You want to make a one-time deposit today that will increase in value to $100 at the end of this year. Which rate of interest will allow you to deposit the least amount today to reach this goal

Answer:

the effective annual interest earned on the account is 6.25%.

Explanation:

The effective annual interest earned on the account can be calculated as follows :

PV = - $150,000

N = 10

PMT = $0

P/yr = 1

FV = $275,000

R = ?

Using a Financial calculator, the  effective annual interest, R, earned on the account will be : 6.2488 or 6.25%.

Answer: True

Explanation:

The quality improvement teams are groups of employees that are from various departments who come together and meet regularly in order to define, analyze, and then solve common production problems.

The aim of the quality improvement team is to improve the production process. This is achievable by them working on their methods.

Answer:

PV= $45,879.68

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cash flow= $4,000 annually

n= 20

i= 6% compunded annually

The maximum that an investor should pay is the present value (PV).

First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual cash flow

FV= {4,000*[(1.06^20) - 1]} / 0.06

FV= $147,142.36

Now, we can calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 147,142.36/(1.06^20)

PV= $45,879.68

Answer:

James and Short LLC

Short's capital account on July 1, 20X1 should be recorded at the fair value of contributed property minus the mortgage liability, which the partnership assumed.

Explanation:

The fair value of contributed property is the current market value of the contributed property by Short.  It is the market value that will determine how the contributed property can be valued.  The market value assumes that the contributed property is being sold in pieces and not as a whole.  This is why the value is considered a fair basis for recognizing the capital contribution of Short into the partnership.

Answer:

risk premium increases by more of the low - beta stock

A risk averse investor is an investor that avoids risk. if risk aversion increases, it means that the investor is more wary of risky investment.

Beta measures the volatility of a portfolio. the higher the volatility, the more risky the portfolio is.

risk premium measures the rate of return in excess of the risk free rate.

According to CAPM :

risk free rate + (beta x stock risk premium)

Beta is a multiplier of stock risk premium, so the higher the beta, the more there would be an increase in the stock risk premium

If a risk averse investor invests in a high beta stock, he would want extra or higher compensation for holding such a volatile stock. this extra compensation would be in the form of a higher risk premium.

Explanation:

Answer:

If output rises to 57,000 units, what will the percentage change in operating cash flow be?

What is the operating cash flow at 46,000 units?

The degree of operating leverage (at 46,000 units)?

Explanation:

degree of operating leverage = [quantity x (price - variable costs)] / {[quantity x (price - variable costs)] - fixed costs}

degree of operating leverage x {[quantity x (price - variable costs)] - fixed costs} = [quantity x (price - variable costs)]

3.21 x {[53000 x (contribution margin)] - fixed costs} = [53000 x (contribution margin)]

(3.21 x 53000 x contribution margin) - (3.21 x 175000) = 53000 x contribution margin

let C = contribution margin

170130C - 561750 = 53000C

117130C = 561750

C = 561750 / 117130 = 4.795953

operating cash flow (at 53,000) = (53,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $79,185.52

operating cash flow (at 57,000) = (57,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $98,369.32

% change = ($98,369.32 - $79,185.52) / $79,185.52 = 24.23%

operating cash flow (at 46,000) = (46,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $45,613.84

% change in operating cash flows = ($45,613.84 - $79,185.52) / $79,185.52 = -43.4%

% change in sales = (46,000 - 53,000) / 53,000 = -13.21

degree of operating leverage = $220,613.84 / $45,613.74 = 4.84

Answer: B. ask

Explanation:

The ask also known as the offer price is the price at which seller is willing to sell a security after which the buyer must have stated a bid price of how much he or she wants to pay for the security.  The bid price is known to be always lower than the ask price , of which the difference between both prices is called a bid-ask spread.

For example, if an investor wants to buy a security, he or she  will first determine  how much the seller  is willing to sell it for, which is the  ask price--- least price the seller  is willing to sell the security for. However on the other hand, the seller in order to sell his or her security will first determine the highest price at which a buyer would be willing to pay for the  security.

Answer: $293,350

Explanation:

The carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment will be the addition of the received proceed and the ammortized discount. This will be:

= $293,000 + $350

= $293,350

Note that the ammortized discount was calculated as:

= ($300000 - $293000)/20

= $7000/20

= $350

Answer:

Advisor A

Explanation:

t bill rate = 0.05

market rate = 0.13

the beta of the market is always 1

the rate of return= 0.05 + (0.13 - 0.05) x 1

= 0.13

which is 13%

this is for advisor A.

with a return of 20% and 1.5 beta

0.05 + ( 0.20 - 0.05) x 1.5

= 27.5% for advisor b

when the return is 15% and beta is 1.2

0.05 + (0.15 - 0.05) x 1.2

= 17%

Therefore advisor a is better

Answer: c. shut down because it would cost more to produce and sell output than it would to shut down and lose all fixed costs.

Explanation:

The profit maximizing, monopolistically competitive firm maximises profit at the point where marginal revenue equals marginal costs.

If this point is below Average variable costs then that means that the company is not making enough to cover its variable costs. Should this be the case then the company should shutdown operations because variable costs are only there when the company is producing. If they shutdown then they will no longer incur them which would be the cheaper option.

They would take losses on the fixed costs but these have already been incurred so it would be better to lose the fixed costs than continue to make losses on variable costs.

Answer:

a.) reorder point = 2,640 units

b.) reorder point = 5,280 units (reorder point doubles)

c.) reorder point = 1,320 units (reorder point drops in half)

Explanation:

Reorder point is the inventory level (point) at which action is taken (order placed) to replenish the stocked item. It is calculated as follows:

Reorder point = (Lead time × average daily sales) + safety stock

Lead time = 24 days

average daily sales = 110 units

safety stock = 0 (not given)

a.) reorder point = (Lead time × average daily sales) + safety stock

reorder point = (24 × 110) + 0 = 2,640 units

b.) if demand during lead time doubles:

lead time = 24 days

average daily sales = (110 × 2) = 220

∴ reorder point = 220 × 24 = 5,280 units

Therefore the reorder point doubles

c.) if demand during lead time drops in half:

lead time = 24 days

average daily demand = (110 ÷ 2) = 55 units

∴ reorder point = 24 × 55 = 1,320 units

Therefore the reorder point drops in half.

Answer:

Since there is not enough room here, I used an excel spreadsheet and attached it.  

Explanation:

                                                  Year 2                            Year 3

                                 First  Second   Third     Fourth       First  

Budgeted prod.  72,000 102,000 162,000 112,000     82,000

in bottles

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Team can be defined as way in which group of people or individuals come together in one accord in order to carryout a task or an assignment for the purpose of achieving their aim,goals or objectives, which is why working together as a team either in a company or an organisation is vital and paramount because it help to create unity among employees and to enable the employees to interact and effectively coordinate their work activities with one another which will lead to the growth and success of the organisation or company.

Full question reads;

The issue of _____ concerns how often a particular project will be repeated and what its lifespan will be.

 a.     frequency

b.    consumption

c.     pressures

d.    rules

Answer:

a.     frequency

Explanation:

Indeed, no particular human project can last forever, so there is a need to ascertain the frequency of a project, detailing how often the project would be repeated so as to also determine what the project's lifespan will be.

For example, a road construction project may take into account how often the road would be used, which provides insight into the frequency of road repairs and the overall lifetime of the car.

The issue of _____ concerns how often a particular project will be repeated and what its lifespan will be.

Answer:

The present value of the perpetuity is $12,242.27.

Explanation:

A perpetuity is an annuity that provide cash flow for an infinite period .Examples are Non -redeemable Preference Share.

Present Value (perpetuity) = Payments ÷ Required Rate

But, first change the 7.50 % nominal rate to Annual Effective Rate to match the period of Cash flow.

Effective Rate = (1 + r / m)^m - 1

                       = ( 1 + 0.0750 / 12) ^12 -1

                       = 7.76%

Therefore, Present Value (perpetuity) = $950 ÷  7.76%

                                                              = $12,242.27

At the certain interest rate, present value (PV) is the current value of a future sum of money or stream of cash flows.

The discount rate determines the present value of the cash flows, and the higher the discount rate, the lower the current value of future cash flows.

The present value of the perpetuity is $12,242.27.

A perpetuity is an annuity that payments out during an indefinite period of time. Non-redeemable Preference Share is an example.

Present Value (perpetuity) = [tex]\frac{\text{Payments}}{\text{Required Rate}}[/tex]

However, to match the Working capital period, change a 7.50 percent nominal rate to a Yearly Effective Tax rate.

[tex]\text{Effective Rate} = (1 + \frac{r}{m} )^m - 1= [1 + \frac{0.0750}{12}]^{12} -1= 7.76\%[/tex]

Therefore, Present Value (perpetuity)= [tex]\frac{\$950}{7.76\%} = $12,242.27[/tex]

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Answer:

Goodwill Impairment (Debit)

           Goodwill (Credit)

Explanation:

In case goodwill is impaired, then the entry to record this impairment will be Goodwill Impairment Debit and Goodwill Credit.

By crediting the Goodwill, the account will be reduced. This shows that the business is currently worth less than is accounted for. The Goodwill account is reduced to identify this difference.

The Impairment loss is an expense and must be reflected in the income statement. Therefore, while we reduce Goodwill amount from balance sheet. We record the expense on the income statement, which would mean that the current year profit amount will be reduced.

Answer:

b. $866

Explanation:

Annual demand from the question = D = $500

the ordering cost = S = $200

then the cost of carrying H = $15

we have to calculate the economic order quantity

= sqr(2*D*S)/H

= sqr(2 x 500 x 200)/25

= sqr(13333.3333)

this equals 115.469

which is approximately 115.5

next we have to calculate inventory ordering cost

= (D * S)/EOQ

= 200 *500/115.5

= 865.5

When approximated becomes $866

The inventory ordering cost using the economic order quantity is: B. $866.

First step is to calculate the Economic order quantity

Economic order quantity =√(2×D×S)/H

Where:

D=Annual demand=$500

S=Ordering cost=$200

H=Holding cost =$15

Let plug in the formula

Economic order quantity =(2 x 500 x 200)/15

Economic order quantity =√200,000/15

Economic order quantity =√13333.3333

Economic order quantity =115.46

Economic order quantity = 115.5 (Approximately)

Second step is to calculate the inventory ordering cost using this formula

Inventory ordering cost= (Annual demand× Ordering cost )/Economic order quantity  

Let plug in the formula

Inventory ordering cost= (200×500)/115.5

Inventory ordering cost=100,000/115.5

Inventory ordering cost=$865.8

Inventory ordering cost=$866 (Approximately)

Inconclusion the inventory ordering cost using the economic order quantity is: B. $866.

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Answer: Selecting an appropriate negotiation team

Explanation:

The first step toward initiating efficient and effective international business negotiations is selecting an appropriate negotiation team.

When an appropriate negotiation team has been selected to negotiate on behalf of a particular company, negotiation becomes easier and are more feasible and both parties can agree on a particular stance.

Answer:

A

D

Explanation:

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.

Because the IRR of both projects are positive, both projects are acceptable.

If the manager can only choose one project, she should choose the one with the higher IRR because it would be more profitable.

Answer:

BROOKLYN LTD

The selling price should be set at Shs. 15,000.  At this price, there are more sales in unit and value than at the selling price of Shs. 24,000.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                            Shs. 15,000   Probability  Expected Sales

Forecasted Sales Volume     20,000              10%         2,000

Forecasted Sales Volume     30,000              60%       18,000

Forecasted Sales Volume     40,000              30%       12,000

Total Expected sales                                                     32,000

Total Sales Value = Shs. 480,000,000 (Shs. 15,000 x 32,000)

                                       Shs. 24,000     Probability  Expected Sales

Forecasted Sales Volume       8,000              10%             800

Forecasted Sales Volume     16,000              30%          4,800

Forecasted Sales Volume    20,000              30%          6,000

Forecasted Sales Volume    24,000              30%          7,200

Total Expected sales                                                      18,800

Total Sales Value = Shs. 451,200,000 (Shs. 24,000 x 18,800)

Answer:

$1 = 500 Pesos

1 Pesos = $0.002

Explanation:

$125 = 62,500 Pesos

$1 = 62,500 / 125

$1 = 500 Pesos

$1 = 500 Pesos

1 Pesos = $1 / 500

1 Pesos = $0.002

Answer:

B. singing a writing communicates the seriousness of the occasion to the singer

The reason which is not important for parties to memorialize their agreements in writing is  signing a writing communicates the seriousness of the occasion to the signer. Thus, the correct answer is C.

Agreement refers to consent of individual on a particular opinion. When the both parties agree on a concept they will make it in writing. When this agreement enforceable by law it is considered as contract.

The reason it is important top memorialize the agreements in writing are it will act as proof or evidence when formulated in written to be presented in case of obligation.

An agreement will be duly signed by both the parties which shows its authenticity and reliability and avoid any false interpretation of the deal. When the agreement is in writing the violation of terms and conditions is not possible as it clearly mentions the drawbacks of circumstances if any party failed to fulfill the conditions of the agreement.

Therefore, the option C signing a writing communicates seriousness is the appropriate answer.

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Answer:

The risk premium on market is 8%

Explanation:

The CAPM or Capital Asset Pricing Model is used to calculate the required rate of return on a stock which is the minimum return that is expected or required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk as measured by the beta of the stock.

The formula to calculate r under the CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * rpM

Where,

To calculate the risk premium on market, we will input the available values for r, rRF and beta in the equation above.

0.158 = 0.07 + 1.1 * rpM

0.158 - 0.07 = 1.1 * rpM

0.088 / 1.1 = rpM

rpM = 0.08 or 8%

So, the risk premium on market is 8%

Answer:

d) will become an importer of tomatoes.

Explanation:

Consumer surplus would increase because the price at which they buy tomatoes would reduce while producer surplus would reduce because the price of tomatoes would reduce as a result of international trade.

Consumer surplus is the difference between the willingness to pay of a consumer and the price of the good.Because the price of tomatoes in the US is greater than the price of tomatoes in the world, when the US begins international trade, it would import tomatoes because it is inefficient in the production of tomatoes.  

Producer surplus is the difference between the price of a good and the least price the seller is willing to sell the product

Answer:

false

Explanation:

while open space arrangement increases communication, it also increases noise, distractions, and loss of privacy.

Answer:

b. False

Explanation:

Although open space arrangement in a workstation increases communication , yet such communication would eventually lead to an increase noise, distractions and loss of privacy. This is the reason why modern organizations preferred the use of cubicle in demarcating spaces allocated to their employees.

The advantage of using cubicle as demarcation is that there will be less noise and distractions hence leads to increase in productivity . An employee would also have his or her privacy unlike an open space arrangement.

Answer: 8%

Explanation:

The load fee would be the excess percentage amount charged on the share over the Net Asset Value per share.

= [tex]\frac{Trading price per share - Net Asset Value per share}{ Net Asset Value per share}[/tex]

Net Asset value Per share = (Assets - Liabilities) / Number of shares

= (147 - 7) / 7

= $20

Load fee

= [tex]\frac{Trading price per share - Net Asset Value per share}{ Net Asset Value per share}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{21.60 - 20}{20}[/tex]

= 8%

Answer:

Excess reserve increases by $40,000

Required reserve increases by $5,000

Explanation:

In order to calculate the reserve, we need to multiply the Deposit received by a required reserve ratio.

DATA

Reserve ratio = 10%

Deposit received = $50,000

Loan to customer = $5,000

Solution

Reserve =  Deposit x Required reserve ratio

Reserve = $50,000 x 10%

Reserve = $5,000

After providing a $5,000 loan to the customer and keeping $5,000 as a reserve remaining $40,000 would be deposited in the Federal Reserve.

Answer:

C) Sales Tax

Explanation:

The Government-wide Statement of Activities shows the revenues and expenses of the government and the general revenues indicate all the taxes, aid received from other governments and earnings from investments. According to that, the answer is that the option that is considered a source of general revenue in the Government-wide Statement of Activities is sales tax.

Answer: $1.98

Explanation:

Equivalent Units of Production are used when the manufacturers have not completely finished their products for the year. This helps them express it in terms of fully manufactured units.

Using the weighted average method, the cost per equivalent unit is;

= [tex]\frac{Beginning inventory cost + Cost of current production}{Equivalent units of production}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{478,000 + 1,047,500}{770,000}[/tex]

= $1.98