Answer: 4%
Explanation:
Abnormal returns are the excess actual returns received over the expected return.
The actual return can be calculated as;
= [tex]\frac{New Stock price + dividends - Old Stock Price}{Old stock price}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{12 - 10 + 1}{10}[/tex]
= 30%
The expected return according to CAPM;
Expected return = Risk free rate + beta( market return - risk free rate)
= 16% + 1 ( 26% - 16%)
= 26%
Abnormal return = 30% - 26%
= 4%
Trevor Company discloses supplementary operating segment information for its three reportable segments. Data for 20X8 are available as follows:
Segment A Segment B Segment C
Sales $500,000 $300,000 $200,000
Traceable operating expenses 250,000 120,000 90,000
Allocable costs for the year was $180,000. Allocable costs are assigned based on the ratio of a segment's income before allocable costs to total income before allocable costs. The 20X8 operating profit for Segment B was:
a. $180,000
b. $120,000
c. $126,000
d. $110,000
Answer:
Operating profit of segment B = $180,000
Explanation:
The allowable cost to any of the segment would be equal to the proportion that the segment income bears to the overall total income multiplied by the allocable cost.
Mathematically, we can use the realationship below:
Allocable cost to Segment B = Sales of segment B/Total sales × Alllocable cost
Allowable cost = 180,000
Total sales = 250,000+ 120,000 + 90,000 = 460,000
Allocable cost to B = (120,000/460,000) × 180,000 = 46,956.52
Allocable cost to segment B =$46,956.52
However,the question required us to determine operation profit.
Operating profit is the excess of sales revenue over operating expenses
Operating profit of segment B-= 200,000 - 90,000 = 180,000
Operating profit of segment B = $180,000
Stock Investment Transactions On September 12, 2,000 shares of Aspen Company were acquired at a price of $50 per share plus a $200 brokerage commission. On October 15, a $0.50-per-share dividend was received on the Aspen stock. On November 10, 1,200 shares of the Aspen stock were sold for $42 per share less a $150 brokerage commission. In your computations, round per share amounts to two decimal places. When required, round final answers to the nearest dollar. For a compound transaction, if an amount box does not require an entry, leave it blank. Journalize the entries to record the original purchase, the dividend, and the sale under the cost method.
Answer: Please see answer in explanation column
Explanation:
1. Journal to record original purchase.
Date Account Debit Credit
Sept 12 Investment- Aspen stock $100,200.
Cash $100,200.
Calculation
Cash = 2,000 shares x $50 per share = 100,000 + brokerage commission of $200
= $100,200.
2.Journal to record dividend received
Date Account Debit Credit
Oct 15 Cash $1000.
Dividend revenue $1000
Calculation
dividend received = $2000 x $0.50-per-share dividend =$1000
3..Journal to record sale of investment
Date Account Debit Credit
Nov 10 Cash $50,250
Loss from sale $9,870
Investment - Aspen stock $60,120
Calculation
Purchase price of 1 Share in Aspen stock = 100,200/2000 = 50.10 per share
Investment = share sold x purchase amount of 1 share in Aspen stock
1,200 x 50.10= $60,120
Cash = 1,200 shares x $42 per share = 100,000 - brokerage commission of $150
= $50,250
Winnwbagel corp. currently sells 25,200 motor homes per year at 37,800 each, and 10,080 luxury motor coaches per year at $71,400 each. The company wants to introduce a new portable camper to fill out its product line., it hopes to sell 15,960 of these campers per year at $10,080 each. An independent consultant has determined that if the company introduces the new campers, it should boost the sales of its existing motor homes by 3,780 units per year, and reduce the sales of its motor coaches by 756 units per year. What is the amount to use as the annual sales figure when evaluating this project?
a. $237,293,280.
b. $262,271,520.
c. $357,739,200.
d. $95739200.
e. $160,876,800.
f. $249,782,400.
Answer:
Option C is correct
Annual sales figure =$ 357,739,200
Explanation:
Annual sales figure for Winnebago corp after the introduction f the new portable campers would be the sum of the annual sales figure for motor homes, luxury homes (after the introduction of new product) and the camper.
Note that the only the impact of the introduction of the new product would be considered on sales would . The existing sales figures are not not relevant because they are not incremental.
Also,any reduction in sales figure as result of the introduction of a new product would be deducted.
These explanations are incorporated into the analysis below:
Product type Quantity Price Sales figure ($'000)
Motor homes 3780 37,800 142,884
Luxury homes 756 71,400 (53,978.4)
Camper 15,969 (10,080 ) 160,967.52
Total sales 357,739.20
Annual sales figure =$ 357,739,200
Jenny Corp. needs to raise $53 million to fund a new project. The company will sell shares at a price of $29.00 in a general cash offer and the company's underwriters will charge a spread of 7.5 percent. The direct flotation costs associated with the issue are $925,000. How many shares need to be sold?
Answer:
2,010,252 Shares
Explanation:
The funds that are to be raised = $53,000,000
Spread = 7.5%
Share price = $29.00
Flotation cost with issue = 925,000
We have that:
(53000000+925000)/92.5 * 100
(539,250,000/92.5)x100
= $58297.973 x 100
= $58297297.3
The offer per share is placed at $29.00
So to get the number of shares sold:
$58297297.3 / $29.00
= 2,010,252 shares are to be sold.
Three grams of musk oil are required for each bottle of Mink Caress, a very popular perfume made by a small company in western Siberia. The cost of the musk oil is $2.20 per gram. Budgeted production of Mink Caress is given below by quarters for Year 2 and for the first quarter of Year 3:Budget Production, in bottlesYear 2:First 72,000Second 102,000Third 162,000Fourth: 112,000Year 3:First 82,000Musk oil has become so popular as a perfume ingredient that it has become necessary to carry large inventories as a precaution against stock-outs. For this reason, the inventory of musk oil at the end of a quarter must be equal to 20% of the following quarter’s production needs. Some 43,200 grams of musk oil will be on hand to start the first quarter of Year 2.Required:
Prepare a direct materials budget for musk oil, by quarter and in total, for Year 2. (Round "Unit cost of raw materials" answers to 2 decimal places.)
Answer:
Since there is not enough room here, I used an excel spreadsheet and attached it.
Explanation:
Year 2 Year 3
First Second Third Fourth First
Budgeted prod. 72,000 102,000 162,000 112,000 82,000
in bottles
How much of the contract price should Maya allocate to the machine, installation, and training, respectively?
Answer:
I looked for the missing information and found the following:
total contract price = $920,000
individual prices:
machine = $800,000 installation = $100,000training = $100,000total = $1,000,000Maya should allocate each performance obligation in the same proportion as if they were sold separately:
machine = ($800,000 / $1,000,000) x $920,000 = $736,000installation = ($100,000 / $1,000,000) x $920,000 = $92,000training = ($100,000 / $1,000,000) x $920,000 = $92,000Assuming you are a rational investor, the amount you should be willing to pay for a 20-year ordinary annuity that makes payments of $4,000 per year and you require a 6% rate of return per year is closest to:
Answer:
PV= $45,879.68
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $4,000 annually
n= 20
i= 6% compunded annually
The maximum that an investor should pay is the present value (PV).
First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual cash flow
FV= {4,000*[(1.06^20) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $147,142.36
Now, we can calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 147,142.36/(1.06^20)
PV= $45,879.68
According to the CAPM, what is the market risk premium given an expected return on a security of 15.8%, a stock beta of 1.1, and a risk-free interest rate of 7%? Multiple Choice 7.70% 6.05% 7.00% 8.00%
Answer:
The risk premium on market is 8%
Explanation:
The CAPM or Capital Asset Pricing Model is used to calculate the required rate of return on a stock which is the minimum return that is expected or required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk as measured by the beta of the stock.
The formula to calculate r under the CAPM is,
r = rRF + Beta * rpM
Where,
rRF is the risk free raterpM is the risk premium on marketTo calculate the risk premium on market, we will input the available values for r, rRF and beta in the equation above.
0.158 = 0.07 + 1.1 * rpM
0.158 - 0.07 = 1.1 * rpM
0.088 / 1.1 = rpM
rpM = 0.08 or 8%
So, the risk premium on market is 8%
Suppose an item sells for $125 in the United States and for 62,500 pesos in Chile. According to the law of one price, the nominal exchange rate (pesos/dollar) should be ________.
Answer:
$1 = 500 Pesos
1 Pesos = $0.002
Explanation:
$125 = 62,500 Pesos
$1 = 62,500 / 125
$1 = 500 Pesos
$1 = 500 Pesos
1 Pesos = $1 / 500
1 Pesos = $0.002
Which of the following is considered a source of general revenue in the Government-wide Statement of Activities?
A) Charges for Services
B) Operating Grants
C) Sales Tax
Answer:
C) Sales Tax
Explanation:
The Government-wide Statement of Activities shows the revenues and expenses of the government and the general revenues indicate all the taxes, aid received from other governments and earnings from investments. According to that, the answer is that the option that is considered a source of general revenue in the Government-wide Statement of Activities is sales tax.
Moorcroft sales are 40% cash and 60% credit. Credit sales are collected 20% in the month of sale, 50% in the month following sale, and 26% in the second month following sale; 4% are uncollectible. Moorcroft purchases are 50% cash and 50% on account. Purchases on account are paid 40% in the month following the purchase and 60% in the second month following the purchase.Prepare a schedule of expected collections from customers for June.
Answer:
The budgeted sales are missing, so I looked for them. I found the following question, hopefully it will be similar:
Month Sales
April $300,000
May $320,000
June $370,000
Schedule of expected collections
For the month of June, 202x
Cash sales during June = $370,000 x 40% = $148,000
Collection from June's credit sales = $222,000 x 20% = $44,400
Collection from May's credit sales = $192,000 x 50% = $96,000
Collection from April's credit sales = $180,000 x 26% = $46,800
Total cash collections during June = $335,200
The development manager is required to choose between two projects. Project A has an IRR of 25% and project B has an IRR of 30%. Which of the following statements is correct? A. If she can invest only in one project, the manager will choose project B B. None of the statements above is correct C. If she can invest only in one project, the manager will choose project A D. If she can invest in both projects, the manager will choose both projects A and B
Answer:
A
D
Explanation:
Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.
Because the IRR of both projects are positive, both projects are acceptable.
If the manager can only choose one project, she should choose the one with the higher IRR because it would be more profitable.
Net present value method The following data are accumulated by Geddes Company in evaluating the purchase of $160,000 of equipment, having a four-year useful life: Net Income Net Cash Flow Year 1 $43,500 $83,500 Year 2 23,000 63,000 Year 3 13,500 53,500 Year 4 6,500 46,500 This information has been collected in the Microsoft Excel Online file. Open the spreadsheet, perform the required analysis, and input your answers in the questions below. Open spreadsheet Assuming that the desired rate of return is 12%, determine the net present value for the proposal. If required, round to the nearest dollar. Net present value $ 86,500 Would management be likely to look with favor on the proposal
Answer:
A.$32,396
B. Yes
Explanation
A. Calculation to determine the net present value for the proposal
Year Net Cash Flow Present value Discounting factor at 12% Discounted Cash Flow
1 $ 83,500.00 0.893 $ 74,565.50
2 $63,000.00 0.797 $ 50,211.00
3 $ 53,500.00 0.713 $ 38,145.50
4 $ 46,500.00 0.636 $ 29,574.00
Present value of net cash flows $ 192,496.00
Amount to be invested $ 160,000.00
Net Present Value $ 32,496
Net Present Value $ 32,496/Amount to be invested $160,000.00 =0.2031*100
=20.31%
B.Yes the management would likely to look with favor on the proposal because the net present value of 20.31% is higher than the expected rate of return of 12%.
The _________ price is the price at which a dealer is willing to sell a security. A. bid B. ask C. clearing D. settlement
Answer: B. ask
Explanation:
The ask also known as the offer price is the price at which seller is willing to sell a security after which the buyer must have stated a bid price of how much he or she wants to pay for the security. The bid price is known to be always lower than the ask price , of which the difference between both prices is called a bid-ask spread.
For example, if an investor wants to buy a security, he or she will first determine how much the seller is willing to sell it for, which is the ask price--- least price the seller is willing to sell the security for. However on the other hand, the seller in order to sell his or her security will first determine the highest price at which a buyer would be willing to pay for the security.
Standard rate per direct labor-hour $ 2 Standard direct labor-hours for each unit produced 3 Units manufactured 1,000 Actual direct labor-hours worked during the month 3,300 Total actual variable manufacturing overhead $ 6,600 Knowledge Check 01 Assume that direct labor-hours is used as the overhead allocation base. What is the variable overhead efficiency variance
Answer:
Variable overhead efficiency variance= $600 unfavorable
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Standard rate per direct labor-hour $2
Standard direct labor-hours for each unit produced 3
Units manufactured 1,000
Actual direct labor-hours worked during the month 3,300
To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:
Variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate
Variable overhead efficiency variance= (1,000*3 - 3,300)*2
Variable overhead efficiency variance= $600 unfavorable
It is always necessary for an agent to disclose the identity of the principal to any third person with whom he is contracting; otherwise the contract becomes void.
a. True
b. False
Open space arrangements in workstations increase communication and potentially decrease noise, distractions, and loss of privacy.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
false
Explanation:
while open space arrangement increases communication, it also increases noise, distractions, and loss of privacy.
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
Although open space arrangement in a workstation increases communication , yet such communication would eventually lead to an increase noise, distractions and loss of privacy. This is the reason why modern organizations preferred the use of cubicle in demarcating spaces allocated to their employees.
The advantage of using cubicle as demarcation is that there will be less noise and distractions hence leads to increase in productivity . An employee would also have his or her privacy unlike an open space arrangement.
has a target debt−equity ratio of 1.35. Its WACC is 8.3 percent, and the tax rate is 35 percent. If the company’s cost of equity is 14 percent, what is its pretax cost of debt? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter yo
Answer:
5.74%
Explanation:
WACC = weight of equity x cost of equity + weight of debt x cost of debt x (1 - tax rate)
weight of debt = D / (D + E) = 1.35/ (1.35 + 1) = 0.574468 = 57.4468%
weight of equity = 100% - 57.4468% = 42.5532%
let x represent pretax cost of debt
8.1% = 0.425532 x 14% +( 0.574468x) x 0.65
8.1% = 0.373404x + 5.957448%
solve for x
x = 5.74%
Quality improvement teams are groups of people from various work areas who define, analyze, and solve common production problems.
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
Explanation:
The quality improvement teams are groups of employees that are from various departments who come together and meet regularly in order to define, analyze, and then solve common production problems.
The aim of the quality improvement team is to improve the production process. This is achievable by them working on their methods.
Last year Harrington Inc. had sales of $325,000 and a net income of $19,000, and its year-end assets were $250,000. The firm's total-debt-to-total-capital ratio was 15.0%. The firm finances using only debt and common equity and its total assets equal total invested capital. Based on the DuPont equation, what was the ROE
Answer:
8.94%
Explanation:
Firstly, we will need to find total equity and total debt of Harrington Inc inorder to apply the Dupont equation for getting ROE
Harrington's total debt = 15.00 % × $250,000
= $37,500
Harrington's total equity will be; applying accounting equation
Asset = Liabilities + Owner's equity
Owner's equity = Assets - Liabilities
= $250,000 - $37,500
= $212,500
Therefore, using the Dupont equation, we can calculate the ROE as;
(NI/Sales) × (Sales/Total assets) × (Total assets/Total common equity)
= 19,000/325,000 × 325,000 /250,000 × 250,000/212,500
= 8.94%
When analyzing the changes on a spreadsheet used to prepare a statement of cash flows, the cash flows from operating activities generally are affected by
Answer: a. Net income, current assets, and current liabilities
Explanation:
The Operating Cashflow relates to cash transactions that have to do with the normal operations of the business. In other words, the business that the firm does to make revenue. It therefore includes, production, purchases, admin expenses, net income and the assets required to run the business.
Operating cashflows will therefore be affected by the Net Income as this is the end result of the business transactions the business engaged in. The current assets were needed to sell goods as well as being derived from selling goods and the current liabilities enabled the company to buy goods that they sell amongst other things.
Net income, current assets, and current liabilities are directly related to the operations of the business and so affect the Operating cashflows.
Ben and Jerry were shareholders of water ice, inc., an s corporation. On january 1, year 1, Ben owned 40 shares and Jerry owned 60 shares. Ben sold his shares to Joe for $10,000 on March 31, 2011. The corporation reported a $50,000 loss at the end of 2011. How much of the loss is allocated to Joe?
A. $12,500.
B. $10,000.
C. $20,000.
D. $15,068.
Answer:
Option D. $15,068
Explanation:
The share of Ben will 40% of the loss if he does not sells the shares which is:
Ben's Share of Loss = $50,000 * 40% = $20,000
But Ben sold his 40% to Joe on March 31, 2011. This means 90/365 days of the year, Ben owned the shares. Hence:
Ben's share of loss = $20,000 * 90/ 365 = $4,931.5
The remainder is Joe's share of loss which is:
Joe's Share of Loss = $20,000 - $4,931.5 = $15,068
Hence the option D is correct.
"A tender offer has been made for PDQ common shares. The brokerage firm department that would handle the tendering of shares is the:"
Answer: Re-organization department
Explanation:
A tender offer is a public takeover bid that consists of an offer to buy either some or all of the shares that are available in a corporation.
When a tender offer has been made for PDQ common shares. The re-organization department is the brokerage firm department that would handle the tendering of shares.
What transportation mode has very high initial investment costs but gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging?
Complete Question:
What transportation mode has very high initial investment costs but gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging?
Group of answer choices.
A. Highway
B. Rail
C. Water
D. Pipeline
E. Air
Answer:
D. Pipeline.
Explanation:
Pipeline transportation can be defined as the long-distance transportation of consumer fluid products such as liquefied natural gases or crude oil, through a system of interconnected pipes.
As a result of the long distance being covered, pipeline transportation mode has very high initial investment costs because it requires excavation of the soil to enable the laying of pipes running into several miles.
However, the advantage of the pipeline transportation mode is that it gives a very low cost per mile for products that are highly specialized and require no packaging.
On January 1, a company issued and sold a $300,000, 5%, 10-year bond payable, and received proceeds of $293,000. Interest is payable each June 30 and December 31. The company uses the straight-line method to amortize the discount. The carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is:
Answer: $293,350
Explanation:
The carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment will be the addition of the received proceed and the ammortized discount. This will be:
= $293,000 + $350
= $293,350
Note that the ammortized discount was calculated as:
= ($300000 - $293000)/20
= $7000/20
= $350
Suppose the firms in a perfectly competitive industry merge to form a monopoly. Which of the following would NOT occur?
a. A rise in total consumer plus producer surplus
b. A deadweight loss
c. A rise in producer surplus
d. A fall in consumer surplus
Answer: a. A rise in total consumer plus producer surplus
Explanation:
When a Monopoly is formed, the Producer surplus will increase but the Consumer surplus will decrease. This is because a Monopoly will charge a higher price than a Competitive firm to get more profit as well reduce output as well.
This will result in the transfer of some Consumer surplus to the Producer as well as a Dead-weight loss being formed thereby reducing the Consumer surplus. The total surplus will therefore fall as a result of this merger.
Which of the following ratios indicates the percentage of each sales dollar that is available to cover fixed costs and to provide a profit?
A. Margin of safety ratio
B. Costs and expenses ratio
C. Profit ratio
Answer:
The correct answer is the option A: Margin of safety ratio.
Explanation:
To begin with, the name of "Margin of Safety", in the field of business and accounting, is refered to a ratio whose main purpose is to establish the point in where the company knows that it has to sale obligately due to the fact that at that point the company can be sure that they have covered the fixed costs of it and after that point every sale will became a profit for the company. So that is why that this ratio indicates the percentage of each sales dollar that is available to cover those costs.
The issue of _____ concerns how often a particular project will be repeated and what its lifespan will be.
Full question reads;
The issue of _____ concerns how often a particular project will be repeated and what its lifespan will be.
a. frequency
b. consumption
c. pressures
d. rules
Answer:
a. frequency
Explanation:
Indeed, no particular human project can last forever, so there is a need to ascertain the frequency of a project, detailing how often the project would be repeated so as to also determine what the project's lifespan will be.
For example, a road construction project may take into account how often the road would be used, which provides insight into the frequency of road repairs and the overall lifetime of the car.
The issue of _____ concerns how often a particular project will be repeated and what its lifespan will be.
Archie Co. purchased a framing machine for $60,000 on January 1, 2021. The machine is expected to have a four-year life, with a residual value of $5,000 at the end of four years. Using the sum-of-the years'-digits method, depreciation for 2022 and book value at December 31, 2022, would be: (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
Answer:
$16,500
Explanation:
Depreciation is a method used in expensing the cost of an asset.
sum-of-the years'-digits method = (useful life remaining / sum of years) x (cost of asset - residual value)
sum of the years = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10
(3 / 10) x ($60,000 - $5,000) = $16,500
If an investor's aversion to risk increased, would the risk premium on a high beta stock increase by more or less than that of a low-beta stock? Explain.
Answer:
risk premium increases by more of the low - beta stock
A risk averse investor is an investor that avoids risk. if risk aversion increases, it means that the investor is more wary of risky investment.
Beta measures the volatility of a portfolio. the higher the volatility, the more risky the portfolio is.
risk premium measures the rate of return in excess of the risk free rate.
According to CAPM :
risk free rate + (beta x stock risk premium)
Beta is a multiplier of stock risk premium, so the higher the beta, the more there would be an increase in the stock risk premium
If a risk averse investor invests in a high beta stock, he would want extra or higher compensation for holding such a volatile stock. this extra compensation would be in the form of a higher risk premium.
Explanation:
