Answer:
The rate of interest is 11.111%
The Deposit should be $90 today.
The future value at the end of this year will be $100.
Explanation:
Future value of $100
Present value of $100 at 11.111% = $100/11.111 = $90
The future value of a deposit today is the value after a period of one year or so periods. The rate of interest produces the discount factor that can calculate the present value of $100. To make a one-time deposit of $90 today will increase in value to $100 using an interest rate of 11.111%.
Employees in a department are considered a team only when they directly interact and coordinate work activities with each other.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Team can be defined as way in which group of people or individuals come together in one accord in order to carryout a task or an assignment for the purpose of achieving their aim,goals or objectives, which is why working together as a team either in a company or an organisation is vital and paramount because it help to create unity among employees and to enable the employees to interact and effectively coordinate their work activities with one another which will lead to the growth and success of the organisation or company.
uestion 5
BROOKLYN LTD has developed a new product and is currently considering the marketing and pricing
policy it should employ for this. Specifically, it is considering whether the sales price should be set at Shs.
15,000 per unit or at the higher level of Shs. 24,000 per unit. Sales volume at these two (2) prices is shown
in the following table:
Sales price Shs. 15,000 per Unit
Forecast Sales volume Probability
20,000
0.1
30,000
0,6
40,000
0.3
Sales price Shs. 24,000 per Unit
Forecast Sales volume Probability
8,000
0.1
16,000
0.3
20,000
0.3
24,000
0.3
Answer:
BROOKLYN LTD
The selling price should be set at Shs. 15,000. At this price, there are more sales in unit and value than at the selling price of Shs. 24,000.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Shs. 15,000 Probability Expected Sales
Forecasted Sales Volume 20,000 10% 2,000
Forecasted Sales Volume 30,000 60% 18,000
Forecasted Sales Volume 40,000 30% 12,000
Total Expected sales 32,000
Total Sales Value = Shs. 480,000,000 (Shs. 15,000 x 32,000)
Shs. 24,000 Probability Expected Sales
Forecasted Sales Volume 8,000 10% 800
Forecasted Sales Volume 16,000 30% 4,800
Forecasted Sales Volume 20,000 30% 6,000
Forecasted Sales Volume 24,000 30% 7,200
Total Expected sales 18,800
Total Sales Value = Shs. 451,200,000 (Shs. 24,000 x 18,800)
At an output level of 53,000 units, you calculate that the degree of operating leverage is 3.21. If output rises to 57,000 units, what will the percentage change in operating cash flow be? Suppose fixed costs are $175,000. What is the operating cash flow at 46,000 units? The degree of operating leverage? that the degree of operating
Answer:
If output rises to 57,000 units, what will the percentage change in operating cash flow be?
24.23%What is the operating cash flow at 46,000 units?
$45,613.84The degree of operating leverage (at 46,000 units)?
4.84Explanation:
degree of operating leverage = [quantity x (price - variable costs)] / {[quantity x (price - variable costs)] - fixed costs}
degree of operating leverage x {[quantity x (price - variable costs)] - fixed costs} = [quantity x (price - variable costs)]
3.21 x {[53000 x (contribution margin)] - fixed costs} = [53000 x (contribution margin)]
(3.21 x 53000 x contribution margin) - (3.21 x 175000) = 53000 x contribution margin
let C = contribution margin
170130C - 561750 = 53000C
117130C = 561750
C = 561750 / 117130 = 4.795953
operating cash flow (at 53,000) = (53,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $79,185.52
operating cash flow (at 57,000) = (57,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $98,369.32
% change = ($98,369.32 - $79,185.52) / $79,185.52 = 24.23%
operating cash flow (at 46,000) = (46,000 x $4.795953) - $175,000 = $45,613.84
% change in operating cash flows = ($45,613.84 - $79,185.52) / $79,185.52 = -43.4%
% change in sales = (46,000 - 53,000) / 53,000 = -13.21
degree of operating leverage = $220,613.84 / $45,613.74 = 4.84
What is the present value of a perpetuity that pays you annual, end-of-year payments of $950? Use a nominal rate (monthly compounding) of 7.50%.
Answer:
The present value of the perpetuity is $12,242.27.
Explanation:
A perpetuity is an annuity that provide cash flow for an infinite period .Examples are Non -redeemable Preference Share.
Present Value (perpetuity) = Payments ÷ Required Rate
But, first change the 7.50 % nominal rate to Annual Effective Rate to match the period of Cash flow.
Effective Rate = (1 + r / m)^m - 1
= ( 1 + 0.0750 / 12) ^12 -1
= 7.76%
Therefore, Present Value (perpetuity) = $950 ÷ 7.76%
= $12,242.27
At the certain interest rate, present value (PV) is the current value of a future sum of money or stream of cash flows.
The discount rate determines the present value of the cash flows, and the higher the discount rate, the lower the current value of future cash flows.
The present value of the perpetuity is $12,242.27.
A perpetuity is an annuity that payments out during an indefinite period of time. Non-redeemable Preference Share is an example.
Present Value (perpetuity) = [tex]\frac{\text{Payments}}{\text{Required Rate}}[/tex]
However, to match the Working capital period, change a 7.50 percent nominal rate to a Yearly Effective Tax rate.
[tex]\text{Effective Rate} = (1 + \frac{r}{m} )^m - 1= [1 + \frac{0.0750}{12}]^{12} -1= 7.76\%[/tex]
Therefore, Present Value (perpetuity)= [tex]\frac{\$950}{7.76\%} = $12,242.27[/tex]
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Suppose an item sells for $125 in the United States and for 62,500 pesos in Chile. According to the law of one price, the nominal exchange rate (pesos/dollar) should be ________.
Answer:
$1 = 500 Pesos
1 Pesos = $0.002
Explanation:
$125 = 62,500 Pesos
$1 = 62,500 / 125
$1 = 500 Pesos
$1 = 500 Pesos
1 Pesos = $1 / 500
1 Pesos = $0.002
Which of the following is not a reason why it is important for parties to memorialize their agreements in writing?
a. A party enhances his/her chances of proving that an obligation was undertaken and makes it harder for the other party to deny making the promise.
b. Signing a writing communicates the seriousness of the occasion to the signer.
c. A person's signature on a written contract provides a basis for the contract to be authenticated.
d. Writings are subject to the danger that a person might fabricate terms.
Answer:
B. singing a writing communicates the seriousness of the occasion to the singer
The reason which is not important for parties to memorialize their agreements in writing is signing a writing communicates the seriousness of the occasion to the signer. Thus, the correct answer is C.
What is an agreement?Agreement refers to consent of individual on a particular opinion. When the both parties agree on a concept they will make it in writing. When this agreement enforceable by law it is considered as contract.
The reason it is important top memorialize the agreements in writing are it will act as proof or evidence when formulated in written to be presented in case of obligation.
An agreement will be duly signed by both the parties which shows its authenticity and reliability and avoid any false interpretation of the deal. When the agreement is in writing the violation of terms and conditions is not possible as it clearly mentions the drawbacks of circumstances if any party failed to fulfill the conditions of the agreement.
Therefore, the option C signing a writing communicates seriousness is the appropriate answer.
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On January 1, a company issued and sold a $300,000, 5%, 10-year bond payable, and received proceeds of $293,000. Interest is payable each June 30 and December 31. The company uses the straight-line method to amortize the discount. The carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is:
Answer: $293,350
Explanation:
The carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment will be the addition of the received proceed and the ammortized discount. This will be:
= $293,000 + $350
= $293,350
Note that the ammortized discount was calculated as:
= ($300000 - $293000)/20
= $7000/20
= $350
Consider a university that purchases replacement chairs for its classrooms. The purchasing manager knows that the annual demand for replacement chairs is 500. The pricing schedule is as follows: Use the following Excel solution to this quantity discount problem with constant carrying cost. Carrying cost = $ 15 Ordering cost = $ 200 Annual Demand = 500
Quantity Price Q Discount Q Total Cost
100 $130 115.47 115.47 $ 66,732.05
200 $122 115.47 200.00 $ 63,000.00
500 $120 115.47 500.00 $ 63,950.00
What is the inventory ordering cost using the economic order quantity?
A. $1,000
B. $866
C. $500
D. $200
Answer:
b. $866
Explanation:
Annual demand from the question = D = $500
the ordering cost = S = $200
then the cost of carrying H = $15
we have to calculate the economic order quantity
= sqr(2*D*S)/H
= sqr(2 x 500 x 200)/25
= sqr(13333.3333)
this equals 115.469
which is approximately 115.5
next we have to calculate inventory ordering cost
= (D * S)/EOQ
= 200 *500/115.5
= 865.5
When approximated becomes $866
The inventory ordering cost using the economic order quantity is: B. $866.
First step is to calculate the Economic order quantity
Economic order quantity =√(2×D×S)/H
Where:
D=Annual demand=$500
S=Ordering cost=$200
H=Holding cost =$15
Let plug in the formula
Economic order quantity =(2 x 500 x 200)/15
Economic order quantity =√200,000/15
Economic order quantity =√13333.3333
Economic order quantity =115.46
Economic order quantity = 115.5 (Approximately)
Second step is to calculate the inventory ordering cost using this formula
Inventory ordering cost= (Annual demand× Ordering cost )/Economic order quantity
Let plug in the formula
Inventory ordering cost= (200×500)/115.5
Inventory ordering cost=100,000/115.5
Inventory ordering cost=$865.8
Inventory ordering cost=$866 (Approximately)
Inconclusion the inventory ordering cost using the economic order quantity is: B. $866.
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If an investor's aversion to risk increased, would the risk premium on a high beta stock increase by more or less than that of a low-beta stock? Explain.
Answer:
risk premium increases by more of the low - beta stock
A risk averse investor is an investor that avoids risk. if risk aversion increases, it means that the investor is more wary of risky investment.
Beta measures the volatility of a portfolio. the higher the volatility, the more risky the portfolio is.
risk premium measures the rate of return in excess of the risk free rate.
According to CAPM :
risk free rate + (beta x stock risk premium)
Beta is a multiplier of stock risk premium, so the higher the beta, the more there would be an increase in the stock risk premium
If a risk averse investor invests in a high beta stock, he would want extra or higher compensation for holding such a volatile stock. this extra compensation would be in the form of a higher risk premium.
Explanation:
A production department’s beginning inventory cost includes $478,000 of conversion costs. This department incurs an additional $1,047,500 in conversion costs in the month of March. Equivalent units of production for conversion total 770,000 for March.Required:Calculate the cost per equivalent unit of conversion using the weighted-average method.
Answer: $1.98
Explanation:
Equivalent Units of Production are used when the manufacturers have not completely finished their products for the year. This helps them express it in terms of fully manufactured units.
Using the weighted average method, the cost per equivalent unit is;
= [tex]\frac{Beginning inventory cost + Cost of current production}{Equivalent units of production}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{478,000 + 1,047,500}{770,000}[/tex]
= $1.98
The before-trade domestic price of tomatoes in the United States is $500 per ton. The world price of tomatoes is $400 per ton. The U.S. is a price-taker in the tomatoes market.
If trade in tomatoes is allowed, the United States:______
a) will experience increases in both consumer surplus and producer surplus.
b) may become either an importer or an exporter of tomatoes, but this cannot be determined.
c) will become an exporter of tomatoes.
d) will become an importer of tomatoes.
Answer:
d) will become an importer of tomatoes.
Explanation:
Consumer surplus would increase because the price at which they buy tomatoes would reduce while producer surplus would reduce because the price of tomatoes would reduce as a result of international trade.
Consumer surplus is the difference between the willingness to pay of a consumer and the price of the good.Because the price of tomatoes in the US is greater than the price of tomatoes in the world, when the US begins international trade, it would import tomatoes because it is inefficient in the production of tomatoes.
Producer surplus is the difference between the price of a good and the least price the seller is willing to sell the product
Ten years ago you put $150000.00 into an interest earning account. Today it's worth $275000. What is the effective annual interest earned on the account
Answer:
the effective annual interest earned on the account is 6.25%.
Explanation:
The effective annual interest earned on the account can be calculated as follows :
PV = - $150,000
N = 10
PMT = $0
P/yr = 1
FV = $275,000
R = ?
Using a Financial calculator, the effective annual interest, R, earned on the account will be : 6.2488 or 6.25%.
If a bank that faces a 10% reserve ratio received a deposit of $50,000 and makes a loan to a customer for $5,000, what is the consequence if the bank then deposits the rest of the funds at the Federal Reserve?
Answer:
Excess reserve increases by $40,000
Required reserve increases by $5,000
Explanation:
In order to calculate the reserve, we need to multiply the Deposit received by a required reserve ratio.
DATA
Reserve ratio = 10%
Deposit received = $50,000
Loan to customer = $5,000
Solution
Reserve = Deposit x Required reserve ratio
Reserve = $50,000 x 10%
Reserve = $5,000
After providing a $5,000 loan to the customer and keeping $5,000 as a reserve remaining $40,000 would be deposited in the Federal Reserve.
Two investment advisors are comparing performance. Advisor A averaged a 20% return with a portfolio beta of 1.5 and Advisor B averaged a 15% return with a portfolio beta of 1.2. If the T-bill rate was 5% and the market return during the period was 13%, which advisor was the better stock picker?
Answer:
Advisor A
Explanation:
t bill rate = 0.05
market rate = 0.13
the beta of the market is always 1
the rate of return= 0.05 + (0.13 - 0.05) x 1
= 0.13
which is 13%
this is for advisor A.
with a return of 20% and 1.5 beta
0.05 + ( 0.20 - 0.05) x 1.5
= 27.5% for advisor b
when the return is 15% and beta is 1.2
0.05 + (0.15 - 0.05) x 1.2
= 17%
Therefore advisor a is better
Which of the following is considered a source of general revenue in the Government-wide Statement of Activities?
A) Charges for Services
B) Operating Grants
C) Sales Tax
Answer:
C) Sales Tax
Explanation:
The Government-wide Statement of Activities shows the revenues and expenses of the government and the general revenues indicate all the taxes, aid received from other governments and earnings from investments. According to that, the answer is that the option that is considered a source of general revenue in the Government-wide Statement of Activities is sales tax.
Assuming you are a rational investor, the amount you should be willing to pay for a 20-year ordinary annuity that makes payments of $4,000 per year and you require a 6% rate of return per year is closest to:
Answer:
PV= $45,879.68
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $4,000 annually
n= 20
i= 6% compunded annually
The maximum that an investor should pay is the present value (PV).
First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual cash flow
FV= {4,000*[(1.06^20) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $147,142.36
Now, we can calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 147,142.36/(1.06^20)
PV= $45,879.68
According to the CAPM, what is the market risk premium given an expected return on a security of 15.8%, a stock beta of 1.1, and a risk-free interest rate of 7%? Multiple Choice 7.70% 6.05% 7.00% 8.00%
Answer:
The risk premium on market is 8%
Explanation:
The CAPM or Capital Asset Pricing Model is used to calculate the required rate of return on a stock which is the minimum return that is expected or required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk as measured by the beta of the stock.
The formula to calculate r under the CAPM is,
r = rRF + Beta * rpM
Where,
rRF is the risk free raterpM is the risk premium on marketTo calculate the risk premium on market, we will input the available values for r, rRF and beta in the equation above.
0.158 = 0.07 + 1.1 * rpM
0.158 - 0.07 = 1.1 * rpM
0.088 / 1.1 = rpM
rpM = 0.08 or 8%
So, the risk premium on market is 8%
It is always necessary for an agent to disclose the identity of the principal to any third person with whom he is contracting; otherwise the contract becomes void.
a. True
b. False
The _________ price is the price at which a dealer is willing to sell a security. A. bid B. ask C. clearing D. settlement
Answer: B. ask
Explanation:
The ask also known as the offer price is the price at which seller is willing to sell a security after which the buyer must have stated a bid price of how much he or she wants to pay for the security. The bid price is known to be always lower than the ask price , of which the difference between both prices is called a bid-ask spread.
For example, if an investor wants to buy a security, he or she will first determine how much the seller is willing to sell it for, which is the ask price--- least price the seller is willing to sell the security for. However on the other hand, the seller in order to sell his or her security will first determine the highest price at which a buyer would be willing to pay for the security.
Lead time for one of your fastest-moving products is 24 days. Demand during this period averages 110 units per day. a) What would be an appropriate reorder point? nothing units (enter your response as a whole number). b) How does your answer change if demand during lead time doubles? nothing units (enter your response as a whole number). c) How does your answer change if demand during lead time drops in half? nothing units (enter your response as a whole number).
Answer:
a.) reorder point = 2,640 units
b.) reorder point = 5,280 units (reorder point doubles)
c.) reorder point = 1,320 units (reorder point drops in half)
Explanation:
Reorder point is the inventory level (point) at which action is taken (order placed) to replenish the stocked item. It is calculated as follows:
Reorder point = (Lead time × average daily sales) + safety stock
Lead time = 24 days
average daily sales = 110 units
safety stock = 0 (not given)
a.) reorder point = (Lead time × average daily sales) + safety stock
reorder point = (24 × 110) + 0 = 2,640 units
b.) if demand during lead time doubles:
lead time = 24 days
average daily sales = (110 × 2) = 220
∴ reorder point = 220 × 24 = 5,280 units
Therefore the reorder point doubles
c.) if demand during lead time drops in half:
lead time = 24 days
average daily demand = (110 ÷ 2) = 55 units
∴ reorder point = 24 × 55 = 1,320 units
Therefore the reorder point drops in half.
Three grams of musk oil are required for each bottle of Mink Caress, a very popular perfume made by a small company in western Siberia. The cost of the musk oil is $2.20 per gram. Budgeted production of Mink Caress is given below by quarters for Year 2 and for the first quarter of Year 3:Budget Production, in bottlesYear 2:First 72,000Second 102,000Third 162,000Fourth: 112,000Year 3:First 82,000Musk oil has become so popular as a perfume ingredient that it has become necessary to carry large inventories as a precaution against stock-outs. For this reason, the inventory of musk oil at the end of a quarter must be equal to 20% of the following quarter’s production needs. Some 43,200 grams of musk oil will be on hand to start the first quarter of Year 2.Required:
Prepare a direct materials budget for musk oil, by quarter and in total, for Year 2. (Round "Unit cost of raw materials" answers to 2 decimal places.)
Answer:
Since there is not enough room here, I used an excel spreadsheet and attached it.
Explanation:
Year 2 Year 3
First Second Third Fourth First
Budgeted prod. 72,000 102,000 162,000 112,000 82,000
in bottles
Quality improvement teams are groups of people from various work areas who define, analyze, and solve common production problems.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
Explanation:
The quality improvement teams are groups of employees that are from various departments who come together and meet regularly in order to define, analyze, and then solve common production problems.
The aim of the quality improvement team is to improve the production process. This is achievable by them working on their methods.
The issue of _____ concerns how often a particular project will be repeated and what its lifespan will be.
Full question reads;
The issue of _____ concerns how often a particular project will be repeated and what its lifespan will be.
a. frequency
b. consumption
c. pressures
d. rules
Answer:
a. frequency
Explanation:
Indeed, no particular human project can last forever, so there is a need to ascertain the frequency of a project, detailing how often the project would be repeated so as to also determine what the project's lifespan will be.
For example, a road construction project may take into account how often the road would be used, which provides insight into the frequency of road repairs and the overall lifetime of the car.
The issue of _____ concerns how often a particular project will be repeated and what its lifespan will be.
If the price that determined where marginal revenue equaled marginal cost were below the bottom of the average variable cost curve, then the profit-maximizing, monopolistically competitive firm would
Answer: c. shut down because it would cost more to produce and sell output than it would to shut down and lose all fixed costs.
Explanation:
The profit maximizing, monopolistically competitive firm maximises profit at the point where marginal revenue equals marginal costs.
If this point is below Average variable costs then that means that the company is not making enough to cover its variable costs. Should this be the case then the company should shutdown operations because variable costs are only there when the company is producing. If they shutdown then they will no longer incur them which would be the cheaper option.
They would take losses on the fixed costs but these have already been incurred so it would be better to lose the fixed costs than continue to make losses on variable costs.
Open space arrangements in workstations increase communication and potentially decrease noise, distractions, and loss of privacy.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
false
Explanation:
while open space arrangement increases communication, it also increases noise, distractions, and loss of privacy.
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
Although open space arrangement in a workstation increases communication , yet such communication would eventually lead to an increase noise, distractions and loss of privacy. This is the reason why modern organizations preferred the use of cubicle in demarcating spaces allocated to their employees.
The advantage of using cubicle as demarcation is that there will be less noise and distractions hence leads to increase in productivity . An employee would also have his or her privacy unlike an open space arrangement.
Which is the first step toward initiating efficient and effective international business negotiations:
Answer: Selecting an appropriate negotiation team
Explanation:
The first step toward initiating efficient and effective international business negotiations is selecting an appropriate negotiation team.
When an appropriate negotiation team has been selected to negotiate on behalf of a particular company, negotiation becomes easier and are more feasible and both parties can agree on a particular stance.
The development manager is required to choose between two projects. Project A has an IRR of 25% and project B has an IRR of 30%. Which of the following statements is correct? A. If she can invest only in one project, the manager will choose project B B. None of the statements above is correct C. If she can invest only in one project, the manager will choose project A D. If she can invest in both projects, the manager will choose both projects A and B
Answer:
A
D
Explanation:
Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.
Because the IRR of both projects are positive, both projects are acceptable.
If the manager can only choose one project, she should choose the one with the higher IRR because it would be more profitable.
The Hirt & Block mutual fund has assets of $147 million, liabilities of $7 million and 7 million shares outstanding. The shares trade at $21.60 per share. What is the percentage load fee?
Answer: 8%
Explanation:
The load fee would be the excess percentage amount charged on the share over the Net Asset Value per share.
= [tex]\frac{Trading price per share - Net Asset Value per share}{ Net Asset Value per share}[/tex]
Net Asset value Per share = (Assets - Liabilities) / Number of shares
= (147 - 7) / 7
= $20
Load fee
= [tex]\frac{Trading price per share - Net Asset Value per share}{ Net Asset Value per share}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{21.60 - 20}{20}[/tex]
= 8%
On July 1, 20X1, James and Short formed a partnership. James contributed cash. Short, previously a sole proprietor, contributed property other than cash, including realty subject to a mortgage, which the partnership assumed. Short’s capital account on July 1, 20X1, should be recorded at
Answer:
James and Short LLC
Short's capital account on July 1, 20X1 should be recorded at the fair value of contributed property minus the mortgage liability, which the partnership assumed.
Explanation:
The fair value of contributed property is the current market value of the contributed property by Short. It is the market value that will determine how the contributed property can be valued. The market value assumes that the contributed property is being sold in pieces and not as a whole. This is why the value is considered a fair basis for recognizing the capital contribution of Short into the partnership.
he carrying value of Blossom’s net identifiable assets, including the goodwill, at year-end is $855,000. Prepare Cullumber’s journal entry, if necessary, to record impairment of goodwill.
Answer:
Goodwill Impairment (Debit)
Goodwill (Credit)
Explanation:
In case goodwill is impaired, then the entry to record this impairment will be Goodwill Impairment Debit and Goodwill Credit.
By crediting the Goodwill, the account will be reduced. This shows that the business is currently worth less than is accounted for. The Goodwill account is reduced to identify this difference.
The Impairment loss is an expense and must be reflected in the income statement. Therefore, while we reduce Goodwill amount from balance sheet. We record the expense on the income statement, which would mean that the current year profit amount will be reduced.
