What is the mean of the probability distribution?

Answer:

12, 13, 14, 15, 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the five consecutive integers be (x - 2), (x - 1), x, (x + 1) & (x + 2)

According to the given condition:

[tex](x - 2) + (x - 1) + x + (x + 1) + (x + 2) = 70 \\ 5x = 70 \\ x = \frac{70}{5} \\ x = 14 \\ \implies \\ (x - 2) = (14 - 2) = 12 \\ (x - 1) = (14 - 1) = 13 \\ x = 14 \\ (x + 1) = (14 + 1) = 15 \\ (x + 2) = (14 + 2) = 16\\ [/tex]

Answer:

Option A is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

a^(6/4) = a^(3/2)

b^(4/4) = b

c^(8/4) = c^2

Hope this helps!

:)

Answer:

(8, 6)

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we find the distance between the two points.

Both have the same x-coordinate, 8, so the distance is simply the difference in y.

|11 - 1| = 10

The distance between the points is 10.

Since the radius of the circle is 5, the greatest distance between two points on the circle is 10, and the two points must be the endpoints of a diameter.

The midpoint of a diameter is the center of the circle.

(1 + 11)/2 = 12/2 = 6

The center o the circle is (8, 6).

Answer:

C. (x + 8) (x + 7)

Step-by-step explanation:

To factor this trinomial, you must split the middle term (15x) into two terms that can be added to get 15x, and multiplied to get 56:

[tex]x^2 + 15x + 56[/tex]

[tex]x^2 + 7x + 8x + 56[/tex]

Group:

[tex](x^2 + 7x) (8x + 56)[/tex]

Take out the GCF (Greatest Common Factor):

x(x + 7)  8(x + 7)

(x + 8) (x + 7)

Answer:

The pattern is multiplying by 2.

Next three terms: 64,128,256

Step-by-step explanation:

4,8,16,32

To get from 4 to 8 we can multiply by 2.

To get from 8 to 16 we can multiply by 2.

To get from 16 to 32 we can multiply by 2.

So the pattern is multiplying by 2.

To find the next three terms:

32*2=64

64*2=128

128*2=256

Answer:

the second answer

Step-by-step explanation:

cause 0+0.8 is 0.8 and 0.8+0.3 is 1.1

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 5/11

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of picking a dime is [tex]\frac{2}{11}[/tex].

The measure of happening or non-happening of the outcomes of a random experiment is called probability.

P(E) = Number of favorable outcomes/ total number of outcomes

Where,

P(E) is the probability of an event.

According to the given question.

Total number of quarters coins = 5

Total number of dimes coins = 2

Total number of pennies coins = 4

Therefore,

The total number of coins in a bag = 5 + 4 + 2 = 11

⇒ Total number of outcomes = 11

So, the probability of picking a dime coin is given by

P(E) = total number of dime coins/ total number of coins in a bag

⇒[tex]P(E) = \frac{2}{11}[/tex]

Hence, the probability of picking a dime is [tex]\frac{2}{11}[/tex].

Find out more information about probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ3

Answer:

100°

Step-by-step explanation:

The angle between chords is the average of the intersected arc angles.

∠FKJ = ½ (84° + 76°)

∠FKJ = 80°

∠HKJ is supplementary to ∠FKJ.

∠HKJ = 180° − 80°

∠HKJ = 100°

Answer:

Pizza eaten together: 5/6,

Pizza left over: 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

~ If Ellen ate 2/4th of the pizza and John ate 1/3 of the pizza, provided that the pizza counts as a whole ( 1 )... ~

1. Let us simplify 2/4th to be ⇒ 1/2, through simple algebra

2. To see how much they ate together we would neglect that the pizza counts as a whole but simply add 1/2 by 1/3rd.

3. Through simple algebra: 1/2 + 1/3 = 3/6 + 2/6 = Pizza eaten together: 5/6

4. Now to find out how much pizza was left over, we would need the fact that a pizza ⇒ 1 whole. It would be that 1 - 1/2 - 1/3 ⇒ Pizza left over, through the Partition Postulate. In fact, the pizza left over would simply be 1 whole - the pizza eaten together ( 5/6 ).

5. Through algebra: 1 - 1/2 - 1/3 = 1 - 5/6 = Pizza left over: 1/6

Answer:

How much did they eat all together? 5/6

How much was left over? 1/6

[tex] \\ [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

How much did they eat all together?

[tex] \frac{2}{4} + \frac{1}{3} \\ = \frac{6}{12} + \frac{4}{12} \\ = \frac{10}{12} \\ = \frac{5}{6} [/tex]

[tex] \\ [/tex]

How much was left over?

[tex] 1 - \frac{5}{6} \\ = \frac{6}{6} - \frac{5}{6} \\ = \frac{1}{6} [/tex]

Answer:

e = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

In this problem we are told to solve for e. This means we need to isolate the variable e, leaving it completely by itself on one side of the equation.

9e + 4 = -5e + 14 + 13e

We can do this multiple ways, but I will show you how I would do it.

First I would subtract 4 from both sides.

9e + 4 = -5e + 14 + 13e

9e = -5e + 14 + 13e - 4

We can simplify the right side of the equation down by subtracting four from 14.

9e = -5e + 10 + 13e

Next, let's simplify our algebraic expressions. We can subtract 5e from 13e (or add -5e to 13e whatever tickles your fancy)

-5e + 13e = 8e

9e = 8e + 10

Now we subtract algebraic expression 8e from both sides

9e - 8e = 10

All of our expressions with the variable e are now on one side but we aren't done yet. Compute 9e - 8e.

9e - 8e = 10

1e = 10

or

e = 10

We have isolated e! Our final answer is e = 10

Answer:

24

Step-by-step explanation:

Ameeta = 12 math problems.

David =12×3=36 math problems

So 36-12=24

Answer:

12

David's

3 times longer

comparison problem

Step-by-step explanation:

got right on edge

Answer: You add 9 each time

Step-by-step explanation:

19 + 9 = 28 + 9 = 37 + 9 = 46 + 9 = 55

hope this helps mark me brainliest if it did

Answer: It is A certain.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because all the numbers on a six-sided cube is between 1 and 6 so it is certain or 100/100 that the number will land on a number between 1 and 6.

Answer:

1/2 x 4/1 x 2/1 = 4

4th should be 1/6 btw

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We'll say the fraction is 4 1/2 so: The length is 6 blocks the width is 2 blocks and we'll say the height is 3 blocks so the length would be 27 the width is 9 and the height is 13 1/2 now 27*9*13 1/2=3280 1/2

(you might have to draw this cube just sayin idk exactly what it wants)

Answer:

First one:

56 + StartFraction 28 over 5 EndFraction = 56 + 5 and three-fifths = 61 and three-fifths

Step-by-step explanation:

7 × 8⅘

7(8) + 7(4/5)

56 + 28/5

56 + 5 + 3/5

61 3/5

Answer:

its A

Step-by-step explanation:

56 + StartFraction 28 over 5 EndFraction = 56 + 5 and three-fifths = 61 and three-fifths

and pls mark me as brainliest if this is correct! :D

Answer:

52.74% probability that a randomly selected airfare between these two cities will be between $325 and $425

Step-by-step explanation:

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

In this question, we have that:

[tex]\mu = 387.20, \sigma = 68.50[/tex]

What is the probability that a randomly selected airfare between these two cities will be between $325 and $425?

This is the pvalue of Z when X = 425 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 325. So

X = 425

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{425 - 387.20}{68.50}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 0.55[/tex]

[tex]Z = 0.55[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.7088

X = 325

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{325 - 387.20}{68.50}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.91[/tex]

[tex]Z = -0.91[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.1814

0.7088 - 0.1814 = 0.5274

52.74% probability that a randomly selected airfare between these two cities will be between $325 and $425

Answer:

1.8

is the median

Answer: 1.8

Step-by-step explanation: 1.8 is the median

Answer:

To convert the feet to square feet we have to multiply the length by the width. In which, we should get the answer as well.

Our length is 2ft, since it's a rectangle the other side is 2ft as well.

The width is 3ft, and the other half is 3ft.

So, basically to get the area of the hole, it'd be 3*2=

Which, it's 6sq ft.

Step-by-step explanation:The actual answer is 36. If I am wrong i am sorry ;3

Step-by-step explanation:

D.12

A.26

........................

Answer:

D and A

Step-by-step explanation:

D= 132

A is larger than 132

Answer:

140

Step-by-step explanation:

175% of 80 = 140

Answer:

It could fly 10,8 kilometers.

Step-by-step explanation:

The European swallow fly speed is 12 meters per second.

We have to calculate how many kilometers it could fly in 15 minutes.

This can be calculated using the equivalent factors for each of the units:

- 1 km is equivalent to 1,000 meters.

- 1 minute is equivalent to 60 seconds.

We know that the distance travelled by the fly is the product of the speed and the time, so we have:

[tex]D=v\cdot t\\\\\\D=12\,\dfrac{m}{s}\cdot15\, min\\\\\\D=12\,\dfrac{m}{s}\cdot(\dfrac{1\,km}{1,000\,m})\cdot15\, min\cdot (\dfrac{60\,s}{1\,min})\\\\\\D=\dfrac{12\cdot 15\cdot 60}{1,000}\,km=\dfrac{10,800}{1,000}\,km\\\\\\D=10,8 \,km[/tex]

Answer:

Since 1 mm = . 03937 inches, mm would seem to be the units appropriate for defining the thickness of a coin measuring 2 units.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It is assumed the first winner is part of the second drawing as well

There are 4 people and two prizes

The probability of each person to win is 1/4

The first winner has 1/2 probability to get a mug

The second winner, if it is Jack, gets either prize

The combined probability is:

Answer:

The probability is 37.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are eight total outcomes, but we only need to focus on three. Ang winning a mug and Jack winning either a t-shirt or a mug, that makes three. Write that as a fraction: 3/8, and then divide. 3 divided by 8 gives us 0.375. But we need a percent so multiply that by 100, that now gives us 37.5.

So, the probability that either Ang wins and is given a mug, or Jack wins is 37.5%. If it makes you feel more confident in this, I put the same exact answer for my assessment and I got it correct.

Also, “The monks named me aOng.”

Answer:

$27.98

Step-by-step explanation:

100 - 30 in price %=70%

Price will be 70% of original regular price

$39.98 * .7 = answer

Answer:

Discount is $11.99

Total is now $27.99

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the discount, you find out what 30% is of 39.98, so you multiply

39.98 x 30%(or .3) = 11.994

39.98- 11.99= 27.99

Answer:

$3900.

Step-by-step explanation:

If retirement is taken at the age of 67 years, income  = $1300 per month.

% Loss, if retirement taken at the age of 62 years = 25% per month

Loss in dollars per month if retirement taken at the age of 62 years = 25% of Monthly income if retirement is taken at the age of 67 years

[tex]\Rightarrow \dfrac{25}{100} \times 1300\\\Rightarrow \dfrac{1300}{4}\\\Rightarrow 325 \$[/tex]

We know that there are 12 months in an year.

So, annual loss in total annual income over one year:

Loss in dollars per month [tex]\times[/tex] 12 :

325 [tex]\times[/tex] 12 = 3900$

Answer: $3,900

Step-by-step explanation:

What you usually make:

$1300 * 12 months = $15600

What you make with the cut:

$1300 * 0.75 = $975

* 12 months = $11700

15600-11700 = $3900

Answer:

The true statements are:

The cost of 9 magnets is $3.

The cost of 6 magnets is $2.

The cost of 3 magnets is $1.

Step-by-step explanation:

equivalents ratios are two or more ratios that express the same relationship between the numbers involved. In order to calculate the equivalent ratios that are equal, when the numbers involved are divided, they ought to give the same result. In the answer chosen above the ratios in each case are equivalent because:

if the cost of 9 magnets is $3;

9 magnets = $3

∴ 1 magnet = 3/9 = $ 1/3 = 1:3

if the cost of 6 magnets is $2;

6 magnets = $2

1 magnet = 2/6 = $1/3 = 1:3

if the cost of 3 magnets is $1;

3 magnets = $1

∴ 1 magnet = $ 1/3 = 1:3

From the answers obtained, the equivalent ratio of 1 : 3 is the same in all case.

Answer:

$2680

Step-by-step explanation:

3.00-1.50= 1.50 profit per hotdog

1200+800=2000 expenses

1.50 (3120) = 4680

4680-2000=

2680 in profit