When the simple interest method is used to determine finance charges, the interest is calculated based on the. a. future value of the installments.
b. average outstanding balance.
c. actual balance of the loan.
d. present value of all finance charges.
e. future value of all finance charges.

Answers

Answer 1

When the simple interest method is used to determine finance charges, the interest is calculated based on b. the average outstanding balance.

Simple interest is a formula that calculates the interest paid on the principal sum only. Simple interest is determined by multiplying the loan amount by the interest rate and the loan term. Then, the amount of interest owed is determined by subtracting the original loan amount from the total due.Simple interest is used to determine finance charges. Interest is calculated based on the average outstanding balance when the Simple Interest method is used to determine finance charges. This is how to calculate the average outstanding balance: Average Outstanding Balance = (Beginning Balance + Ending Balance) ÷ 2

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Related Questions

which type of loan typically has a lower interest rate?

Answers

Secured personal loans often come with lower interest rates than unsecured personal loans.

Consider the competitive market for rhenium. Assume that no matter how many firms operate in the industry, every firm is identical and faces the same marginal cost (MC), average total cost (ATC), and average variable cost (AVC) curves plotted in the following graph. The following graph plots the market demand curve for rhenium. plot the short-run industry supply curve when there are 30 firms. If there were 30 firms in this market, the short-run equilibrium price of rhenium would be per pound. At that price, firms in this industry would . Therefore, in the long run, firms would the rhenium market. Because you know that competitive firms earn economic profit in the long run, you know the long-run equilibrium price must be per pound. From the graph, you can see that this means there will be firms operating in the rhenium industry in long-run equilibrium. True or False: Assuming implicit costs are positive, each of the firms operating in this industry in the long run earns negative accounting profit. True False

Answers

The given Statement is - False , because it will earn Positive accounting profit when implicit costs are positive.

Firm will start to produce when price(cost) is equal or above AVC and start to make profit when price (cost) is above ATC.

Supply 10 firms , we will just multiply the quantity by 10 and we will multiply quantity by 20 and 30 for supply 20 and supply 30 firms.

Step: 2

Blank 1 - $40 per pound (where 30 firms supply curve intersected the demand curve)

Blank 2 - produce (because the price is above AVC)

Blank 3 - some firms will exit the market (as they are incurring losses)

Blank 4 - zero [where ATC = MC(price) ]

Blank 5 - $52 per pound

Blank 6 - 10 firms (where supply 10 firms intersects the demand curve at $52)

Zero economic profit also known as normal profits where MC(price) = ATC.

Hence, The given Statement is - False , because it will earn positive accounting profit when implicit costs are positive.

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suppose the total cost for various levels of output for a competitive price-taker firm are given in the table below: q tc 0 10 1 12 2 15 3 19 4 24 5 30 6 37 7 46 8 55 9 65 if the market price is $8, how many units should the firm produce to maximize profit?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

46

The firm should produce 5 units of output to maximize its profit when the market price is $8.

What is profit?

A profit is the amount of money earned from a specific product or service, which is calculated by deducting costs from sales and establishing the profit margin.

To determine the profit-maximizing level of output, we need to calculate the marginal cost (MC) and marginal revenue (MR) of each level of production.

Using the given table attached as image below, we can calculate the marginal cost and total revenue for each level of output.

The difference in total cost between each level of output is used to calculate MC, while the market price of $8 is used to calculate MR for all levels of output.

To maximize profit, the firm should produce the number of units at which marginal cost equals marginal revenue, which occurs at a production level of 5 units.

Thus, when the market price is $8, the firm should produce 5 units of output to maximize its profit.

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during which stage of product development does a company estimate costs, identify pricing, and evaluate demand for the product in order to determine profitability? multiple choice question. product launch idea generation test marketing business analysis

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The stage of product development in which a company estimates costs, identifies pricing, and evaluates demand for the product in order to determine profitability is Business Analysis.

Business Analysis is a process in which companies assess the viability of their product by studying its costs, pricing and potential customer base. This analysis helps them make decisions about whether to move forward with the product launch. It involves researching the market, competition, potential customers and financial costs.

Companies must also create realistic expectations for how the product will perform once it is launched. This includes estimating potential sales, customer feedback and profitability. All of these factors help companies decide if the product is worth developing.

By researching the market, competition, potential customers and financial costs, companies can get a better understanding of the viability of their product. This helps them determine the pricing, production costs and potential profits. Companies can then use this information to make a more informed decision about whether to launch their product. This analysis allows them to create realistic expectations for the product launch and helps them manage risks.

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what are the problems with, and solutions for, monopoly? in most cases, markets are considered more efficent and better off when monopolies are broken up. why is it hard for governments to do this?

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Problem with monopoly: One of the primary problems with monopolies is that they lead to higher prices, reduced efficiency, and reduced output.

The goal of the monopoly is to maximize profits, and it does so by reducing the number of products and raising prices. They also discourage innovation since they don't have to compete. Solutions to monopoly: There are a variety of ways to address monopolies.

To begin, the government may break up a monopoly by forcing the company to divide into smaller, more competitive entities. Government can also encourage new businesses to enter the market by removing barriers to entry or providing support to new entrepreneurs. Consumers may also choose to support small businesses and local businesses to reduce their reliance on monopolies.

The government faces a variety of challenges in breaking up monopolies. First, monopolies have the potential to produce significant political power, making them a formidable opponent to the government. They often have the money and influence to lobby politicians and control the narrative.

Second, breaking up a monopoly might have unintended consequences, such as harming the economy or reducing innovation. As a result, policymakers must thoroughly analyze the effects of breaking up a monopoly before making a decision.

Third, many monopolies are multinational corporations that operate in numerous countries, making it difficult for a single government to control them. Finally, the government may not have the necessary resources to enforce the law against a large corporation.

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what is the purpose of liability coverage on a renters insurance policy?

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The purpose of liability coverage on a renters insurance policy is to protect the policyholder from financial responsibility for injuries or damages that may occur to other individuals or their properties while they are on the policyholder's rented property.

Liability coverage is a type of insurance that protects the insured individual or organization from financial losses arising from lawsuits. The policyholder is covered for any accidental bodily injury or property damage they might cause to others while on their rented property.

A person may sue a renter for damages they suffered while on their rented property, claiming negligence. A renter's liability coverage will cover the costs associated with defending against lawsuits brought by other parties who are injured or suffer property damage as a result of the renter's actions.

The policyholder's liability coverage on their renters insurance policy will cover legal fees, settlement amounts, and court-awarded damages in the event of a lawsuit. Liability coverage on a renter's insurance policy can also cover any damage the renter causes to someone else's property, such as their landlord's house or car.

Liability coverage protects renters who have a party at their house or apartment, for example, and one of their guests is injured. It also protects renters from lawsuits filed by anyone who is hurt on the rented property's grounds. Liability coverage can also cover the cost of damage to a neighboring apartment or home caused by a renter's negligence or carelessness.

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In order to gain knowledge of a new client's business during the audit planning phase, the auditor may engage in several information gathering activities. Which of the following is not one of those activities?
a. Reviewing the minutes of the stockholder and Board of Directors' meetings.
b. Taking a tour of the client's facilities.
c. Performing inquiries with outside legal counsel to gain understanding of existing lawsuits.
d. Reviewing the client's policies and procedures manual to gather information on the client's accounting processes.

Answers

In order to gain knowledge of a new client's business during the audit planning phase, the auditor may engage in several information-gathering activities. The activity that is not one of those activities is performing inquiries with outside legal counsel to gain an understanding of existing lawsuits. Option c is the right choice.

An auditor is a person who reviews and verifies a company's financial statements to ensure that they are free of material errors and that they have been prepared in compliance with accounting standards.

Information gathering is a method of collecting data or information related to a particular subject or topic. Data collection can be done through a variety of techniques, such as interviews, questionnaires, or research.

The activity that is not one of the information-gathering activities is performing inquiries with outside legal counsel to gain an understanding of existing lawsuits. However, reviewing the minutes of the stockholder and Board of Directors meetings, taking a tour of the client's facilities, and reviewing the client's policies and procedures manual to gather information on the client's accounting processes are all valid information-gathering activities that an auditor can do. to plan auditing in a better way.

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_____ is a type of movement where there is a decrease in the angle between articulating bones.
(a) Flexion
(b) Extension
(c) Gliding
(d) Circumduction
(e) Rotation.

Answers

Option A, which is flexion, is the proper choice.

What is Flexion?

a bending motion that reduces the angle between the bones of the limb at the joint of the limb (such as the knee or elbow).

Flexion is the stretching of a certain joint, which causes the bones that make up that joint to get closer to one another. The angle between both the bones of the limbs at a joint narrows during flexion. Flexion normally happens as a result of muscles contracting, which causes the bones to shift the surrounding joint into a bent or curled posture. When a component is flexed past the range of motion normally allowed, this is known as hyperflexion. The joint is flexed past the point at which it is safe to do so when it is hyperflexed. This type of erratic movement may lead to

Such violent movement may put the opposition ligaments, tissues, and muscles at risk of injury.

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TowerMotors Inc., an automotive company, searches for an external research provider to conduct marketing research. As a client who requires marketing research information, TowerMotors Inc. engages in an unethical practice if it _____.
asks for detailed research proposals from various competing research providers with no intention of actually choosing a firm to conduct the research

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TowerMotors Inc., an automotive company, engages in an unethical practice if it asks for detailed research proposals from various competing research providers with no intention of actually choosing a firm to conduct the research.

By not selecting a firm to conduct research after reviewing their proposals, TowerMotors is wasting the time and resources of the competing research providers. The ethical issue involved in this scenario is the obligation to act fairly, honestly, and with integrity towards the research providers.

It is vital for TowerMotors to select the firm to conduct the research if it makes a request for detailed research proposals from different research providers. This will enable the company to establish trust and integrity in its business relationships with its suppliers. Additionally, by selecting a research firm, TowerMotors will have access to the valuable information needed to make informed decisions and maintain its competitive edge.

Therefore, TowerMotors Inc. engages in an unethical practice if it asks for detailed research proposals from various competing research providers with no intention of actually choosing a firm to conduct the research.

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as part of the preparation process, a business speaker should multiple choice question.
a. plan to arrive exactly at the scheduled time of the speech to avoid hearing comments beforehand.
b. consider possible questions from the audience.
c. focus solely on making a clear presentation. d.reduce transitions in the presentation at points where audience members might freely interrupt.

Answers

As part of the preparation process, a business speaker should consider possible questions from the audience. The correct answer is B. consider possible questions from the audience.

When preparing for a business speech, the speaker should focus on more than just making a clear presentation. Other important preparation tasks include researching the topic and audience, analyzing the situation, and planning a suitable structure and delivery.

Additionally, it is important to consider potential questions the audience may have and to come up with answers to those questions. This will help the speaker feel more prepared for any audience questions and will help ensure the speech is informative and well-received. The correct answer is B. As part of the preparation process, a business speaker should consider possible questions from the audience.

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dacosta corporation had only one job in process on may 1. the job had been charged with $1,800 of direct materials, $6,966 of direct labor, and $9,936 of manufacturing overhead cost. the company assigns overhead cost to jobs using the predetermined overhead rate of $18.40 per direct labor-hour. during may, the following activity was recorded: raw materials (all direct materials): beginning balance $ 8,500 purchased during the month $38,000 used in production $39,300 labor: direct labor-hours worked during the month 1,900 direct labor cost incurred $24,510 actual manufacturing overhead costs incurred $33,300 inventories: raw materials, may 30 ? work in process, may 30 $16,937 work in process inventory on may 30 contains $3,741 of direct labor cost. raw materials consist solely of items that are classified as direct materials. the entry to dispose of the underapplied or overapplied manufacturing overhead cost for the month would include a:

Answers

The entry would include a debit to Work in Process Inventory and a credit to Manufacturing Overhead to get rid of manufacturing overhead costs that were improperly or excessively applied.

What causes the most severe cases of water scarcity, and why?

Water scarcity is simply a lack of enough water to meet human requirements. The main reasons of water scarcity include unequal access to water, excessive water use by different social groups, and, in most cases, overexploitation of water.

What causes the most severe cases of water scarcity, and why?

The main reasons of water scarcity include an increasing population, overuse, and unequal allocation of water among social groups.

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you have $5,200 to deposit. regency bank offers 9 percent per year compounded monthly (.75 percent per month), while king bank offers 9 percent but will only compound annually. how much will your investment be worth in 17 years at each bank?

Answers

After 17 years, your investment  at Regency Bank will be worth $23,877.81, whereas at King Bank, it will be worth $22,503.69.

Using the formula for compound interest:

For Regency Bank:

Number of periods = 17 years x 12 months/year = 204 months

Interest rate per period = 0.75%

Present value = $5,200

Future value = Present value x (1 + interest rate per period)^number of periods

Future value = $5,200 x (1 + 0.0075)²⁰⁴

Future value = $23,877.81

So the investment will be worth $23,877.81 after 17 years at Regency Bank.

For King Bank:

Number of periods = 17 years x 1 year/year = 17 years

Interest rate per period = 9%

Present value = $5,200

Future value = Present value x (1 + interest rate per period)^number of periods

Future value = $5,200 x (1 + 0.09)¹⁷

Future value = $22,503.69

So the investment will be worth $22,503.69 after 17 years at King Bank.

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the next dividend payment by savitz, incorporated, will be $4.55 per share. the dividends are anticipated to maintain a growth rate of 3 percent forever. if the stock currently sells for $58 per share, what is the required return?

Answers

The required return for Savitz, Inc.'s stock is 10.29% using the constant growth model formula.

The required return for a stock is the minimum rate of return that an investor expects to earn on their investment in the stock, taking into account the risk involved in the investment. It is the rate of return that compensates investors for the time value of money, inflation, and the risk they are taking by investing in the stock.

To calculate the required return, we can use the constant growth model formula:

R = ([tex]\frac{D1}{PO}[/tex]) + g.

D1 is the next dividend payment, which is given as $4.55. P0 is the current stock price, which is given as $58. The growth rate is given as 3%.

Plugging in the values, we get

R = ([tex]\frac{4.55}{58}[/tex]) + 0.03 R = 0.1029, or 10.29%.

Therefore, the required return for the stock is 10.29%.

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an intelligent agent that searches for the best price for a particular product on your behalf is termed a​ __________.

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An intelligent agent that searches for the best price for a particular product on your behalf is termed a price comparison agent.

It is a computer-based system that searches for the best price and product option available across multiple vendors. Price comparison agents are powered by artificial intelligence algorithms that compare and analyze different products and their prices. They then compare these options and present the best one to the customer.

Price comparison agents are designed to make shopping easier and more efficient by allowing customers to compare prices from multiple vendors quickly and easily. They use criteria such as product ratings, customer reviews, and discounts to help customers find the best deal for their needs. Price comparison agents also help customers save time by providing them with a single source of information regarding product and pricing information. Additionally, they provide customers with the assurance that they are getting the best deal.

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Which of the following is true about employee stock options after they have been issued?
a. They have to be revalued every year
b. They have to be revalued every quarter
c. They have to be revalued every day like other derivatives
d. They never have to be revalued

Answers

Option D is the correct answer. Employee stock options never have to be revalued after they have been issued.

Stock options are an important part of remuneration packages for top executives and employees at most businesses. Stock options are contracts that enable holders to purchase shares of stock at a predetermined price in the future, allowing employees to share in the company's success.Employee stock options are one form of stock options that companies use to attract and retain top talent. The option grants an employee the right to buy a set number of shares of company stock at a set price during a specified time period, usually ten years. Employee stock options have an expiration date that is determined when they are granted, and they cannot be exercised after that date. The exercise price is the price at which the option holder may buy shares. Employee stock options, once granted, may be exercised any time before the expiration date, regardless of whether the company's stock price has increased or decreased. Employee stock options do not have to be revalued every year, every quarter, or every day. These options are typically valued at their grant date fair value and are not remeasured after they are granted.

As a result, they never need to be revalued after they have been granted. So, the correct option is d.

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Continue to consider the prior question. Assume that there is an increase in the wage rate per hour. If the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leisure is a normal good, mark the correct (or multiple correct) answer(s): - Hours worked will increase - Leisure will decrease - Leisure will increase - The labor supply curve is downward sloping, - The demand for leisure is downward sloping - The labor supply curve is upward sloping. - The demand for leisure is upward sloping. - Hours worked will decrease.

Answers

In the following question, among the given options, The correct answer is that,  Assume that there is an increase in the wage rate per hour. If the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leisure is a normal good "hours worked will increase" if the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leisure is a normal good.

What is a normal good? Normal goods are goods whose demand increases as income rises. As the consumer's income rises, so does their purchasing power. A higher income allows consumers to purchase more normal goods, which boosts demand. As a result, the typical good has a positive income elasticity of demand (PED). When income rises, the consumer buys more of it.

The income effect dominates the substitution effect when the income effect is greater than the substitution effect. If the income effect is dominant, hours worked will increase because the consumer is willing to trade time for more money. When the wage rate increases, the consumer's purchasing power rises. Because leisure is a normal good, this increase in purchasing power causes an increase in leisure demand. However, because the consumer's income has increased, the consumer can now afford to purchase more leisure, and the consumer will choose to work more hours as a result. As a result, if the income effect dominates the substitution effect and leisure is a normal good, the correct answer is that the hours worked will increase.

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when an asset has a significant decline in value and is written down, this is called

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When an asset has a significant decline in value and is written down, this is called impairment.

A write-down is a decrease in the carrying amount of an asset, while an impairment is a write-down that occurs because the asset's fair value is less than its carrying amount or its recoverable amount. Impairments occur when an asset's value is decreased, resulting in the asset's carrying amount being higher than its recoverable amount.

A write-down of an asset, such as inventory or equipment, means that the asset's value has declined significantly. When an asset's value is written down, its book value or carrying amount is lowered to reflect the asset's current fair market value.

Write-downs can be made on any type of asset, including property, plant, and equipment, intangible assets, and investments.

In summary, the process of decreasing the carrying value of a long-term asset because it is no longer worth its previous value is called impairment or write-downs.

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mr. and mrs. shohler received $25,200 social security benefits this year. their only other source of income was mrs. shohler's $10,479 taxable pension from her former employer. how much of their social security is included in gross income?

Answers

The taxable portion of their benefits is 85% of the $25,200, which equals $21,420. The remaining 15%, or $3,780, is not included in gross income.

The Shohlers' social security benefits are included in their gross income.

To calculate the taxable portion of their social security benefits, we first add together their other sources of income. In this case, their taxable pension is $10,479.

This brings the total to $35,679. We then multiply this total by the taxable percentage of benefits, which is 85%. The result is $21,420, which is the amount of their social security benefits included in gross income.

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When people seek information to support their point of view and discount data that do not, they are subject to bias. a. confirmationb. overconfidence c, blindd. framing e. representativeness

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When people seek information to support their point of view and discount data that do not, they are subject to bias. The answer to this question is confirmation bias. The answer is option a.

What is confirmation bias?

Confirmation bias is the phenomenon of ignoring or rejecting information that does not support one's beliefs, and seeking information that confirms one's existing beliefs. It is a form of cognitive bias that is prevalent in various areas of life, including politics, religion, and science. Confirmation bias can lead to false beliefs, limited perspectives, and the inability to consider alternative viewpoints or information.

Therefore, it is important to be aware of confirmation bias and strive to remain objective and open-minded when seeking information or evaluating evidence.

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Use the following selected information from Carleton Incorporated to determine the Year 1 and Year 2 trend percentages for cost of goods sold using Year 1 as the base. YEAR 1 YEAR 2 Net sales $278,700 $ 231,900Cost of goods sold 151,400 130.000Operating expenses 54,740 52,740Net earnings Year 28,520 20,320Multiple Choice A. 116.4% for Year 2 and 100.0% for Year 1. B. 36.2% for Year 2 and 40.5% for Year 1. C. 65.9% for Year 2 and 64.6% for Year 1 D. 54.3% for Year 2 and 56.1% for Year 1.

Answers

The correct answer is B 36.2% for Year 2 and 40.5% for Year 1.

The Year 1 and Year 2 trend percentages for the cost of goods sold using Year 1 as the base are

Percentage change between two years is:

% change = [(year 2 - year 1) / year 1] x 100

Year 1 cost of goods sold = $151,400

Year 2 cost of goods sold = $130,000

Therefore,% change = [(130,000 - 151,400) / 151,400] x 100

% change = (-21,400 / 151,400) x 100

% change = -0.1414 x 100

% change = -14.14%

Therefore, the Year 1 and Year 2 trend percentages for the cost of goods sold using Year 1

Year 1 = 100%

Year 2 = 85.86%

Hence option B is correct at 36.2% for Year 2 and 40.5% for Year 1.

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Suppose a $10 tax is placed on a good. The more inelastic the supply of the good, the
- more of the tax will be paid by the sellers.
- smaller the increase in the after-tax price.
- larger the decrease in the quantity sold.
- more of the tax will be paid by the buyers.

Answers

Sellers are more likely to pass on more of the tax cost to buyers in the form of a higher after-tax price when supply is inelastic because they are less able to react to tax-induced price drops. As a result, sellers suffer a greater part of the tax burden.

The effects of a tax on a good influence both purchasers and sellers. The after-tax price for purchasers will go up, whilst the after-tax price for sellers would go down. The elasticity of supply and demand determines how much of the tax burden each party will pay. The seller may simply change the quantity given in response to the price reduction when supply is elastic, though. As a result, the seller will be able to charge the purchasers a greater after-tax price while also shifting more of the tax burden to them. The seller's portion of the tax liability is comparatively lower in this situation. Generally, the less elastic the good's supply is. Overall, the more inelastic the supply of the good, the more of the tax burden will be borne by the sellers.

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The ______________________ principle for determining when income is generated provides taxpayers with an objective measure for valuing the transaction and w. the wherewithal to pay the taxes when cash is involved

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The realization principle for determining when income is generated provides taxpayers with an objective measure for valuing the transaction and with the wherewithal to pay the taxes when cash is involved.

The realization principle is a fundamental principle in accounting that determines when revenue or income should be recognized in financial statements. According to this principle, revenue is recognized when it is earned and realized or realizable. In other words, revenue is recognized when goods or services are provided to customers and payment is received or expected to be received.

The realization principle is important for determining the amount of taxes that taxpayers owe on their income. By recognizing income when it is earned and realized or realizable, taxpayers can accurately calculate their taxable income and pay the appropriate amount of taxes. Additionally, by recognizing income when cash is involved, taxpayers have the necessary funds to pay their taxes when they become due.

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what is a disadvantage of taking out a home equity loan?

Answers

The possibility of losing the house are higher when it is taken out of a home equity loan, being one of the disadvantages of a such home loans.

A home equity loan is offered by the banks at interest rates cheaper than that of a credit card or a personal loan. However, there are a few disadvantages of doing so. Because, in case of default in repayment, an individual may lose ownership over the house when it is taken out of a home equity loan. Thus, it is better advisable not to take a home with the help of such loan.

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which of the following is true of internal alignment? group of answer choices it addresses pay relationships inside an organization. it is the first issue in a strategic approach to pay. it focuses on customer satisfaction and business growth. it is often referred to as distributive justice.

Answers

Internal alignment is the statement that is true among the given options. Internal alignment addresses pay relationships inside an organization.

What is internal alignment?

Internal alignment refers to the process of managing and evaluating pay for work within an organization. Internal alignment ensures that the pay scale is equal to the work's value to the organization. It addresses pay relationships inside an organization, which means that how much a job is worth within an organization determines what an employee will receive in pay.

Internal alignment is the first issue in a strategic approach to pay. This means that if an organization wants to make strategic pay decisions, it must first create internal alignment. The key to internal alignment is a sound compensation plan. Distributive justice refers to how an organization distributes resources, including pay. Thus, it is not accurate to say that internal alignment is often referred to as distributive justice.

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Select the scenario in which a diagnostic argument could be most helpful:
1. A product manager is revising an outdated marketing plan.
2. An accounting manager must report on why Selling, General, and Administrative expenses have jumped recently.
3. An accounting manager needs to write a report about the updated costs of three information technology systems.
4. None of the above

Answers

The scenario in which a diagnostic argument could be most helpful is "An accounting manager must report on why Selling, General, and Administrative expenses have jumped recently. The correct option is 2.

A diagnostic argument is an argument that provides information regarding an issue and why it occurred. The argument's main goal is to find the cause of the problem and determine what should be done to solve it. Diagnostic arguments are frequently utilized in the business sector, especially when firms experience problems. They may assist business owners and managers in determining the root cause of a particular business problem and developing effective solutions to address the problem.

Select the scenario in which a diagnostic argument could be most helpful The scenario in which a diagnostic argument could be most helpful is "An accounting manager must report on why Selling, General, and Administrative expenses have jumped recently." When Selling, General, and Administrative (SG&A) expenses are higher than normal, this indicates a problem.

As a result, the accounting manager must conduct a diagnostic argument to determine the cause of the sudden rise in SG&A expenses. The accounting manager's goal is to figure out what caused the increase in SG&A expenses and determine what should be done to reduce those expenses in the future. Hence the correct option is 2. An accounting manager must report on why Selling, General, and Administrative expenses have jumped recently.

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a 10-year 5.0% coupon bond was issued 2 year(s) ago. similarly risky bonds are yielding 6.1%. assume semi-annual coupon payments. the bond's price should be $ .

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The face value of bond = $100. The coupon rate is 5% for semi-annual coupon payments. The bond is issued 2 years ago. We have to calculate the price of the bond if similarly risky bonds are yielding 6.1%.  The price of the bond is $88.51.

We know that, the bond price is the sum of the present value of all the future cash flows (coupon payments and principal amount).Let us calculate the present value of each cash flow:

First, let's calculate the coupon payments. Coupon payment = Coupon rate * Face value / 2= 5% * $100 / 2= $2.5. Discount rate = Yield / 2 (As the payments are semi-annually and yield is given as annual). We are given the bond yield is 6.1% which is annual and thus we can calculate the semi-annual yield as follows:

Semi-annual yield = 6.1% / 2= 3.05%. Discount rate = 3.05%. Using the above data, we can calculate the present value of each coupon payment for 4 semi-annual periods. The bond is 2 years old and thus we will have 4 semi-annual periods:Present value of 1st coupon payment = $2.5 / (1+3.05%)¹ = $2.42. Present value of 2nd coupon payment = $2.5 / (1+3.05%)² = $2.34. Present value of 3rd coupon payment = $2.5 / (1+3.05%)³ = $2.25. Present value of 4th coupon payment = $2.5 / (1+3.05%)⁴ = $2.17. Now, let's calculate the present value of the principal amount which will be received at the end of the bond's maturity:Present value of principal amount = Face value / (1+3.05%)⁴= $100 / (1+3.05%)⁴= $79.33.

Now, let's add the present value of all the cash flows to calculate the bond price:Bond price = $2.42 + $2.34 + $2.25 + $2.17 + $79.33= $88.51.

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Anna Prentice has worked for years fixing broken typewriters. She is laid off from her job as fewer and fewer people use typewriters. She is looking for work but cannot find a job in her area of specialty. Which term describes Anna's type of unemployment?

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The term that describes Anna's type of unemployment is structural unemployment.

Structural unemployment is a form of long-term unemployment that is caused by a shift in the economy and job market. When a particular sector or industry falls out of favor or is affected by some technological advances, people who have worked in that industry may lose their jobs and find it difficult to transition to another sector or industry.

Structural unemployment occurs when people are out of work for an extended period of time because of changes in the economy. The skills of the unemployed do not meet the requirements of the available jobs, which results in a skills mismatch.

Structural unemployment arises as a result of changes in the economy's structure, as opposed to cyclical unemployment, which arises as a result of changes in the economy's cyclical nature. When the economy is expanding, cyclical unemployment is low, but when it is contracting, cyclical unemployment is high.

Frictional unemployment, on the other hand, arises as a result of people being between jobs or entering the job market for the first time.

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Using the AD/AS model, what would be an explanation for observing an increased price level and a decreased real GDP?o wages have increased.o the money supply has decreased.o productivity has increased.o the money supply has increased.

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The aggregate demand curve would be shifted to the left by a reduction in the money supply, which would result in a decline in real GDP and the price level.

A fall in the money supply might also result in a reduction in company investment spending, in addition to the aforementioned effects. This is due to the possibility that firms may have a harder time obtaining funding for their investments, which will lead the level of investment to decline. Additionally, as people may be more cautious with their purchasing owing to the unpredictability of the economy, a decline in the money supply might also result in a decline in consumer confidence. The economy's demand for products and services may be further decreased as a result, which would lower prices and real GDP. Overall, the economy may be negatively impacted by a decline in the money supply.

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The economies of the new western states were very different from those of the northeastern states in the mid-1800s. One major difference was that western states-relied on subsistence farmingused natural harbors for shippingfocused on mining and agriculturetraded freely with other nations

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The economies of the new western states were very different from those of the northeastern states in the mid-1800s. One major difference was that western states:  focused on mining and agriculture. option (c)

The western states had abundant natural resources, such as fertile land and mineral deposits, which were utilized for agriculture and mining. This led to the development of industries such as logging, ranching, and mining. In contrast, the northeastern states had a more diversified economy, with industries such as manufacturing, finance, and shipping playing important roles.

While some western states did have access to natural harbors, such as California and Oregon, their economies were not heavily reliant on shipping. Rather, the focus was on extracting and exporting natural resources. Additionally, while subsistence farming was common in some areas, it was not the primary driver of the western economies. Finally, trade with other nations was not a significant part of the western economy in the mid-1800s, as much of the focus was on domestic production and consumption.

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Full Question: The economies of the new western states were very different from those of the northeastern states in the mid-1800s. One major difference was that western states

A-relied kn subsistence

B-used natural harbors for shipping

C-focused on mining and agriculture

D-traded freely with other nations

you have an option to throw a die up to two times. you will earn the face value of the die. you are free to stop after each throw and walk away with the money earned. the earnings are not additive. what is the expected payoff of this game?

Answers

The expected payoff of this game is 3.5.

To calculate the expected payoff of this game, we need to find the expected value of each throw and then choose the highest expected value between stopping after the first throw or taking the second throw.

The expected value of a single throw of a fair die is (1+2+3+4+5+6)/6 = 3.5.

If we choose to stop after the first throw, the expected payoff is 3.5.

If we choose to roll the die a second time, the expected payoff for the second roll is also 3.5, since the expected value of a single throw is the same for each roll of the die.

To find the overall expected payoff, we need to compare the expected payoff of stopping after the first roll (3.5) to the expected payoff of rolling the die a second time and then stopping (3.5).

Since the expected value of each throw is the same, the expected payoff of the game is simply the average of these two expected payoffs, which is (3.5 + 3.5) / 2 = 3.5.

Therefore, the expected payoff of this game is 3.5.

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