2. There is a total of six individual items in this category.
The human skull is made up of two parts, the cranium, which contains the face and the brain and the only movable bone called the mandible or lower jaw.
The features that are medial to the cranium and the mandible are those structures that are nearer to the mid-line.
The above mentioned features works together to provide the following functions of the cranium:
protection of the delicate structures including the brain, eye and the inner ear.maintaining patency of the nasal passage enabling breathing.the movement of the mandible allows chewing.Learn more here:
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.
What molecules transfer heredity from parents to offspring?
Answer:
a molecule called DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is passed from adult organisms to their offspring during reproduction.
DNA molecules transfer heredity from parents to offspring.
What is DNA?DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid exists considered the genetic material that transmits genes from Parents to offspring. DNA exists found almost inside every cell. The molecular structure of DNA existed discovered by James Watson and Francis Crick in the year 1953. They obtained Nobel Prize for it in the year 1962.
DNA exists created up of molecules called nucleotides. Each nucleotide contains three elements: a phosphate group, which stands for one phosphorus atom bonded to four oxygen atoms; a sugar molecule; and a nitrogen base.
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A degraded ecosystem is replaced with a different but productive ecosystem type, one that might even include some nonnative species. For example, a degraded forest might be replaced with a productive pasture.a. passive restoration b. remediation c. partial restoration d. rehabilitation e. complete restoration
Answer:
d. rehabilitation
Explanation:
Technology-associated rehabilitation is an ecological practice that allows a degraded area to be restored, rehabilitating all its degraded habitats. However, this restoration is not done naturally, but is caused by human intervention, which can cultivate the entire plant population in the area, even adding non-native species, which are selected to leave the productive area, but ecologically harmonious.
Which tool is a meteorologist most likely to depend on to collect information from the
upper atmosphere?
Answer:
Anemometer is the most likely meteorologist to collect information from the high atmosphere.
Explanation:
A device to measure wind velocity and direction is an anemometer. It's also a common meteorological tool. The name comes from the Greek phrase anemos that means wind and is used to designate any meteorological wind speed instrument.
Anemometer uses
The anemometer is used for the following purposes other than to measure the wind speed:
For wind pressure measurementIn order to measure wind flowMeasuring the wind directionIt is used to assess weather conditions before testing its gadgets by drone users or RC aircraft usersUsed also by snipers and pilots of long-rangeSkydivers are used to assessing wind speed before they spring into the abyss.Used to measure airspeed in aerodynamicsAnswer:
weather balloon
Explanation:
Calculate the fractional saturation for hemoglobin when the partial pressure of oxygen is 78 mm Hg. Assume hemoglobin is 50% saturated with oxygen at a partial pressure of 24 mm Hg and that the Hill coefficient is 3.
Answer:
YO2 = 0.98
Explanation:
Which process produces a phase change for water molecules? What is the factor that drivers this process?
Explanation:
I think this is the answer i try to do it
3. Explain the main difference between organisms of the
domains Bacteria and Archaea and organisms of the domain
Eukarya.
Answer:
Both Bacteria and Archaea are prokaryotes, single-celled microorganisms with no nuclei, and Eukarya includes us and all other animals, plants, fungi, and single-celled protists – all organisms whose cells have nuclei to enclose their DNA apart from the rest of the cell.
Explanation:
Both Bacteria and Archaea are prokaryotes, single-celled microorganisms with no nuclei, and Eukarya includes us and all other animals, plants, fungi, and single-celled protists – all organisms whose cells have nuclei to enclose their DNA apart from the rest of the cell.
A dead zone refers to Group of answer choices a) terrestrial areas in which excessive nitrogen fertilizer has essentially burned the soil, preventing plants and microorganisms from living there. b) oligotrophic areas in water bodies that cannot support life due to lack of nutrients. c) an ecosystem that was cleared of all vegetation for slash and burn agriculture. d) hypoxic areas in water bodies that limit marine and aquatic life.
Answer:
The correct answer is d) hypoxic areas in water bodies that limit marine and aquatic life.
Explanation:
A dead zone are oxygen-deprived regions, that is, they are large bodies of water that contain little or no oxygen, both in the depths and near the coasts in the oceans. Aquatic and marine dead zones can be caused by climate change, a product of human activity. When the temperature is high, the water does not have the same density and there is less exchange between the depths of the hydrogen peroxide and the surface water, and these no longer receive oxygen. Marine fauna, not finding the oxygen necessary for their survival, end up suffocating due to the lack of oxygen. They may also have reproductive problems and diseases, making it difficult for them to survive.
How old is the sun?
Our little teenage Sun is nearly 4.6 billion years old.
Indicate whether each of the following descriptions is true of microtubules (MT), microfilaments (MF), intermediate filaments (IF), or none of these (N). More than one response may be appropriate for some statements.
(a) Involved in muscle contraction.
(b) Involved in the movement of cilia and flagella.
(c) More important for chromosome movements than for cytokinesis.
(d) More important for cytokinesis than for chromosome movements in animal cells.
(e) Most likely to remain when cells are treated with solutions of nonionic detergents or solutions of high ionic strength.
(f) Structurally similar proteins are found in bacterial cells.
(g) Their subunits can bind and catalyze hydrolysis of phosphonucleotides.
(h) Can be detected by immunofluorescence microscopy.
(i) Play well-documented roles in cell movement.
(j) The fundamental repeating subunit is a dimer.
MT,
MF,
IF,
MT and MF,
MT and IF ,
MT, IF, MF.
Answer:
(a) Microfilaments
(b) Microtubules
(c) Microtubules
(d) Microfilaments
(e) Intermediate filaments
(f) Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules
(g) Microfilaments, microtubules
(h) Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules
(i) Microtubules, microfilaments
(j) Microtubules
Explanation:
Microtubules (MTs) are dimers of the protein tubulin (alpha- and beta-tubulin subunits) and they are major components of the cytoskeleton. MTs play diverse cellular roles including, mechanical support (cytoskeleton), transport, motility, chromosome segregation, etc. Microfilaments (MFs) are protein filaments that also form part of the cytoskeleton in eukaryotic cells. MFs consist of G-actin monomers assembled in linear actin polymers, and their functions include mechanical support, cytokinesis, changes in cell shape, amoeboid movement, endocytosis and exocytosis, etc. MFs associate with the protein myosin to generate muscle contractions. Actin filaments/MTs assembly from monomeric actin/tubulin is caused due to energy expenditure, where ATP/GTP bound to actin/tubulin is hydrolyzed during polymerization. Finally, intermediate filaments (IFs) are a type of cytoskeletal element composed of a heterogeneous group of structural elements, and they are not found in all eukaryotes. The primary function of the IFs is to contribute to the mechanical support for the plasma membrane where these filaments come into contact with other cells and/or with the extracellular matrix. The IFs are not directly involved in cell movement. All 3 types of cytoskeletal elements (microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules) can be visualized by fluorescence microscopy when cells express chimeric MT/IF/MF.–GFP fusion proteins.
A true reversion occurs when the wild-type DNA sequence is restored to encode its original message by a second mutation at the same site or within the same codon. Which of the following isoleucine codon(s) could be mutated once to form a methionine codon, and then mutated at a second site to restore an isoleucine codon?
A. AUC.
B. AUU.
C. AUA.
D. None of these codons.
Answer:
The correct answer is option d- none of these.
Explanation:
The genetic code for methionne is AUG and genetic code for isoleucine are AUC, AUA, AUU. As we can see that there are first two codons are similar for both methionine and isoleucine.
So mutation at to any other site other than third psostion not possible that can convert isoleucine to methionine and this same mutation site is the only mutation position mutation can revere back methionine to isoleucine.
Thus, none of the given can restore an isoleucine codon.
Use the coordinates of the labeled point to find the point-slope equation of
the line
-5
5
-5
(3.-5)
O A. y+ 5 = -3(x - 3)
B. y- 5 = -3(x+3)
C. y + 5 = 3(x+3)
O D. Y-3 - (x+5)
Answer:
A. y + 5 = -3(x - 3)
Explanation:
Given the following data;
Points on the graph (x1, y1) = (3, -5)
Points on the graph (x2, y2) = (0, 4)
First of all, we would determine the slope of the equation of line;
Mathematically, the slope of a line is given by the formula;
[tex] Slope, \ m = \frac {Change \; in \; y-axis}{Change \; in \; x-axis} [/tex]
[tex] Slope, \ m = \frac {y_{2} - y_{1}}{x_{2} - x_{1}} [/tex]
Substituting into the formula, we have;
[tex] Slope, \ m = \frac {4 - (-5)}{0 - 3} [/tex]
[tex] Slope, \ m = \frac {4 + 5}{0 - 3} [/tex]
[tex] Slope, \ m = \frac {9}{-3} [/tex]
Slope, m = -3
Next, to find the point-slope equation of the line, we would use the following formula;
y - y1 = m(x - x1)
y - (-5) = -3(x - 3)
y + 5 = -3x + 9
y = -3x + 9 - 5
y = -3x + 4 = mx + c
number of chiasmata during the stage of diakinesis:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) there is no kiazma
Explain the answer
Answer:
a because it harm the people
a scientist is is using a microscope to observe a type of bacteria
Answer:
If your question is: Which two structures would the scientist most likely see? Then:
A scientist is using a microscope to observe a type of bacteria. The scientist most likely see cell wall and vacuole.
What are three techniques that can be used to show that the electron transport chain is found on the matrix side of the inner mitochondrial membrane. Select all that apply.
Answer:
Explanation:
Step 1: Generating a Proton Motive Force
The hydrogen carriers (NADH and FADH2) are oxidised and release high energy electrons and protons
The electrons are transferred to the electron transport chain, which consists of several transmembrane carrier proteins
As electrons pass through the chain, they lose energy – which is used by the chain to pump protons (H+ ions) from the matrix
The accumulation of H+ ions within the intermembrane space creates an electrochemical gradient (or a proton motive force)
Step Two: ATP Synthesis via Chemiosmosis
The proton motive force will cause H+ ions to move down their electrochemical gradient and diffuse back into matrix
This diffusion of protons is called chemiosmosis and is facilitated by the transmembrane enzyme ATP synthase
As the H+ ions move through ATP synthase they trigger the molecular rotation of the enzyme, synthesising ATP
Step Three: Reduction of Oxygen
In order for the electron transport chain to continue functioning, the de-energised electrons must be removed
Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor, removing the de-energised electrons to prevent the chain from becoming blocked
Oxygen also binds with free protons in the matrix to form water – removing matrix protons maintains the hydrogen gradient
In the absence of oxygen, hydrogen carriers cannot transfer energised electrons to the chain and ATP production is halted
There is a Y chromosome gene in humans that has two alleles influencing hair growth on the pinna (external ear). One allele causes very hairy ears. The phenotypic effect of the other allele is to not have hairy ears. A man with hairy ears and a woman without hairy ears are starting a family. What is the probability their first child will be a girl with hairy ears
Answer:
Since the gene is located on the Y chromosome, and the Y chromosome is absent in females, the probability their first child will be a girl with hairy ears is zero
Explanation:
Y-linkage, also known as holandric inheritance is a form of sex linkage in which inherited traits in offsprings are produced by genes located on the Y chromosome. The Y chromosome is one of the sex-determining chromosomes and is present only in males. Males have a copy of the Y chromosome and an X chromosome while females have two copies of the X chromosome.
For a trait that is linked to the Ychromosome, the phenotypic effect occurs only in males and is always manifested in these males. Since the Y chromosome is absent in females, the character and its phenotypic effect are absent from daughters of trait carriers. Therefore, all daughters will be normal.
Since the gene for hair growth onnthe pinna is located on the Y chromosome, and the Y chromosome is absent in females, the probability their first child will be a girl with hairy ears is zero.
The probability that their first child will be a girl with hairy ears is zero.
The sex chromosomes in humans are the X and Y chromosomes. They determine the sex of a baby and also carry the sex linked traits. A baby girl results from XX and a baby boy results from XY.
We are told that this gene for hairy ears is located on the Y chromosome. This chromosome is absent in a girl child. hence, the probability that their first child will be a girl with hairy ears is zero.
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5: Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by
a. Finding bacteria in pathological fluids
b. Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or blood
c. Boh a and b
d. None of these
**
Answer:
c. Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by finding bacteria in pathological fluids and by isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or blood.
explain the importance of studying cytology
the importance of studying cytology are
Explanation:
Cytology is important in modern-day medicine as well. Cytological tests are used to observe human cells to determine the risk of abnormalities and cancer. The Pap smear test looks at cells as opposed to pieces of tissue and is used to screen women for cervical cancer.i hope it will help you
Answer this question properly
Answer:
Hindi ko alam heheeExplanation:
ssorry pog 33. Humans are bipedal omnivores (we eat both meat and plants, and we walk upright.) What features of the skull reflect this
Answer:
Since Skull is the most complete fossil, the features of the skull that reflects Humans as bipedal omnivores are: The teeth and the foramen magnum.
Explanation:
Humans are bipedal because they can move with their two legs, and they are omnivores because of their ability to eat both meat and plants.
The teeth on a skull are the most important indicators of what an animal eats, and it even shows if an animal is a predator or prey. Humans have different sets and shapes of teeth for different purposes making them an example of heterodont dentition.
The pelvis, knee, and foot bones should be the best to tell us about how an animal moves, however, the foramen magnum which opens for the spinal cord to pass to the brain, could also show whether how the animal moved.
What’s the main reason why cell specialization is important
Explanation:
because we know that cell makes up organ and organ makes organ system and this system makes organism....cell is also the structural and functional unit of life it there were no cell specialization then mitosis and meosis wont take place neither cell division
Complete these sentences by matching the phrases below.
When light
waves are
emitted by a
moving source,
scientists can
?
the Doppler effect.
measure:
Scientists smash
together tiny bits
of matter using:
?
cosmic microwave
background radiation,
Scientists
extrapolate
backwards in
time to derive:
?
particle accelerators.
The extremely
low temperature
of outer space
can be explained
as:
?
the Big Bang theory
NEED HELP ASAP!
The Doppler Effect talks about the frequency of sound and light as the source and person move. So, When light waves are emitted by a moving source, scientists can measure = the Doppler effect.
Cosmic microwave background radiation has the word "cosmic" in it, so you can assume it has to do with space automatically. There is radiation in space too, so I'm pretty sure that The extremely low temperature of outer space can be explained as = cosmic microwave background radiation.
Particle accelerators are these big machines that usually smash protons/electrons together, so Scientists smash together tiny bits of matter using = particle accelerators.
And now, by process of elimination and because the Big Bang Theory talks about the creation of Earth, we know that Scientists extrapolate backwards in time to derive = the Big Bang Theory.
Which of the following statements about the law of conservation of matter is correct?
O Matter cannot be created, destroyed or transformed
O Matter can be created and destroyed, while still being transformed
O Matter cannot be created or destroyed, it can only be transformed
Answer:
3, Matter cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed
Answer:
matter cannot be created and or destroyed,it can only be transformed
Below is a mature eukaryotic mRNA transcript. Translate this mRNA into a protein, also showing the tRNA anticodons involved. Make sure you start and end translation in the right place! Label the ends of the polypeptide chain as N and C terminus.
mRNA: 5'GMUUACAUGCGGCUCAGUUGAGGCGAAAAAA 3'
tRNA:
amino acids:
Answer:
mRNA ⇒ 5'GMU UAC AUG CGG CUC AGU UGA GGC GAA AAA A 3'
tRNA ⇒ UAC GCC GAG UCA ACU
protein ⇒ N - MET ARG LEU SER Stop - C
Explanation:
In protein synthesis, the ribosome reads mRNA in the 5´ to 3´ direction, and, according to the codons that are being readen, tRNA transfers the correct amino acids to build the polypeptide chain. A codon is a short sequence of three nucleotides that store the genetic information for the aminoacids´ assembly. Each tRNA has two important sites. One of them that couples with the codon of the mRNA molecule, named anticodon. The other site couples with an amino acid. tRNA allows amino acids to align according to the nucleotidic sequence in the mRNA molecule.
Once the new amino acid links to the growing peptidic chain, the binding between the amino acid and the tRNA molecule breaks. The tRNA is now free to join another amino acid and repeat the cycle.
The protein is synthesized from the amino terminus to the carboxy terminus, while the added amino acids to the chain are coded by a codon formed by three bases in the mRNA. mARNs also have a start and end codon that are the signals of the synthesis initiation and finish. When the ribosome reaches the end codon, protein synthesis is over.
Each of the codons represents one of the 20 amino acids used to build the protein. Each amino acid can be codified by more than one codon. From the total 64 codons, 61 codify amino acids, and one of them is a start codon. The left three codons are stopping translation points.
The codons indicating the initiation or stop points during the translation process are:
• The start codon AUG is the most common sequence used by eukaryotic cells and places near the 5´extreme of the molecule.
• The end codons are UAA, UAG, UGA.
Protein synthesis initiates in the AUG start codon -Metionin-, and ends when reaching either of the stop codons UAA, UAG, UGA.
In the exposed example we have the following mRNA.
mRNA ⇒ 5'GMU UAC AUG CGG CUC AGU UGA GGC GAA AAA A 3'
Codons are separated by a space left between them. AUG is the start codon placed near the 5´ extreme. UGA is the end codon near the 3´ extreme. tRNA will add amino acids from the start codon, not before.
tRNA ⇒ UAC GCC GAG UCA ACU
Anticodons are separated by a space left between them.
protein ⇒ N - MET ARG LEU SER Stop - C
Each mRNA codon codifies for an amino acid. The start codon codifies for methionine. AUG = Met, CGG = Arg, CUC = Leu, AGU = Ser, UGA = Stop codon. The amino terminus is represented as an N and the carboxy terminus is a C. The first extreme to be translated carries the amino-terminal group, while the other extreme carries the carboxy-terminus group.
Which group of bacteria reduces nitrate to nitrogen gas in the nitrogen cycle? Nitrogen fixing bacteria C. denitrifying bacteria Ammonium ion forming bacteria D. photosynthetic bacteria
Answer:
C. denitrifying bacteria
Explanation:
Nitrogen cycle consists of series of processes that add and remove nitrogen from the soil and atmosphere. There are several ways in which nitrogen can be added to the atmosphere including nitrification, ammonification, lightning etc.
Certain bacteria are responsible for the conversion of nitrogen from one compound form to another. In a process called DENITRIFICATION, nitrate (NO3-), which is the usable form of nitrogen by plants, is converted back to atmospheric nitrogen (N2) with the help of a bacteria called DENITRIFYING BACTERIA e.g Pseudomonas etc.
A carrot would be an example of a _______ system
a carrotwould be an example of a top Root system
Which organisms always have groups of cells organized into tissues?
Answer:
All living things
Explanation:
The main form of lipid found in the food we eat is
The main form of lipid found in the food we eat is
Answer:
Triacylglycerols
Explanation:
Triacylglycerols are the main form of lipid found in the body and in the diet. Fatty acids and glycerol are the building blocks of triacylglycerols. Glycerol is a thick, smooth, syrupy compound that is often used in the food industry.
Write on the formation of fruits and seeds as well as alternation of generation in bryophytes.
Answer:
Fruit and seeds formation takes place due to the diffusion and fertilization of ovary.
Explanation:
After the process of pollination and fertilization the seed are forced by the fertilized ovule that is divided by the meiosis and formation of seeds completes the processes and has the potential of developing into a new plant under the optimal conditions. The ovary of the plant develops into fruits and ovules develop into seeds. Seed formation competes for the reproduction of plants. Bryophytes are small noon vascular flowering plants such as mosses.What is NOT an effect of growth hormone?
a. Growth hormone directly stimulates osteoblasts in the periosteum to promote appositional growth.
b. Growth hormone increases the rate of mitosis in the epiphyseal plate of growing bones.
c. Growth hormone promotes the closure of the epiphyseal plate.
d. Growth hormone increases the activity of osteogenic cells.
C. Growth hormone promotes the closure of the epiphyseal plate.
The closure of the epiphyseal plate is NOT an effect of growth hormone (option c).
The epiphyseal plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage between the epiphyses and metaphyses at the ends of long bones.
The epiphyseal plate is completely closed when bone growth is completed (around age 18 to 21 years).
Different hormones (i.e., testosterone and estrogen) released at puberty initiate the closure of epiphyseal plates.
In conclusion, the closure of the epiphyseal plate is NOT an effect of growth hormone (option c).
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oxygen is carried by blood to all the cells of body in the form of ___________
Answer:
Oxygen is carried by blood to all the cells of the body in the form of haemoglobin.
Explanation:
Oxygen is carried in the blood in two forms:
(1) dissolved in plasma and red blood cells water (about 2% of the total)
(2) reversibly bound to haemoglobin (about 98% of the total).
Haemoglobin is a protein in the red blood cells and carries oxygen around our bodies. At the same time, carbon dioxide that is dissolved in the blood comes out of the capillaries back into the air sacs, ready to be breathed out.
