You are the newly assigned project manager to a major IT upgrade project in your global company. How will you determine the risk tolerances associated with your project

Answer:

b. 1.50(150%)

Explanation:

Given that, the standard time per packages is 10 minutes

Then, the total time taken in eight hour shift is 8 * 60 = 480 minutes

The standard output = Total time taken / Standard time = 480/10 = 48 packages

Therefore, the efficiency of Kaitlyn = Kaitlyn's Output / Standard output

=72 / 48

= 1.5

Hence, the answer is 150% or 1.5

Answer:

A) The assessment does not follow a normal distribution

B ) P(r<0) = 0.2546 ( from standard normal table ),     P( r > 0.16 ) ≠ 0.15

Explanation:

Expected return on portfolio  E (r) = 8%

Standard deviation (STD) = 12%

chances of Negative return  P(r < 0 )  = 25%

calculate the probabilities for a normal distribution

E (r) = 0.08 , STD = 0.12,  P(r < 0 ) = 0.25

P( r > 0.16 ) = 0.15

calculating the value of the probability  P(r < 0 )

P(r < 0 ) = P [tex](Z < \frac{0-E(r)}{STD} )[/tex]

              = P ( Z <  [tex]\frac{0-0.08}{0.12}[/tex] )

              = P ( Z < - 0.667 )

P(r<0) = 0.2546 ( from standard normal table )

calculating the value of the  probability P( r > 0.16 )

P( r > 0.16 ) = [tex]P ( Z > \frac{0.16- E(r)}{STD})[/tex]

                  = P ( Z > [tex]\frac{0.16-0.08}{0.12}[/tex] )

                  = P ( Z > 0.667 )

to compare if p(r>0.16 ) is = 0.15

 P(R > 0.16 ) = 1 - P ( Z < 0.667 )

                    = 1 - 0.7454 ( value from standard normal table )

                    = 0.2546

hence P( r > 0.16 ) ≠ 0.15

The assessment does not follow a normal distribution

Answer:

The economic growth will be lower.

Explanation:

The rise in pollution and the doubling of the rate of depreciation will affect economic growth adversely. However, rapid wear and tear of capital will cost the person and it will reduce the purchasing power. Thus, lower purchasing power will result in lower economic growth. Moreover, pollution creates three main problems that are reduced labor productivity, rise in health problems, and loss of crop yield. So the reduction in all these factors will also slow down economic growth.

Answer:

A more established company may find it difficult to implement an enterprise-wide, customer-centric culture due to the following reasons:

A) Existence of a Multi-Product Business Model

A business entity that is well established with a lot of years under its belt will find it a tough challenge to shift from a product-oriented business model to a customer-oriented business model.

To be product-focused simply means that that a company has woven its organisational structure around products. For examples, a company that is into the gaming business may have teams for their Sports Betting Section, another for their online gaming section, game hardware section, gaming apps section etc.

First, for these various teams, their performance metric will largely depend on how functionally efficient their products are.  

Second, techy or geeky staff are seldom efficient when it comes to emotional intelligence - a key requirement for being customer efficient.

One way to handle this is to ensure that there is a central Customer Relationship Management team that oversees the customers for each product.

B) Organisational Inflexibility

As direct to the point as it sounds, getting market intelligence for with the intention to use them for decision making is challenging. What is tougher is the ability to implement the insights from such intelligence to effect a turn around in the way customers perceive and respond to a company's offerings.

The ability to quickly take gather market intel, agree on a strategic direction based on same and execute can be referred to organisational agility.  

The more bureaucratic and hierarchical an organisation is (this, by the way, characterises older and more established business systems) the less agile it is likely to be.

Cheers!

Answer: The minimizing the imbalance in the workloads among workstations.

Explanation:

Workspace can inspire informal and productive encounters if it balances what three physical and social aspects.

Answer:

a. What amount of taxable dividend income, if any, does Madison recognize in 2009?

Madison doesn't have to recognize any income because she is not getting any. Only after Madison decides to sell his stocks will he recognize any taxable income if she makes a gain.

b. What is Madison's income tax basis in her new and existing stock in Badger Corporation, assuming the distribution is non-taxable?

Madison current basis is $100 per stock, and after the stock dividend it will be $100 / 1.1 = $90.91 per stock

c. How would you answer questions a and b if Madison was offered the choice between 1 share of stock in Badger for each 10 shares she owned or $100 cash for each 10 shares she owned in Badger?

then the cash dividend would be $10 per stock, which results in $10 x 1,000 = $10,000 taxable income. Her basis in the stock will remain not change.

Answer:

c. By using the Select Data button and the Select Data Source option

Explanation:

A scatter plot is a plot which is used to plot the points of the data on the horizontal and the vertical axis also it depicts how one variable is affected by the another.

After preparing the scatter plot to enter the data in the scatter plot we need to use the data button and then data source option so that the data could be entered in the scatter plot

hence, option c is correct

Answer: The answer is given below

Explanation:

It should be noted that M1 will be derived as Currency plus the Travelers check while M2 will be M1 plus the certificate of deposit plus the money market account.

a. Van has $2,500 in a savings account.

It should be noted that money in a savings account will have to be included in M2.

b. Paolo has a $10 bill in his wallet.

This fits into the description of both M1 and M2 forms of money.

c. Amy has $7,000 in a six-month certificate of deposit (CD)

The certificate of deposit is included in the M2.

Answer:

Option A is M2

Option B is M1

Option C is M2

Explanation:

The above classifications speak to various categories of money supply.

M1 refers to the supply of money that is composed of physical currency such as notes, coins, demand deposits other checkable deposits, etc.

Simply put, M1 would include forms of money that are liquid or easy to convert into cash.

M2 and M3 which are also known as "near money" and "near, near money,"  are money types which cannot be converted to currency as quickly as M1.

Another example of M2 is Money Market Mutual Funds. M1 is often included when calculating for M2.

Cheers!

Answer:

So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.

Explanation:

To calculate how many dollars worth of sales are generated by $1 of total assets, we use the total assets turnover ratio. It is an accounting measure that measures the efficiency of the company's assets in generating sales. It calculates the dollar values of sales generated by each $1 of total assets. The formula for total assets turnover is,

Total Assets Turnover = Sales / Average Total Assets

We already know the level of sales. We need to determine the value of total assets first.

Total Assets = Fixed assets + Current Assets

As we know that net working capital = current assets - current liabilities,

So, the current assets are,

2715 = Current assets - 3908

2715 + 3908 = Current assets

Current assets = $6623

Total assets = 6623 + 22407

Total assets = $29030

Total Assets Turnover = 31350 / 29030

Total assets turnover = 1.0799 rounded off to 1.08

So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.

Answer:

Total future value= $408,334.38

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

A couple thinking about retirement decide to put aside $3,000 each year in a savings plan that earns 8% interest. In 5 years they will receive a gift of $10,000 that also can be invested.

First, we will determine the future value of the annual deposit investment. We need to use the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

FV= {3,000*[(1.08^30) - 1]} / 0.08

FV= $339,849.63

Now, for the $10,000:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

FV= 10,000*(1.08^25)

FV= $68,484.75

Total future value= 339,849.63 + 68,484.75

Total future value= $408,334.38

Answer:

The amount this company would report under cash flows from financing activities is $60,600.

Explanation:

These cash flows of $60,600 represent the actual cash outflows, an amount that bondholders would receive from the company in retirement of the bonds.  The statement of cash flows records the actual cash inflows and outflows of a company transactions during a particular accounting period.  Every item is adjusted to reflect the actual cash flows.  It is strictly based on the Cash Basis of accounting instead of the accrual basis.

Answer:

Hello some parts of your question is missing attached below is the missing part

Answer : value added times : 30 minutes , 30 minutes

               non-value added times: 1210 minutes, 130 minutes

               Total lead times : 1240 minutes,  160 minutes

               value added time as a ratio: 2.4%, 18.8%

Explanation:

Given data:

production batch sizes = 40 units

process step 1 = 6 minutes

process step 2 = 10 minutes

process step 3 = 6 minutes

process step 4 = 8 minutes

Determining : The value added, non-value added , total lead times and value added ratio under the present and proposed production approaches

UNDER PRESENT PRODUCTION APPROACH

Th value added time:

= summation of all process times = (6+10+6+8) = 30 minutes

Non-value added time:

=  Value added time *(Batch size -1) + move time between each step

= 30*39+8*5

= 1170 +40 = 1210 minutes

total lead time :

= value added time + non-value added time

= 30 + 1210 = 1240 minutes

value added time as a percentage/ratio

(value added time / total lead time) * 100

= 30 / 1240 * 100 = 2.4%

UNDER PROPOSED PRODUCTION APPROACH

value added time :

= summation of all process times = (6+10+6+8) = 30 minutes

Non-value added time :

=  Value added time *(Batch size -1) +  time between each step

= 30*4+2*5 = 120 + 10 = 130 mins

total lead time :

= value added time + non-value added time  = 30 +130 = 160 mins

value added time as a percentage/ratio:

(value added time / total lead time ) * 100

= (30 / 160) * 100 = 18.8%

Answer:

PV= $61,759.80

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Future value (FV)= $83,000

Number of years (n)= 10 years

Interest rate (i)= 3% compounded annually

To calculate the initial deposit, we need to use the following formula:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 83,000 / (1.03^10)

PV= $61,759.80

Answer:

1-A. Sales budget

                                   1st             2nd             3rd             4th

                             Quarter     Quarter       Quarter       Quarter        Year

Sales units              12,200      13,200        15,200         14,200    54,800

Price per unit           $21             $21             $21             $21           $21

Total sales          $256,200  $277,200   $319,200   $298,200   $1,150,800

1-B. Cash collections budget

                                   1st             2nd             3rd             4th

                             Quarter     Quarter       Quarter       Quarter        Year

Collections from  $72,600    $76,860     $83,160      $95,760   $72,600

previous quarter  

Collections from $166,530  $180,180  $207,480  $193,830  $1,003,900

current quarter  

Total                    $239,130  $257,040  $290,640 $289,690  $1,076,500

2. Productions budget

                                   1st             2nd             3rd             4th

                             Quarter     Quarter       Quarter       Quarter        Year

Sales units              12,200      13,200        15,200         14,200    54,800

Planned ending       2,640       3,040          2,840          2,640       2,640

inventory

Total production     14,840      16,240        18,040         16,840    65,960

required

- Beginning              2,440        2,640         3,040           2,840       2,440

inventory

Units to be              12,400      13,600        15,000         14,000     63,520

produced

Answer:

sells budget

Explanation:

Answer: primarily cyclical deficit

Explanation:

Budget deficit occurs when the government expenditure for a certain year is more than the revenue the government makes.

Since the the United States economy was operating close to potential. The budget deficit experienced by the United States in 1969 was primarily cyclical deficit.

Answer:

2550

Explanation:

The HHI is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm in the industry.

40² + 20² + 15² + 15² + 10² = 1600 + 400 + 225 + 225 + 100 = 2550

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that:

A mail-order house uses 18,000 boxes a year.

Carrying costs are 60 cents per box a year =$0.60

and ordering costs are $96.

Determine:

A. The optimal order quantity.

The optimal order quantity can be calculated by using the formula:

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{2DS}{H}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{2*18000*96}{0.60}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{\dfrac{3456000}{0.60}}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = \sqrt{5760000}[/tex]

[tex]Q_o = 2400 \ boxes[/tex]

B. The number of orders per year.

of boxes: 1,000-1,999 Price per box: $1.25

of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20

of boxes: 5,000- 9,999 Price per box : $1.15

of boxes: 10,000 or more Price per box : $1.10

SInce 2400 boxes lies within ''of boxes: 2,000- 4,999 Price per box: $1.20 ''

Total cost = Carrying cost + ordering cost + Purchasing cost

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{2400}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{2400}) 96+1.20*18000[/tex]

Total cost  = ( 1200) 0.60 + 7.5(96) + 1.20(18000)

Total cost  = 720 + 720 + 21600

Total cost  =  $ 23040

If the order size is 5000, the price per box will be 1.15

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{5000}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{5000}) 96+1.15*18000[/tex]

Total cost = 2500 (0.60) + 3.6 (96) + 20700

Total cost = 1500 + 345.6 + 20700

Total cost = $22545.6

If the order size is 10000 , the price per box will be 1.10

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{Q}{2} )H +(\dfrac{D}{Q}) S+PD[/tex]

[tex]Total \ cost =(\dfrac{10000}{2} )0.60 +(\dfrac{18000}{10000}) 96+1.10*18000[/tex]

Total cost = 5000 (0.60) + 1.8(96)  + 19800

Total cost =  3000 + 172.8 + 19800

Total cost = $22972.8

From the three total cost, the least minimum cost of ordering is: 5000

So; the number of orders per year = total number of boxes per year/ boxes per order

the number of orders per year = 18000/5000

the number of orders per year = 3.6 orders per year

Answer:

Correct Answer:

1. He believes in strong form market efficiency.

Explanation:

Jack Bogle believed that, in a situation where people simply buy an entire group of stocks as a result of investors investing money into the index fund, it will create a strong market. That is, if every investor in the world only purchased the same index fund, then the market of buyers and sellers would no longer set the fair market price of the stocks in the stock market.

Answer:

D. Marketing mix.

Explanation:

Marketing mix refers to the choices about product attributes, distribution strategy, communication strategy, and pricing strategy that a firm offers its targeted markets.

Generally, a marketing mix is made up of the four (4) Ps;

1. Products: this is typically the goods and services that gives satisfaction to the customer's needs and wants. They are either tangible or intangible items.

2. Price: this represents the amount of money a customer buying goods and services are willing to pay for it.

3. Place: this represents the areas of distribution of these goods and services for easier access by the potential customers.

4. Promotions: for a good sales record or in order to increase the number of people buying a product and taking services, it is very important to have a good marketing communication such as advertising, sales promotion, direct marketing etc.

Answer:

The value of total liabilities is $155.031 million and option c is the correct answer.

Explanation:

The basic accounting equation states that the total value of assets is always equal to the sum of the total value of liabilities and the total value of equity.

Thus, we can say that,

Total Assets = Total Liabilities + Total Equity

The equity part can contain various components. In the given question it has two components namely Common Stock and retained earnings.

205.498 = Total Liabilities + (6.350 + 44.117)

205.498 = Total Liabilities + 50.467

205.498 -  50.467 = Total Liabilities

Total Liabilities = $155.031

Answer:

Two challenges that Salesforce may face today:

1. Competitions

2. Cash Flows

Explanation:

1. Salesforce has been the global Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) provider for Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system. However, they are challenged by new market joiners such as Hubspot. There are also new startups offering free and simple cloud-based CRM systems that targetting small businesses. The entry of the new competitors seriously threatens the leading market share of Salesforce.

2. The current pandemic affected negatively to all enterprises, including Salesforce's outstanding customers. They should expect a drop in their total number of fee payers while the cost to maintain their high product standard is still the same as before. It may give them a lot of working capital headaches.

Answer:

The LOWEST acceptable transfer price is $18 the Tire Division's variable cost per tire.

The HIGHEST acceptable transfer price is $75the Tire Division's market price.

Explanation:

Calculation for the lowest acceptable transfer price and the highest acceptable transfer price

Variable Cost per tire:

Direct Material $15

Conversion cost $3

=$18 per tire

The LOWEST acceptable transfer price is $18 Tire division variable cost per tire

Based on the information we were told that the market price per tire is $75 which means that the HIGHEST transfer price is $75 tire division market price.

Therefore If Graham Motors has a negotiated transfer price policy The LOWEST acceptable transfer price is $18 the Tire Division's variable cost per tire While The HIGHEST acceptable transfer price is $75 the Tire Division's market price.

Answer:

When the Fed raises the federal funds rate, the inflation rate decreases about two years later.

Explanation:

When trying to stimulate the economy either by increasing or decreasing, policymakers have to take into consideration how it would effect interest rate, amount of money available in the economy, loans that would be acquired by banks and the behavior of interest rate.

Interest rate can be impacted quickly even though the period of time it would take for such action to have a reflection on what quantity of money is available in the economy. Then also a period of 2 years would be taken for this action to take effect on inflation.

Therefore

When the Fed raises the federal funds rate, the inflation rate decreases about two years later.

Answer: A. $96,855

Explanation:

Sales taxes are a form of revenue for Government and are paid on certain goods and services.

The formula is;

Sales tax payable = Goods sold * Sales Tax rate

= 880,500 * 0.11

= $‭96,855‬

Answer:

Explanation:

To learn more about IT careers or just carriers in general, one can contact the Career counselor at school. Their job is to help students find out more abut careers so that they know which path they would like to follow.

One can also attend information sessions where they can listen to people speak on IT careers and ask questions they would like answers to as well.

A practical way to find out about IT careers is to intern at an IT firm. This way you get to see first hand what the job entails and if it is the kind of thing you would like to do.

There are also professional organizations that offer certifications in IT such as CompTIA. As they are well versed in the area, they can provide more information on IT careers including the educational background required.

Answer:

1. Scheduling an appointment with a career counselor at school.

2. Attending an informational session.

3. Applying for an internship

5. Contacting a professional organization, such as CompTIA.

Explanation: This is the correct answer on Edge 2021, just did the assignment. Hope this helps ^-^.

Answer:

ROE will increase

Explanation:

This action will cause an increase in Baldwin's ROE

ROE is the same as return on Equity. The return on equity is equal to the net profit margin multiplied by asset turnover which is also multiplied by equity multiplier.

From the above, if asset turnover is being increased by measures taken by the management, the ROE will also have to increase too. Firms will have to be generating more sales per units of the assets that they own.

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

Decision Tree Analysis is a form or type of quantitative risk assessment tool and techniques that involves a diagram that indicates the significances of choosing one or other alternatives.

In other words, the purpose of the tool is to assist you to select between several courses of action.

For example, lines are drawn towards the right for each possible solution, and then the solution is written along the line. Then evaluation of each alternative can be easily considered.

On the other hand, Monte Carlo Analysis is also a form or type of quantitative risk assessment tools and techniques that utilizes optimistic, most probable, and cynical estimates to infer the total project cost and project completion dates.

For example, an estimate of the probability of completing a project at a cost of $100M can be carried out using Monte Carlo Analysis

x

Answer:

1. Present value in pound=$23,752,969

Dollar equivalent=$46,073,634

2.Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$48,952,500

Present value in pound=$46,072,918

Explanation:

1a.Calculation for present value of the £25 million cash flow

Using this formula

Present value in pound =cash flow*(1/1+Cash flow cost of capital)^ One year in the future

Let plug in the formula

Present value in pound=$25,000,000*(1/1+0.0525)^1

Present value in pound=$25,000,000*(1/1.0525)^1

Present value in pound=$25,000,000*0.950119

Present value in pound=$23,752,969

1b.Calculation for the dollar equivalent of this amount

Using this formula

Dollar equivalent=Present value in pound*Spot exchange rate

Let plug in the formula

Dollar equivalent=$23,752,969*$1.9397

Dollar equivalent=$46,073,634

2a. Calculation for the Dollar equivalent for U.S investors

Using this formula

Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=Cash flow*one-year forward rate

Let plug in the formula

Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$25,000,000*$1.9581

Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$48,952,500

2b. Calculation for the present value of the £25 million cash flow from the standpoint of a U.S. investor .

Using this formula

Present value in pound =Cash flow*(1/1+Cash flow cost of capital)^ One year in the future

Let plug in the formula

Present value in pound=$48,952,500*(1/1.0625)^1

Present value in pound=$48,952,500*0.941176

Present value in pound=$46,072,918

Therefore the Present value in pound for question 1 is $23,752,969 while the Dollar equivalent is $46,073,634.

The Dollar equivalent for U.S investors in question 2 is $48,952,500 while the Present value in pound is $46,072,918

Answer:

January 1, 2020

Bonds Payable                                          1600000 Dr

Loss on Redemption of bonds                 36800 Cr

     Discount on Bonds Payable                        4800 Cr

     Cash                                                              1632000 Cr

Explanation:

The redemption of bonds before the maturity usually requires a payment for redemption which is a certain percentage of its face value. It is usually higher than the face value. The above bonds are redeemed at 102 which means at 102% of the face value of the bonds. Thus, the cash paid to redeem the bonds is,

Cash = 1600000 * 102%  =  1632000

The bonds have a carrying value, which is the face value less discount or add premium, of,

Carrying value = 1600000 - 4800  =  $1595200

If they are redeemed for an amount in excess of the carrying value, they are redeemed at a loss.

The loss on redemption is,

Loss = 1595200 - 1632000 = $36800

Answer:

a) Defects Per Million Opportunity

Explanation:

DPMO is an acronym which stands for Defects Per Million Opportunity. Defects per Million Opportunities refers to a standard metric which represents the number of defects in a process per one million opportunities.

In order to calculate the DPMO, we divide the number of defects by the number of opportunities and then multiply by a million.

Additionally, when a quality characteristics or properties do not tally with a standard or specifications it is generally referred to as a defect.

Hence, in a six sigma approach to quality or level of performance, the defects per million opportunities (DPMO) is 3.4.