When you shine a beam of light, which is composed of just two different colors, red and green, onto a diffraction grating which color gets diffracted more

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for determining the Emf induced in a loop is:

[tex]\varepsilon = \dfrac{d \phi}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\varepsilon = \dfrac{d (B*A)}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\varepsilon = A \times \dfrac{dB}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\varepsilon = (side (l))^2 \times \dfrac{dB}{dt}[/tex]

where;

square area A = ( l²)

l² = 6.0 cm = 6.0 × 10⁻²

∴

[tex]\varepsilon = ( 6.0 \times 10^{-2})^2 \times 5.0 \times 10^{-3} \ T/S[/tex]

[tex]\varepsilon =18 \times 10^{6} \ V[/tex]

Recall that:

The resistivity of copper = [tex]1.68 \times 10^{-8}[/tex] ohm m

We can as well say that the length of the copper wire = perimeter of the square loop;

The perimeter of the square loop = 4L

Thus, the length of the copper wire  = 4 (6.0 × 10⁻² )m

= 24× 10⁻² m

Finally, the current in the loop is determined from the formula:

V = IR

where,

V = voltage

I = current and R = resistance of the wire

Making "I" the subject:

I = V/R

where;

[tex]R = \dfrac{\rho \times l}{A}[/tex]

[tex]R = \dfrac{\rho \times l}{\pi * r^2}[/tex]

[tex]R = \dfrac{1.68 *10^{-8} \times 24*10^{-2}}{\pi * (1*10^{-3})^2}[/tex]

[tex]R = 0.001283 \ ohms[/tex]

∴

[tex]I = \dfrac{18*10^{-6}}{0.001283}[/tex]

I = 14.029 mA

Check attached photo

Check attached photo

Answer:

Explanation:

1. If C = A + B then the lines A and B may have the same magnitude or they may not. The direction of A for example may be northwest ↖️ and the direction of B must be south ⬇️ because the arrow of A and the point of B must connect. Then C’s direction is west ⬅️ because it shouldn’t be as equilibrium.

2. If C = 0 t means the force is at equilibrium. That means all forces add up to zero. A’s direction for example may be northeast ↗️ and the direction of B may be south ⬇️ and the direction of C must be west if it has to be at equilibrium.

The magnitude of A and B must be equal

Answer:

[tex]\displaystyle T = \sqrt{\frac{4\, \pi^{2} \, r^{3}}{G \cdot m}}[/tex].

The unit of both sides of this equation are [tex]\rm s[/tex].

Explanation:

The unit of the left-hand side is [tex]\rm s[/tex], same as the unit of [tex]T[/tex].

The following makes use of the fact that for any non-zero value [tex]x[/tex], the power [tex]x^{-1}[/tex] is equivalent to [tex]\displaystyle \frac{1}{x}[/tex].

On the right-hand side of this equation:

[tex]\begin{aligned}& \rm \sqrt{\frac{(m)^{3}}{(m^{3} \cdot kg^{-1} \cdot s^{-2}) \cdot (kg)}} \\ &= \rm \sqrt{\frac{m^{3}}{m^{3} \cdot s^{-2}}} = \sqrt{s^{2}} = s\end{aligned}[/tex].

Hence, the unit on the right-hand side of this equation is also [tex]\rm s[/tex].

Answer:

0.5849Weber

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the magnetic flus is expressed as:

[tex]\phi = BAcos \theta[/tex]

Given

The magnitude of the magnetic field B = 3.35T

Area of the loop = πr² = 3.14(0.24)² = 0.180864m²

angle of the wire loop θ = 15.1°

Substitute the given values into the formula:

[tex]\phi = 3.35(0.180864)cos15.1^0\\\phi =0.6058944cos15.1^0\\\phi =0.6058944(0.9655)\\\phi = 0.5849Wb[/tex]

Hence the magnetic flux Φ through the loop is 0.5849Weber

Answer:

Un objeto se encuentra en equilibrio físico si la fuerza neta que se le aplica es igual a 0.

En este caso solo se aplican fuerzas en el eje horizontal, por lo que las podremos sumar directamente.

La persona A aplica una fuerza:

Fa = -3N

La persona B aplica una fuerza:

Fb = 5N

La persona C aplica una fuerza Fc, la cual aún no conocemos.

Pero sabemos que la caja está en equilibrio físico, por lo que:

Fa + Fb + Fc = 0N

reemplazando los valores que conocemos, obtenemos:

-3N + 5N + Fc = 0N

Ahora podemos resolver esto para Fc, la fuerza que aplica la persona C.

Fc = 0N + 3N - 5N

Fc = -2N

Podemos concluir que la persona C aplica una fuerza horizontal de -2N

Answer:

Charge of the particle is 1 coulomb.

Explanation:

Force, F:

[tex]{ \bf{F=BeV}}[/tex]

F is magnetic force.

B is the magnetic flux density.

e is the charge of the particle.

V is the velocity

[tex]{ \sf{20 = (5 \times e \times 4)}} \\ { \sf{20e = 20}} \\ { \sf{e = 1 \: coulomb}}[/tex]

Your friend would have a better experience of this event, than you .

An eclipse is produced when a planetary body moves in front of another planetary body and is visible from a third planetary body. Considering the sun, moon, and earth's locations in relation to one another during the time of the eclipse,

there are various types of eclipses in our solar system. For instance, a lunar eclipse occurs when the earth passes between the moon and the sun.

For the solar eclipse to happen the light from the sun is obstructed by the moon observing from the earth.

The buddies left Earth because they could view the whole eclipse, but you were on the moon and only saw parts of the eclipse turn black.

To learn more about the eclipse from here, refer to the link;

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Answer:

1.24

Explanation:

The resistivity of copper[tex]\rho_1=2.65\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega-m[/tex]

The resistivity of Aluminum,[tex]\rho_2=1.72\times 10^{-8}\ \Omega-m[/tex]

The wires have same resistance per unit length.

The resistance of a wire is given by :

[tex]R=\rho \dfrac{l}{A}\\\\R=\rho \dfrac{l}{\pi (\dfrac{d}{2})^2}\\\\\dfrac{R}{l}=\rho \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d}{2})^2}[/tex]

According to given condition,

[tex]\rho_1 \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d_1}{2})^2}=\rho_2 \dfrac{1}{\pi (\dfrac{d_2}{2})^2}\\\\\rho_1 \dfrac{1}{{d_1}^2}=\rho_2 \dfrac{1}{{d_2}^2}\\\\(\dfrac{d_2}{d_1})^2=\dfrac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}\\\\\dfrac{d_2}{d_1}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\rho_1}{\rho_2}}\\\\\dfrac{d_2}{d_1}=\sqrt{\dfrac{2.65\times 10^{-8}}{1.72\times 10^{-8}}}\\\\=1.24[/tex]

So, the required ratio of the diameter of Aluminum to Copper wire is 1.24.

Answer:

P = -1 D

Explanation:

For this exercise we must use the equation of the constructor

       / f = 1 / p + 1 / q

where f is the focal length, p and q is the distance to the object and the image, respectively

The far view point is at p =∞  and its image must be at q = -100 cm = 1 m, the negative sign is because the image is on the same side as the image  

        [tex]\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{infinity} + \frac{1}{-1}[/tex]

         f = 1 m

         P = 1/f

          P = -1 D

Answer:

1.74×10⁻³ m

Explanation:

Applying,

ε = Stress/strain............. Equation 1

Where ε = Young's modulus

But,

Stress = F/A.............. Equation 2

Where F = Force, A = Area

Strain = e/L.............. Equation 3

e = extension, L = Length.

Substitute equation 2 and 3 into equation 1

ε = (F/A)/(e/L) = FL/eA............. Equation 4

From the question,

Given: F = 285 N, L = 29 cm = 0.29 m, ε = 5.00×10⁹ N/m²,

A = πd²/4 = 3.14(0.0011²)/4 = 9.4985×10⁻⁶ m²

Substitute these values into equation 4

5.00×10⁹ = (285×0.29)/(9.4985×10⁻⁶×e)

Solve for e

e = (285×0.29)/(5.00×10⁹×9.4985×10⁻⁶)

e = 82.65/4.74925×10⁴

e = 1.74×10⁻³ m

Answer:

he is a baby art and design

Answer:

Moment of inertia, in physics, quantitative measure of the rotational inertia of a body—i.e., the opposition that the body exhibits to having its speed of rotation about an axis altered by the application of a torque (turning force). The axis may be internal or external and may or may not be fixed.

Answer:

The unit of the time constant RC is the second

Explanation:

The unit of resistance, R is the Ohm, Ω and resistance, R = V/I where V = voltage and I = current. The unit of voltage is the volt, V while the unit of current is the ampere. A.

Since R = V/I

Unit of R = unit of V/unit of I

Unit of R = V/A

Ω = V/A

Also, The unit of capacitance, C is the Farad, F and capacitance, F = Q/V where Q = charge and V = voltage. the unit of charge is the coulomb, C while the unit of voltage is the volt, V

Since C = Q/V

Unit of C = unit of Q/unit of V

Unit of C = C/V

F = C/V

Now the time constant equals RC.

So, the unit of the time constant = unit of R × unit of C = Ω × F = V/A × C/V = C/A

Also. we know that the  1 Ampere = 1 Coulomb per second

1 A = 1 C/s

So, substituting 1 A in the denominator, we have

unit of RC =  C/A = C ÷ C/s = s

So, the unit of RC = s = second

So, the unit of the time constant RC is the second

Answer:

PlROCA

Explanation:

Answer:

In direct-current circuit theory, Norton's theorem is a simplification that can be applied to networks made of linear time-invariant resistances, voltage sources, and current sources. At a pair of terminals of the network, it can be replaced by a current source and a single resistor in parallel.

Answer:

[tex]E=35921.96N/C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Radius [tex]r=0.321mm[/tex]

Charge Density [tex]\mu=0.100[/tex]

Distance [tex]d= 5.00 cm[/tex]

Generally the equation for electric field is mathematically given by

[tex]E=\frac{mu}{2\pi E_0r}[/tex]

[tex]E=\frac{0.100*10^{-6}}{2*3.142*8.86*10^{-12}*5*10^{-2}}[/tex]

[tex]E=35921.96N/C[/tex]

Answer:

I think the answer is A...I'm not sure

Explanation:

A=(6,4)

B=(-2,-1)

A-B=(6-(-2)),(4-(-1))

=(6+2),(4+1)

=(8,5)

Answer:

[tex]6-(-2)=[/tex]

[tex]6+2[/tex]

[tex]=8[/tex]

[tex]4-\left(-1\right)[/tex]

[tex]=4+1[/tex]

[tex]=5[/tex]

[tex](8,5)[/tex]

[tex]\textbf{OAmalOHopeO}[/tex]

Answer:

A circuit with two 10 ohm resistors connected in series.

Explanation:

The formula for the equivalent resistance for resistors in parallel is

[tex]\frac{1}{Rt} = \frac{1}{R1} + \frac{1}{R2}[/tex]   So if R1=R2= 10  [tex]\frac{1}{Rt} = \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10} = \frac{2}{10} <=> Rt =\frac{10}{2} =5 ohm[/tex]

The formula for the equivalent resistance for resistors in series is

Rt = R1 + R2  So Rt= 10 + 10 = 20

Answer:

0

Explanation:

The speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 0 because when an object is at rest or in uniform motion, it has no speed/velocity

The final speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 7.10 m/s.

The conservation of energy is a fundamental principle in physics that states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, but only converted from one form to another or transferred from one system to another. In other words, the total amount of energy in a closed system remains constant over time, even though it may be converted from one form to another.

This principle is based on the first law of thermodynamics, which states that the total energy of a closed system is always conserved, and can only be changed by the transfer of heat, work, or matter into or out of the system. The conservation of energy has important applications in various fields of physics, including mechanics, thermodynamics, and electromagnetism, and is a fundamental principle in the understanding of the natural world.

Here in the Question,

We can use the conservation of energy to solve this problem. Initially, the ball has kinetic energy due to its motion on the tabletop, but no potential energy since it is at a constant height. When the ball rolls off the edge of the table, it loses some kinetic energy due to friction but gains potential energy as it moves upward. When it reaches the floor, it has gained potential energy but lost kinetic energy due to friction. We can assume that the energy lost due to friction is converted to thermal energy, so the total energy of the system is conserved.

Let's start by calculating the potential energy gained by the ball as it moves from the edge of the table to the floor:

ΔPE = mgh

where ΔPE is the change in potential energy, m is the mass of the ball, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the vertical distance traveled by the ball.

ΔPE = (0.50 kg)(9.81 m/s^2)(1.0 m) = 4.905 J

Now we can use the conservation of energy to find the final kinetic energy of the ball, which will allow us to calculate its final speed:

KEi + ΔPEi = KEf + ΔPEf

where KEi and ΔPEi are the initial kinetic and potential energies of the ball, respectively, and KEf and ΔPEf are the final kinetic and potential energies of the ball, respectively.

Since the ball is not bouncing, we can assume that its initial and final potential energies are zero. Therefore:

KEi = KEf + ΔKE

where ΔKE is the change in kinetic energy due to friction.

We can assume that the coefficient of kinetic friction between the ball and the incline is constant, and use the work-energy principle to find ΔKE:

Wfric = ΔKE

where Wfric is the work done by friction.

The work done by friction can be expressed as:

Wfric = ffricd

where ffric is the force of friction and d is the distance traveled by the ball on the incline.

The force of friction can be expressed as:

ffric = μmg

where μ is the coefficient of kinetic friction, and m and g have their usual meanings.

Putting it all together, we get:

KEi = KEf + ffricd

KEi = KEf + μmgd

(1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)mu^2 + μmgd

v^2 = u^2 + 2gd

where u is the initial speed of the ball on the tabletop, and v is the final speed of the ball on the floor.

Plugging in the given values, we get:

v^2 = (5.0 m/s)^2 + 2(9.81 m/s^2)(1.0 m)

v^2 = 50.405

v = 7.10 m/s

Therefore, the final speed of the ball when it reaches the floor is 7.10 m/s.

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Answer:

Florida is tropical, with a significant rainy seson

Answer:

the force decreases by a factor of 4

Explanation:

The expression for the law of universal gravitation is

          F = [tex]G \frac{m_1m_2}{r^2}[/tex]

let's call the force Fo for the distance r

          F₀ = [tex]G \frac{m_1m_2}{r^2}[/tex]

They indicate that the distance doubles

          r ’= 2 r

we substitute

          F = [tex]G \frac{m_1m_2}{(r')^2}[/tex]

          F = [tex]G \frac{m_1m_2}{r^2} \ \frac{1}{4}[/tex]

          F = ¼ F₀

consequently the correct answer is that the force decreases by a factor of 4

If the distance between two large masses are doubled, the gravitational force between them weakens by a factor of 4.

Let the initial force be F

Let the initial distance apart be r

Thus, we can obtain the final force as follow:

Initial force (F₁) = F

Initial distance apart (r₁) = r

Final distance apart (r₂) = 2r

F = GM₁M₂ / r²

Fr² = GM₁M₂ (constant)

Thus,

F₁r₁² = F₂r₂²

Fr² = F₂(2r)²

Fr² = F₂4r²

Divide both side by 4r²

F₂ = Fr² /4r²

From the illustration above, we can see that when the distance (r) is doubled, the force (F) is decreased (i.e weakens) by a factor of 4

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Answer:

(a)  209 Watt

(b) 4482.8 seconds

Explanation:

(a) P = 50×4.18

Where P = rate of heat loss in watt

    P = 209 Watt

Applying,

Q = cm(t₁-t₂)................ Equation 1

Where Q = amount of heat given off, c = specific heat capacity capacity of human, m = mass of the person, t₁ and t₂ = initial and final temperature.

From the question,

Given: m = 90 kg, t₁ = 40°C, t₂ = 37°C

Constant: c = 3470 J/kg.K

Substtut these values into equation 1

Q = 90×3470(40-37)

Q = 936900 J

But,

P = Q/t.............. Equation 2

Where t = time

t = Q/P............ Equation 3

Given: P = 209 Watt, Q = 936900

Substitute into equation 3

t = 936900/209

t = 4482.8 seconds

Answer:

ask in the English then I can help you

Explanation:

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Explanation:

Let [tex]\textbf{A} = 6\hat{\textbf{i}} + 4\hat{\textbf{j}} - 2\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex] and [tex]\textbf{B} = 2\hat{\textbf{i}} - 2\hat{\textbf{j}} + 3\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

The sum of the two vectors is

[tex]\textbf{A + B} = (6 + 2)\hat{\textbf{i}} + (4 - 2)\hat{\textbf{j}} + (-2 + 3)\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

[tex] = 8\hat{\textbf{i}} + 2\hat{\textbf{j}} + \hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

The difference between the two vectors can be written as

[tex]\textbf{A - B} = (6 - 2)\hat{\textbf{i}} + (4 - (-2))\hat{\textbf{j}} + (-2 - 3)\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

[tex]= 4\hat{\textbf{i}} + 6\hat{\textbf{j}} - 5\hat{\textbf{k}}[/tex]

Answer:

B has greater potential

Explanation:

We know;

Potential Energy (PE) = mgh

where, m=mass of body

g=acceleration due to gravity

h=height of body

From the formula,

PE is directly proportional to the mass of the body

so the body with greater mass has greater potential.

Answer:

4.38 m/s

Explanation: