

Answer:

a) 3.6 ft

b) 12.4 ft

Explanation:

Distance between mirrors = 6.2 ft

difference from from the mirror you face = 1.8 ft

a) you stand 1.8 ft in front of the mirror you face.

According to plane mirror rules, the image formed is the same distance inside the mirror surface as the distance of the object (you) from the mirror surface. From this,

your distance from your first "front" image = 1.8 ft + 1.8 ft = 3.6 ft

b) The mirror behind you is 6.2 - 1.8 = 4.4 ft behind you.

the back mirror will be reflected 3.6 + 4.4 = 8 ft into the front mirror,

the first image of your back will be 4.4 ft into the back mirror,

therefore your distance from your first "back" image = 8 + 4.4 = 12.4 ft

Answer:In the case of two proton beams the protons repel one another because they have the same sign of electrical charge. There is also an attractive magnetic force between the protons, but in the proton frame of reference this force must be zero! Clearly then the attractive magnetic force that reduces the net force between protons in the two beams as seen in our frame of reference is relativistic. In particular the apparent magnetic forces or fields are relativistic modifications of the electrical forces or fields. As such modifications, they cannot be stronger than the electrical forces and fields that produce them. This follows from the fact that switching frames of reference can reduce forces, but it can’t turn what is attractive in one frame into a repulsive force in another frame.

In the case of wires the net charges in two wires are zero everywhere along the wires. That makes the net electrical forces between the wires very nearly zero. Yet the relativistic magnetic forces and fields will be of the same sort as in the case of two beams of charges of a single sign. This is true even in the frame of reference of what we think as the moving charges, that is, the electrons. In the frame of reference moving at the drift velocity of these current-carrying electrons, it is the protons or positively charged ions that are moving in the other direction. Consequently in any frame of reference for current-carrying wires in parallel, the net electrical force will be essentially zero, and there will be a net attractive magnetic force

Explanation:                                                                              

Explanation:

Particles with similar charges (both positive or both negative) will always repel each other, regardless of their speed or direction.

Answer:

testable

Explanation:

high heat can cause browning and or welting

Answer:

A

Explanation:

If it is tested, it will really changed when the plant into low temperature

Answer:

velocity and acceleration

Answer:

Hey there!

Centripetal (Circular Motion) and Oscillating Motion.

Let me know if this helps :)

Answer:

2f

Explanation:

The formula for the object - image relationship of thin lens is given as;

1/s + 1/s' = 1/f

Where;

s is object distance from lens

s' is the image distance from the lens

f is the focal length of the lens

Total distance of the object and image from the lens is given as;

d = s + s'

We earlier said that; 1/s + 1/s' = 1/f

Making s' the subject, we have;

s' = sf/(s - f)

Since d = s + s'

Thus;

d = s + (sf/(s - f))

Expanding this, we have;

d = s²/(s - f)

The derivative of this with respect to d gives;

d(d(s))/ds = (2s/(s - f)) - s²/(s - f)²

Equating to zero, we have;

(2s/(s - f)) - s²/(s - f)² = 0

(2s/(s - f)) = s²/(s - f)²

Thus;

2s = s²/(s - f)

s² = 2s(s - f)

s² = 2s² - 2sf

2s² - s² = 2sf

s² = 2sf

s = 2f

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the race be of a fixed distance x

[tex]Average Speed = \frac{Total Distance}{Total Time}[/tex]

Troy's Average speed = 3 miles/hr = x / 0.2 hr

x = 0.6 miles

Abed's Average speed = 0.6 / 0.125 = 4.8 miles/hr

Answer:

E = -8.23 ​​10⁻¹⁷ N / C

Explanation:

In the Bohr model, the electric potential for the ground state corresponding to the Bohr orbit is

         E = k q₁ q₂ / r²

in this case

q₁ is the charge of the proton and q₂ the charge of the electron

         E = - k e² / a₀²

let's calculate

         E = - 9 10⁹ (1.6 10⁻¹⁹)² / (0.529 10⁻¹⁰)²

         E = -8.23 ​​10⁻¹⁷ N / C

Answer:

the voltage drop across this same diode will be 760 mV

Explanation:

Given that:

Temperature T = 300°K

current [tex]I_1[/tex] = 100 μA

current [tex]I_2[/tex] = 1 mA

forward voltage [tex]V_r[/tex] = 700 mV = 0.7 V

To objective is to find the voltage drop across this same diode  if the bias current is increased to 1mA.

Using the formula:

[tex]I = I_o \begin {pmatrix} e^{\dfrac{V_r}{nv_T}-1} \end {pmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]I_1 = I_o \begin {pmatrix} e^{\dfrac{V_r}{nv_T}-1} \end {pmatrix}[/tex]

where;

[tex]V_r[/tex] = 0.7

[tex]I_1 = I_o \begin {pmatrix} e^{\dfrac{0.7}{nv_T}-1} \end {pmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]I_2 = I_o \begin {pmatrix} e^{\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}-1} \end {pmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{I_1}{I_2} = \dfrac{ I_o \begin {pmatrix} e^{\dfrac{0.7}{nv_T}-1} \end {pmatrix} }{ I_o \begin {pmatrix} e^{\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}-1} \end {pmatrix} }[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{100 \ \mu A}{1 \ mA} = \dfrac{ \begin {pmatrix} e^{\dfrac{0.7}{nv_T}-1} \end {pmatrix} }{ \begin {pmatrix} e^{\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}-1} \end {pmatrix} }[/tex]

Suppose n = 1

[tex]V_T = \dfrac{T}{11600} \\ \\ V_T = \dfrac{300}{11600} \\ \\ V_T = 25. 86 \ mV[/tex]

Then;

[tex]e^{\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}-1} = 10 \begin {pmatrix} e ^{\dfrac{ 0.7} { nV_T} -1} \end {pmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]e^{\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}-1} = 10 \begin {pmatrix} e ^{\dfrac{ 0.7} { 25.86} -1} \end {pmatrix}[/tex]

[tex]e^{\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}-1} = 5.699 \times 10^{12}[/tex]

[tex]{e^\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}} = 5.7 \times 10^{12}[/tex]

[tex]{\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}} =log_{e ^{5.7 \times 10^{12}}}[/tex]

[tex]{\dfrac{V_r'}{nv_T}} =29.37[/tex]

[tex]V_r'=29.37 \times nV_T[/tex]

[tex]V_r'=29.37 \times 25.86[/tex]

[tex]V_r'=759.5 \ mV[/tex]

[tex]Vr' \simeq[/tex] 760 mV

Thus, the voltage drop across this same diode will be 760 mV

Answer:

External force    W₁ = F L

Friction force    W₂ = - fr L

weight component   W₃ = - mg sin θ L

Y Axis   Force      W=0

Explanation:

When the block rises up the plane with constant velocity, it implies that the sum of the forces is zero.

For these exercises it is indicated to create a reference system with the x axis parallel to the plane and the y axis perpendicular

let's write the equations of translational equilibrium in given exercise

X axis

        F - fr -Wₓ = 0

        F = fr + Wₓ

the components of the weight can be found using trigonometry

         Wₓ = W sin θ

         [tex]W_{y}[/tex] = W cos θ

let's look for the work of these three forces

          W = F x cos θ

External force

          W₁ = F L

since the displacement and the force have the same direction

Friction force

          W₂ = - fr L

since the friction force is in the opposite direction to the displacement

For the weight component

          W₃ = - mg sin θ L

because the weight component is contrary to displacement

Y Axis  

          N- Wy = 0

in this case the forces are perpendicular to the displacement, the angle is 90º and the cosine 90 = 0

therefore work is worth zero

Answer:

N₁ = 1800 turns

So, the side of the transformer that plugs into the outlet has 1800 turns.

Explanation:

The transformer turns ratio is given by the following equation:

V₁/V₂ = N₁/N₂

where,

V₁ = Voltage of outlet = 120 V

V₂ = Device Voltage = 3 V

N₁ = No. of turns on outlet side = ?

N₂ = No. of turns on side of device = 45

Therefore,

120 V/3 V = N₁/45

N₁ = (40)(45)

N₁ = 1800 turns

So, the side of the transformer that plugs into the outlet has 1800 turns.

Answer:

D. A convex lens in air

Explanation:

This is because the air tight plastic under water will reflect light rays in the same manner as a convex lens

Answer:

Therefore, we need an invert, and a rectifier, along with the transformer to do the job.

Explanation:

A transformer, alone, can not be used to convert a DC voltage to another DC voltage. If we apply a DC voltage to the primary coil of the transformer, it will act as short circuit due to low resistance. It will cause overflow of current through winding, resulting in overheating pf the transformer.

Hence, the transformer only take AC voltage as an input, and converts it to another AC voltage. So, the output voltage of a transformer is also AC voltage.

So, in order to convert a 6 V DC to 1.5 V DC we need an inverter to convert 6 V DC to AC, then a step down transformer to convert it to 1.5 V AC, and finally a rectifier to convert 1.5 V AC to 1.5 V DC.

Therefore, we need an invert, and a rectifier, along with the transformer to do the job.

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

The water collects in the ocean; it is then evaporated by the sun. After evaporation the water turns into water vapor, it then condenses to form clouds.

The ocean water prior to the part of the water cycle should be option B.

The ocean water should be collected back in the ocean prior to the part of the water cycle.

Because this should be done when it is evaporated by the sun.  When the evaporation is done so the water should be transformed into water vapor.

Find out more information about the  Water here:brainly.com/question/4381433?referrer=searchResults

Answer:

1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Explanation:

Applying,

E = 1/2CV²................... Equation 1

Where E = Energy stored in the capacitor, C = capacitance of the capacitor, V = Voltage of the battery.

Given; C = 1.0 nF,  = 1.0×10⁻⁹ F, V = 1.5 V

Substitute into equation 1

E = 1/2(1.0×10⁻⁹×1.5²)

E = 1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Hence the energy stored by the capacitor is 1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Answer:

a. to the west.

Explanation:

An electron in a magnetic field always experience a force that tends to change its direction of motion through the magnetic field. According to Lorentz left hand rule (which is the opposite of Lorentz right hand rule for a positive charge), the left hand is used to represent the motion of an electron in a magnetic field. Hold out the left hand with the fingers held out parallel to the palm, and the thumb held at right angle to the other fingers. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron though the field, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the particle.

In this case, if we point the thumb (which shows the direction we shot the electron) to the south (towards your body), with the palm (shows the direction of the force) facing up to the roof, then the fingers (the direction of the field) will point west.

Answer:

10%

Explanation:

Efficiency = work done / energy used

e = (10 m × 100 N) / (10,000 J)

e = 0.1

The efficiency is 0.1, or 10%.

Answer:

Explanation:

Let B= bead

Q = rod

the electric field at the glass bead pocation is

(Gauss theorem)

E = Q / (2 π d L εo)

the force is

F = q E = q Q / (2 π d L εo)

then

Q = 2 π d L εo F / q

Q = 2*3.14*4x10^-2*10^-1*8.85x10^-12*910x10^-4 / 5x10^-9 = 2.87x10^-8 C = 40.5 nC

Answer:

there are over 100 billion stars in our galaxy.