What is the area of the polygon shown below? (in the image). A. 322 mm^2 B. 364 mm^2 C. 520 mm^2 D. 584 mm^2 Show all work please!

Answer:

f⁻¹(x) = [tex]2^{\dfrac{x}{4} }[/tex] + 7

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse of a function reverses the operations performed by the function  in the question such if f(x) = y, then we have, f⁻¹(y) = x, which reverses the operation of the first function.

The inverse of a function f(x) = 4·㏒₂(x - 7) is found as follows;

We have;

y = 4·㏒₂(x - 7)

We substitute x for y to get;

x = 4·㏒₂(y - 7)  which gives;

x/4 = ㏒₂(y - 7)

[tex]2^{\dfrac{x}{4} }[/tex] = y - 7

y = [tex]2^{\dfrac{x}{4} }[/tex] + 7

Therefore;

f⁻¹(x) = [tex]2^{\dfrac{x}{4} }[/tex] + 7.

Answer:

the answer is d

Step-by-step explanation:

cause its d

Answer:

x = 9x5 / 4

x = 45/4

(either one)

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{4}{5}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{9}{x}[/tex]

Multiple known diagonals and divide by number opposite to unknown number (x).

Hope that helped!!! k

Answer:

(b) 4 x = 4 5 is the needed expression to solve for the value of x.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, the given proportion is simplified as:

4/5=9/x

Now, to simplify any proportion of the form   the simplest way is cross multiplication.

So, cross multiplying  a/b=c/d -> ad=bc

Similarly cross multiplying 4/5=9/x, we get:

4 (x)  = (9) (5)

Answer:

The correct answer is;

ΔANT ≅ ΔFLE by the SIde-Side-Side (SSS) rule of congruency

Step-by-step explanation:

The given information are;

Segment TN is congruent ts segment EL

Segment TA is congruent ts segment EF

Segment AN is congruent ts segment FL

Therefore, triangle ΔANT is congruent to ΔFLE by the Side-Side-Side (SSS) rule of congruency

One of the rule used to serve as proof that two or more triangles are congruent, is the Side-Side-Side (SSS) rule of congruency. The Side-Side-Side rule of congruency states that if the dimensions of the three sides of one triangle are equal to the dimensions of the three sides of another triangle, the two triangles are congruent.

Therefore, the correct option is ΔANT ≅ ΔFLE by the Side-Side-Side (SSS) rule of congruency

Answer: cannot be determined

Step-by-step explanation:

there isnt a rule SSS

Answer:

you can land on heads a possibility of 16 times

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

-32=-7n-12+3n

-32=-7n+3n-12

-32=-4n-12

-4n=-32+12

-4n=-20

n=-20/-4

n=5

Answer:

[tex]n=5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-32=-7n-12+3n\\\text{Combine Like Terms}\\-32=-7n+3n-12\\-32=-4n-12\\\text{Isolate the Variable}\\-32+12=-4n-12+12\\-20=-4n\\\text{Divide each side by -4}\\n=5[/tex]

Answer:

44

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2m-3/4n=16 , m when n=8

1/2m-3/4n=16

1/2m - 3/4(8) = 16

1/2m - (8 x 3)/4 = 16

1/2m - (24/4) = 16

1/2m - 6 = 16

1/2m = 16 + 6

1/2m = 22

m = 22 x 2

m = 44

Answer:

17 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

We can break this figure into two smaller and easier figures:

The top figure (which has side lengths of 3 and 5), and the bottom figure (with sides of 1 and 2.)

Let's find the area of the top figure first. The width is 4 and the length is 5 so:

[tex]3\cdot5=15[/tex] in².

The bottom figure has a length of 2 and a width of 1. So:

[tex]2\cdot1=2[/tex] in².

Now we add these two:

[tex]15+2=17[/tex] in².

Hope this helped!

Answer:

17 square inches

Step-by-step explanation:

We cut the shape in to two bits to make it easier.

5 x 3 = 15 inches

2 x 1 = 2 inches

Now we add these together:

17 square inches.

I know I answered wrong in my first attempt but now I understand the question.

Hope this helps :D

Answer:

c) p = 3/q

Step-by-step explanation:

If 3 is divided by a smaller number "q", then it would result in a larger number "p".

Example:

1. Substitute 3 for "q"

3/3 = 1

q = 3

p = 1

2. Substitute 1 for "q"

3/1 = 3

q = 1

p = 3

When "q" decreased, "p" increased.

Step-by-step explanation:

c) p=3/q

i can confirm after 10.30

Answer:

3 uhhh i have to write 20 letters so aha nice

Answer:

  A number line with an open circle on 3, a closed circle on 5, and shading in between

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution to the first inequality is ...

  3x +1 > 10

  3x > 9 . . . . . subtract 1

  x > 3 . . . . . . divide by 3

__

The solution to the second inequality is ...

  4x ≤ 20

  x ≤ 5 . . . . . divide by 4

__

The solution set is then ...

  3 < x ≤ 5

This is represented by a graph with an open circle at 3, a closed circle at 5, and shading between.

Since there is two negative signs in the original equation, you need two negative signs in the equivalent one as well.

Because one of the negatives if before the fraction, it doesn't matter if the second negative is on the 13 or on the 12.

The answer is A.

Answer:

202m

Step-by-step explanation:

Please see attached picture for full solution.

Let x meters be the height of the building.

Answer:

x = 180 - [(180 - 3x) + (180 - 2x)]

Step-by-step explanation:

Start off by finding the angles of the triangle

Angle F = 180 - 3x

The angle across from I (which I will call I) = 180 - 2x

Angle G = 180 - (F + I)

Now that we know what G is, we know what x is because the Alternate Exterior Angles Theorem states that if a pair of parallel lines are cut by a transversal, then the alternate exterior angles are congruent. So pretty much X = G

Therefore x =  180 - (F + I) or otherwise said as:

x = 180 - [(180 - 3x) + (180 - 2x)]

I hope this is helpful :)

Answer:

The first one

Step-by-step explanation:

This line is the best fit for the scatter plot because it touches a lot more points than the second

Answer:

The first line

Step-by-step explanation:

Hey there!

Well the first lie is a positive slope just like the dots whereas,

the second line is a negative slope.

Therefore, the first line is the line of best fit.

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:goofy

Answer:

[2×10*(-3) × (4×10*(4)] = 80

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all 0.002 is 10*(-3) and not 10(-2) , so you can eliminate the first 2 answers.

Second of all, according to the calculator the left equation is correct, while the right one isn't... so there you go

Glad to help :)

Answer:

7 units

Step-by-step explanation:

(number line:)

<- -10, -9, -8, -7, -6, -5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 ->

         there are 7 units from 1 to -6 (you don't count the 0)

(I'm not sure if you understood my explanation, but I do am sure about the answer, so if there is something you didn't understand let me know, and which part are you confused about so I can help you out!)

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{\sf 7\ units}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

To find that how much far they are from each other, we can subtract both of them.

=> 1 - (-6)

=> 1 + 6

=> 7 units

So, they are 7 units apart from each other.

Answer:

[tex] 0.7287[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let $534.9=a$

Thus, given:

$\log a=2.7287$

Hence:

$\log \Big( \frac{a}{100}\Big)=\log a- \log 100$

$\implies \log \Big( \frac{a}{100}\Big)=2.7287-2=0.7287$

Answer:  see proof below

Step-by-step explanation:

You will need the following identities to prove this:

[tex]\tan\ (\alpha-\beta)=\dfrac{\tan \alpha-\tan \beta}{1+\tan \alpha\cdot \tan \beta}[/tex]

[tex]\cos\ 2\alpha=\cos^2 \alpha-\sin^2\alpha[/tex]

LHS → RHS

[tex]\dfrac{2\tan\ (45^o-A)}{1+\tan^2\ (45^o-A)}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{\tan\ 45^o-\tan\ A}{1+\tan\ 45^o\cdot \tan\ A}\bigg)}{1+\bigg(\dfrac{\tan\ 45^o-\tan\ A}{1+\tan\ 45^o\cdot \tan\ A}\bigg)^2}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan\ A}{1+\tan\ A}\bigg)}{1+\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan\ A}{1+\tan\ A}\bigg)^2}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{1+\bigg(\dfrac{1-2\tan\A+\tan^2 A}{1+2\tan A+\tan^2A}\bigg)}\\[/tex]

[tex]=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{\dfrac{(1+2\tan A+\tan^2A)+(1-2\tan A+\tan^2 A)}{1+2\tan A+\tan^2A}}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{\dfrac{2+2\tan^2A}{1+2\tan A+\tan^2A}}\\\\\\=\dfrac{2\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{2\bigg(\dfrac{1+\tan^2A}{(1+\tan A)^2}\bigg)}\\\\\\=\dfrac{\bigg(\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}\bigg)}{\bigg(\dfrac{1+\tan^2A}{(1+\tan A)^2}\bigg)}[/tex]

[tex]=\dfrac{1-\tan A}{1+\tan A}}\times \dfrac{(1+\tan A)^2}{1+\tan^2A}\\\\\\=\dfrac{1-\tan^2 A}{1+\tan^2 A}\\\\\\=\dfrac{1-\dfrac{\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A}}{1+\dfrac{\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A}}\\\\\\=\dfrac{\bigg(\dfrac{\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A}\bigg)}{\bigg(\dfrac{\cos^2 A+\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A}\bigg)}\\\\\\=\dfrac{\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A}{\cos^2 A+\sin^2 A}\\\\\\=\dfrac{\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A}{1}\\\\\\=\cos^2 A-\sin^2 A\\\\\\=\cos 2A[/tex]

cos 2A = cos 2A   [tex]\checkmark[/tex]

Answer:

Large herbivores, such as elephants and

giraffes, need to eat a lot. = Example

Their service is expedient - I'm amazed

by how fast they are!  Example, explanation

Jane is always very enthusiastic and

never negative or doubtful. = antonym

Carburetors, which feed fuel and air to

engines, are very important. = explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2 × 5

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to split the number 10 into its prime numbers.

A good way to start is divide the number by 2, if it's even. 10 is even, so we can divide by 2.

[tex]10\div2=5[/tex]

So the current factors are 2 and 5. We would keep going if one of these numbers was composite, but 2 and 5 or both prime numbers, so we can end the factorization here.

Therefore, the prime factorization of 10 is 2 × 5.

Hope this helped!

The prime factorization of 10 is 2 x 5.

Prime factorization is when you figure out the prime numbers that you can multiply together  to get a certain number.

To figure out the prime factors of 10, we begin by dividing it by the lowest prime number, which is 2. Because 10 can be divided evenly by 2, we can say that 10 is equal to 2 multiplied by 5.

The numbers 2 and 5 are special because they can only be divided by 1 and themselves. This makes them prime numbers. The prime factorization of 10 is the result of multiplying the prime factors 2 and 5 together.

Read more about  factorization  here:

https://brainly.com/question/25829061

#SPJ6

Answer:  1. A. y=17x

2.  $59.50

Step-by-step explanation:

1. In the table , it can be seen that as x increases y increases with the proportionality constant k = [tex]\dfrac{y}{x}=\dfrac{51}{3}=\dfrac{85}{5}=\dfrac{119}{7}=17[/tex],.

Equation of direct variation between  x and y : [tex]y=kx[/tex]

Put k= 17 , we get

[tex]y=17x[/tex] , which is the required equation.

So correct option is "A".

2. To find : The charge for renting a machine for 3.5 hours.

Put x= 3.5 in above equation , we get

[tex]y=17(3.5)=59.5[/tex]

Hence, the  charge for renting a machine for 3.5 hours is $59.50.

So correct option is "B".

Answer:

[tex]\huge\boxed{Second\ Number = 42}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the consecutive even numbers be x,x+2,x+4, x+ 6, x+ 8 and x+10

So, the given condition is:

x+x+2+x+4+x+6+x+8+x+10 = 270

6x + 30 = 270

Subtracting both sides by 30

6x = 270 - 30

6x = 240

Dividing both sides by 6

x = 40

So,

First Number = x = 40

Second Number = x+2 = 40+2 = 42

Third Number = x+4 = 40+4 = 44

Fourth Number = x+6 = 40+6 = 46

Fifth Number = x+8 = 40+8 = 48

Sixth Number = x+10 = 40+10 = 50

Answer:

22 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$17

Step-by-step explanation:

If each ticket is $7 and there are 48 student multiply 7 and 48 to see how much the tickets were in total (336)

Now subtract 353 and 336 to see how much money is left (17)

Answer: -17?

Step-by-step explanation:

because 7*48= 336

then you would do 336-353= -17

which gave me the answer of -17

Answer:

[tex]93\frac{1}{3}[/tex] [tex]yd^{3}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a pyramid is:

[tex]V=\frac{lwh}{3}[/tex] (basically saying that you multiply the length, width, and the height together and then you divide that by 3)

Now, let's do the first part.

8 × 5 × 7 = 280

Now, let's divide.

280 ÷ 3 = 93 1/3

That's your answer!

Hope that helps and maybe earns a brainliest!

Have a great day! :)

Answer:

29

Step-by-step explanation:

using pemdas, you first need to solve 3² which is 9. Then you do what's in the parenthesis (4-1) which is 3. you'll first multiply 9 and 3 (27) add the 2 and there's your answer, 29.

Answer:

It goes over the goal post by 6 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

The football will be at the same x position as the goal when x = 40. When x = 40, y = -0.03 * 40² + 1.6 * 40 = 16. The height of the goal post can be represented by the equation y = 10. Since 16 > 10, the football goes over the goal post by 16 - 10 = 6 feet.

Answer:

37.3

Step-by-step explanation:

If you want to solve it.

Cylineder Formula: Volume = π(radius)²(height)

Isolate height by diving πr² on both sides.

height = (volume/πr²)

height = (300/π(1.6^2))

Answer:

h = 36.2 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

lets make it short and simple

vol of cylinder + volume of hemisphere = 300 cu.cm.

Vc + Vh = 300  --- eq.1

cylinder radius = 1.6 cm.

since it says NOT TO SCALE

let the radius of hemisphere is the same as cylinder.

vol of cylinder = πr²h

vol of hemisphere = 2/3 πr³

using eq.1

πr²h + 2/3 πr³ = 300

π (1.6²) h + 2/3 π (1.6³) = 300

h = 36.2 cm

check:

Vc + Vh = 300

π (1.6²) 36.2 +  2/3 π (1.6³) = 300

300 cu.cm = 300 cu.cm.  ----OK

Answer:

330 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 300deg

Step-by-step explanation: