Why does it take a longer time for a kilogram of water than a kilogram of copper to reach the same temperature? ​

Answer:

proton:18

neutron:39-18=21

Answer:

 w = -101 rad / s

Explanation:

For this exercise we will use Faraday's law

          E = - dФ / dt

where the magnetic flux is

          Ф = B. A = B A cos θ

In this case, the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the disk is zero, cos 0 = 1, they indicate that the field is constant, let's find the area

The area rotated by the disk is

         A = ½ r s

if we express the angles in radians

         θ = s / r

         s = r θ

where is the arc supported

         A = ½ r (r θ)

let us substitute in the Faraday equation

          E = - d (B ½ r² θ) / dt

          E = - ½ B r² dθ/dt

the definition of angular velocity is

          w = dθ/dt

          E = - ½ B r² w

           w = - 2E / B r²

let's calculate

         w = - 2 3.86 / (0.0314 1.56²)

         w = -101 rad / s

Answer:

A dark fringe

Answer:

D:rarefactions and compressions

Explanation:

Longitudinal waves are readily formed in materials such as a stretched spring. Longitudinal waves are waves which travel in a direction parallel to the vibrations of the medium.

Longitudinal waves are characterized by a series of compressions and rarefactions. The compressions are areas of clusters while rarefactions are areas of expansions. The same can be observed in a sound wave.

Answer:

13.6 cm

Explanation:

From Snell's law:

n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂

In the air, n₁ = 1, and light from the horizon forms a 90° angle with the vertical, so sin θ₁ = sin 90° = 1.

Given n₂ = 4/3:

1 = 4/3 sin θ

sin θ = 3/4

If x is the radius of the circle, then sin θ is:

sin θ = x / √(x² + 12²)

sin θ = x / √(x² + 144)

Substituting:

3/4 = x / √(x² + 144)

9/16 = x² / (x² + 144)

9/16 x² + 81 = x²

81 = 7/16 x²

x ≈ 13.6

Answer:

5000 N/m².

Explanation:

The following data were obtained from the question:

Density (d) = 1000 kg/m³

Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 10 N/kg

Height (h) = 50 cm = 50/100 = 0.5 m

Pressure (P) =.?

Pressure is related to density and height by the following equation:

P = dgh

Where

P is the pressure.

d is the density.

g is the acceleration due to gravity.

h is the height.

With the above formula, we can obtain the pressure at the bottom of the cup as follow:

P = dgh

P = 1000 x 10 x 0.5

P = 5000 N/m²

Therefore, the pressure at bottom of the cup is 5000 N/m².

realtion between applied force.and pressure is more force exerts more pressure whereas less force exerts less pressure

confused in another one

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

1) Applied Force and Pressure

Pressure = Force / Area

This shows that Applied force and pressure are in direct relationship. This means that If the Applied force is more, the Pressure is also More and vice versa.

2) Surface Area of Contact and Pressure

Pressure = Force / Surface Area of Contact

This shows that Pressure and Surface area of contact are inversely related. This means that if pressure is increased on an object, the surface area of contact decreases and vice versa.

You haven't told us what any of those letters represents.

I'm going to assume that ...

-- ' P ' = power

-- ' I ' = circuit current

-- ' V ' = circuit voltage

-- ' E ' = energy

-- ' t ' = time.

Now I'm ready to answer the question that I just invented.

P = I / V

V = P x I

Both of these are false statements, and can't be used to calculate anything.

P = I x V   is the correct equation to calculate electrical power.

E = P x t   is the correct equation to calculate electrical energy.

Answer:

the elastic constant of the spring=1.715

the length of the spring=0.28

Explanation:

we know that according to hooks law

F=-k x

F= force

k= elastic constant

x= extension or compression

given

length change from 35cm to 55 cm so delta x = L2-L1= 55-35=20 cm

now to find k we need F and F =ma

M for part a is 3.5 kg

so F=3.5 kg *9.8=34.3

now k=F/x

k=34.3/20=1.715 N/cm=171.5 N/m

now to find length given mass is 5 kg so

F= ma

F=5*9.8=49 N

so x =F/k

x=49/171.5

x=0.28

Answer:

is the last one, a magnetic wave and electrical current moving in opposite directions

Explanation:

opposite directions always attract in magnetic waves and fields

Answer:

  2.4583 ± 0.0207 seconds

Explanation:

The time period of a pendulum is approximately given by the formula ...

  T = 2π√(L/g)

The maximum period will be achieved when length is longest and gravity is smallest:

  Tmax = 2π√(1.51/9.7) ≈ 2.47903 . . . seconds

The minimum period will be achieved for the opposite conditions: minimum length and maximum gravity:

  Tmin = 2π√(1.49/9.9) ≈ 2.43756 . . . seconds

If we want to express the uncertainty using a symmetrical range, we need to find half their sum and half their difference.

  T = (2.47903 +2.43756)/2 ± (2.47903 -2.43756)/2

  T ≈ 2.4583 ± 0.0207 . . . seconds

__

We have about 2+ significant digits in the given parameters, so the time might be rounded to 2.46±0.02 seconds.

Answer:

D) The force F is perpendicular (normal) to both velocity V and magnetic field B.

Explanation:

When a charged particle enters a magnetic field, it experiences a force which changes its direction of travel. The direction of motion of the charged particle, the magnetic field direction, and the direction of the force, are all perpendicular to one another. According to Lorentz right hand rule, hold the right hand parallel to the ground, with the palm facing up, and the thumb held out at right angle to the other fingers. If the direction of the other fingers represents the magnetic field line and direction, and the thumb represents the direction of motion of a positively charged particle, then, the palm will push up in the direction of the force. For a negatively charged particle, the force will push down in the direction of the back of the hand.

Answer:

here I am just giving an idea of how the graph will be like ...

In the pic..

Hope it helped u if yes mark me BRAINLIEST!

Tysm!

:)

Answer:

See explanation below

Explanation:

234/92U--------> 230/90Th + 4/2He

230/90Th----->226/88Ra + 4/2He

There are various modes of radioactive decay. One of them is alpha decay.

Alpha decay involves the loss of an alpha particle from a nucleus. When this occurs, the mass number of the daughter nucleus is four units less than that of the parent while the atomic number of the daughter nucleus is two units less than that of its parent as shown in the equations above.

An alpha particle is akin to a helium nucleus in terms of mass and charge

Answer:

v1 = −2.201946 m/s ( to the left)

v2 = 0.7780534 m/s ( to the right)

Explanation:

Given the following :

Mass of first glider (m1) = 0.149kg

Initial Speed of first glider (u1) = 0.710 m/s

Mass of second glider (m2) = 0.308kg

Initial Speed of second glider (u2) = 2.27m/s

For elastic collision:

m1u1 + mu2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2

Where V1 and v2 = final velocities if the body after collision.

Taking right as positive ; left as negative

u1 = 0.710m/s ; u2 = - 2.27m/s

u1 - u2 = - (v1 - v2)

0.710 - - 2.27 = - v1 + v2

v2 - v1 = 2.98 - - - - (1)

From:

m1u1 + mu2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2

(0.149 * 0.710) + ( 0.308 * - 2.27) = (0.149 * v1) + (0.308 * v2)

0.10579 + (-0.69916) = 0.149 v1 + 0.308v2

−0.59337 = 0.149 v1 + 0.308v2

Dividing both sides by 0.149

v1 + 2.067v2 = −0.59337 - - - - - (2)

From (1)

v2 = 2.98 + v1

v1 + 2.067(2.98 + v1) = −0.59337

v1 + 6.16 + 2.067v1 = −0.59337

3.067v1 = −0.59337 - 6.16

3.067v1 = −6.75337

v1 = −6.75337 / 3.067

v1 = −2.201946 m/s ( to the left)

From v2 = 2.98 + v1

v2 = 2.98 + (-2.201946)

v2 = 0.7780534 m/s ( to the right)

Answer:

B for BIG

Explanation:

carbs and fats is energy, if not being use or burned off, it'll be becomes body fat.

Answer:

Explanation:

Pinhole camera is a simple camera. It does not have a lens. The light passes from a hole and an inverted image is formed on the opposite side of the box.

Answer:

The correct option is energy levels

Explanation:

Rutherford's model of an atom suggests that an atom has a tiny positively charged central mass (now called the nucleus) which is surrounded by electrons (negatively charged) in a cloud-like manner.

Bohr's model went a bit further than the Rutherford's model in describing an atom by suggesting that the electrons which surrounds in the nucleus travel in fixed circular orbits. This description by Bohr was able to describe the energy levels of orbitals which assumes that smallest orbitals have the lowest energy while the largest orbitals have the highest energy.

Answer:

energy levels

hope this helped!

Explanation:

Answer:

The magnitude of the resultant of the magnetic field is [tex]4.11\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

Current = 40 A

Magnetic field [tex]B=3.7\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Distance = 22 cm

We need to calculate the magnetic field

Using formula of magnetic field

[tex]B'=\dfrac{\mu_{0}I}{2\pi r}[/tex]

Where, r = distance

I = current

Put the value into the formula

[tex]B'=\dfrac{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times20}{2\pi\times0.22}[/tex]

[tex]B'=1.8\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

We need to calculate the magnitude of the resultant of the magnetic field

Using formula of resultant

[tex]B''=\sqrt{B^2+B'^2}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]B''=\sqrt{(3.7\times10^{-5})^2+(1.8\times10^{-5})^2}[/tex]

[tex]B''=4.11\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Hence, The magnitude of the resultant of the magnetic field is [tex]4.11\times10^{-5}\ T[/tex]

Answer:

Rounded to three significant figures:

(a) [tex]2 \times 575\; \rm nm = 1150\; \rm nm = 1.15\times 10^{-6}\; \rm m[/tex].

(b) [tex]\displaystyle \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right) \times (575\;\rm nm) \approx 863\; \rm nm = 8.63\times 10^{-7}\; \rm m[/tex].

Explanation:

Consider a double-slit experiment where a wide beam of monochromatic light arrives at a filter with a double slit. On the other side of the filter, the two slits will appear like two point light sources that are in phase with each other. For each point on the screen, "path" refers to the length of the segment joining that point and each of the two slits. "Path difference" will thus refer to the difference between these two lengths.  

Let [tex]k[/tex] denote a natural number ([tex]k \in \left\lbrace0,\, 1,\, 2,\, \dots\right\rbrace[/tex].) In a double-split experiment of a monochromatic light:

The path difference is at a minimum (zero) at the center of the screen between the two slits. That's the position of the first maximum- the central maximum, a bright fringe where [tex]k = 0[/tex] in [tex]\text{Path difference} = 0[/tex].

The path difference increases while moving on the screen away from the center. The first order maximum is at [tex]k = 1[/tex] where [tex]\text{Path difference} = \lambda[/tex].

Similarly, the second order maximum is at [tex]k = 2[/tex] where [tex]\text{Path difference} = 2\, \lambda[/tex]. For the light in this question, at the second order maximum: [tex]\text{Path difference} = 2\, \lambda = 2 \times 575\; \rm nm = 1.15\times 10^{-6}\; \rm m[/tex].

The dark fringe closest to the center of the screen is the first minimum. [tex]\displaystyle \text{Path difference} = \left(0 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \lambda = \frac{1}{2}\, \lambda[/tex] at that point.

Add one wavelength to that path difference gives another dark fringe- the second minimum. [tex]\displaystyle \text{Path difference} = \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \lambda[/tex] at that point.

For the light in this question, at the second order minimum: [tex]\displaystyle \text{Path difference} = \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\cdot \lambda = \left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right)\times (575\; \rm nm) \approx 8.63\times 10^{-7}\; \rm m[/tex].

this process is called parellelogram method of resolving vectors.

Answer:

Chemical Energy

Explanation:

Answer:

The energy that can be stored in the capacitor is 239 nJ

Explanation:

We first calculate the capacitance of each material. Let C₁ be the capacitance of pyrex glass and C₂ be the capacitance of polystyrene.

C₁ = κ₁ε₀A/d where κ₁ = dielectric constant of pyrex glass = 5, A = area of plates = L² where L = length of square plate = 7.40 cm = 7.40 × 10⁻² m and d = thickness of pyrex slab = 1.60 mm = 1.60 × 10⁻³ m and ε₀ = permittivity of free space = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m

C₁ = κ₁ε₀A/d = κ₁ε₀L²/d = 5 × 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m × (7.40 × 10⁻² m)²/1.60 × 10⁻³ m = 2424.2252/1.60 × 10⁻¹¹ F = 1515.14 × 10⁻¹¹ F = 15.2 × 10⁻⁹ F = 15.2 nF

C₂ = κ₂ε₀A/d where κ₂ = dielectric constant of polystyrene = 3, A = area of plates = L² where L = length of square plate = 7.40 cm = 7.40 × 10⁻² m and d = thickness of polystyrene slab = 1.60 mm = 1.60 × 10⁻³ m and ε₀ = permittivity of free space = 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m

C₁ = κ₁ε₀A/d = κ₁ε₀L²/d = 3 × 8.854 × 10⁻¹² F/m × (7.40 × 10⁻² m)²/1.60 × 10⁻³ m = 1454.5351/1.60 × 10⁻¹¹ F = 909.08 × 10⁻¹¹ F = 9.09 × 10⁻⁹ F = 9.09 nF

Since the capacitors are in series, we find their effective capacitance C from

1/C = 1/C₁ + 1/C₂

C = C₁C₂/(C₁ + C₂)

= 15.2 × 10⁻⁹ F × 9.09 × 10⁻⁹ F/(15.2 × 10⁻⁹ F + 9.09 × 10⁻⁹ F)

= 138.168 × 10⁻¹⁸/24.29 × 10⁻⁹ F

= 5.69 × 10⁻⁹ F

The amount of electrical energy stored in a capacitor is given by W = 1/2CV² where C = capacitance and v = voltage applied. Now C = 5.69 × 10⁻⁹ F and V = 84.0 V for this capacitor

So W = 1/2 × 5.69 × 10⁻⁹ F × 84.0 V

= 238.98 × 10⁻⁹ J

≅ 239 × 10⁻⁹ J

= 239 nJ

So the energy that can be stored in the capacitor is 239 nJ

Answer:

The necessary force applied by the person to hold the mass stationary there is 10 N

Explanation:

We are told that this person extends the spring 30 cm from equilibrium and holds it at this location by applying a 10 N force.

Thus, based on Hooke's law formula which is F = k Δx, we can say that the mass attached to the spring does not change the spring constant. Thus, the

same resistive spring force will still be in place and in turn, the same stretching force of 10N would still be required.

Thus;

The necessary force applied by the person to hold the mass stationary there is 10 N

Answer:

2,500,000W or 2.5MW

Explanation:

The power lost due to resistance is given by I^2R. We must first obtain R as follows;

Resistance per kilometer= 0.050Ω/km

Distance covered= 200km

R = 200km x 0.050Ω/km = 10Ω

The lost power as a 500A current passes through the powerline is:

P = I²R

P= 500² x 10

P= 2,500,000 W or 2.5MW

The resistive power loss in 200 km of the powerline is of 2.5 MW.

Given data:

The root mean square voltage is, V' = 500000 V.

The magnitude of current through the power line is, I =500 A.

The magnitude of resistance of cable is, R = 0.050 Ω/km.

The length of powerline is, L = 200 km.

Whenever there is a flow of current through the wire, then there are various losses out of which the power loss is a major factor. The mathematical expression for the power loss is given as

P = I²R

Solving as,

P= 500² x 10

P= 2,500,000 W or 2.5MW

Thus, we can conclude that the resistive power loss in 200 km of the powerline is of 2.5 MW.

Learn more about the resistive power loss here:

https://brainly.com/question/15158529

Answer:

The answer is 29 AU

Hoped I helped

mark me as brainliest

Answer:

29

Explanation:

Explanation:

SI is the international system of units

It was developed to express magnitudes and quantities

Answer:

a. 26.7 cm. b. 11.4 cm.

Explanation:

a. We know h'/h = d'/d where h' = image height = + 2 cm (since it is a real image), h = object height = + 1.5 cm, d' = image distance from mirror and d = object distance from mirror = 20 cm

So, from h'/h = d'/d

d = h'd/h

= 2 cm × 20 cm/1.5 cm

= 40/1.5 cm

=  26.67 cm

≅ 26.7 cm

The position of the image is 26.7 cm from the mirror

b. Using the mirror formula

1/d + 1/d' = 1/f where d = object distance from mirror = + 20 cm, d' = image distance from mirror = + 26.7 cm (its positive since its a real image) and f = focal length of mirror.

So, 1/d + 1/d' = 1/f

⇒ f = dd'/(d + d')

= 20 cm × 26.7 cm/(20 cm + 26.7 cm)

= 534/46.7

= 11.43 cm

≅ 11.4 cm

The focal length of the mirror is 11.4 cm

Answer:

usa

Explanation:

Answer:

The ending pressure is R.

Explanation:

This is Recreational scuba diving (R). According to standards, this diving has prescribed depth limit of 130 ft. This means that the limit must include a depth that is not greater than 130 ft while using only compressed air and not even requiring a decompression stop.

Now, from the question, we can see that that there was a prescribed limit of 60ft of water with a planned bottom time of 30 minutes.

Thus, the ending pressure is R.