Two motorcycles are traveling in opposite directions at the same speed when one of the cyclists blasts her horn, which has frequency of 544 Hz. The other cyclist hears the frequency as 563 Hz. If the speed of sound in air is 344 m/s, what is the speed of the motorcycles

Answer:

B

8.5 km/h east

Explanation:

Relative velocity= Va -Vb

=10-1.5

=8.5 km/h east

The concept relative speed is used when two or more bodies moving with some speed are considered. The relative speed of woman to the boat is 8.5 km/h east. The correct option is B.

The relative speed of two bodies is defined as the sum of their speeds if they are moving in the opposite direction and it is the difference of their speeds if they are moving in the same direction.

The speed of the moving body with respect to the stationary body is known as the relative speed. The term relative means in comparison to. The relative speed is a scalar quantity.

Here both the boat and women are travelling in the same direction. So the relative speed is given as:

Relative speed = 10 - 1.5 = 8.5 km / h

Therefore the relative speed is 8.5 km/h east.

Thus the correct option is B.

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Answer: Only Tech B is correct.

Explanation:

First, tech A is wrong.

The circuits that can be compared with links in a chain are the series circuit, and it can be related to the links in a chain because if one of the elements breaks, the current can not flow furthermore (because the elements in the circuit are connected in series) while in a parallel circuit if one of the branches breaks, the current still can flow by other branches.

Also in a parallel circuit, the sum of the currents of each path is equal to the current that comes from the source, so Tech B is correct, the total current is equal to the sum of the currents flowing in each branch of the circuit.

Answer:

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 12.8 × 10⁴ J

Explanation:

Given:

Mass of truck(m) = 2,100 kg

Initial speed(v1) = 38 km/h = 38,000 / 3600 = 10.56 m/s

Final speed(v2) = 55 km/h = 55,000 / 3600 = 15.28 m/s

Find:

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE)

Computation:

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 1/2(m)[v2² - v1²]

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 1/2(2100)[15.28² - 10.56²]

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 1,050[233.4784 - 111.5136]

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 1,050[121.9648]

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 128063.04

Change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) = 12.8 × 10⁴ J

Answer:

The values is  [tex]B = 3.2 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

The  direction is out of the plane

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The  magnitude of the electric field is  [tex]E = 9.6 \ V/m[/tex]

The  magnitude of the magnetic field is mathematically represented as

       [tex]B = \frac{E}{c}[/tex]

where c is the speed of light with value

      [tex]B = \frac{ 9.6}{3.0 *10^{8}}[/tex]

     [tex]B = 3.2 *10^{-8} \ T[/tex]

Given that the direction off the electromagnetic wave( c ) is  northward(y-plane ) and  the electric field(E) is eastward(x-plane ) then the magnetic field will be acting in the out of the page  (z-plane  )

Answer:

Explanation:

a )

moment of inertia in the first case will be sum of moment of inertia of two balls + moment of inertia of bar

= 2 x .700 x (2.1 / 2 )² + 3.7 x 2.1² / 12

= 1.5435 + 1.35975

= 2.90325 kg m²

b )

moment of inertia required

= moment of inertia of bar + moment of inertia of the other ball

= 3.70 x (2.1² / 3 )  + .7 x 2.1²

= 5.439 + 3.087

= 8.526 kg m²

c )

In this case moment of inertia of the combination = 0 as distance of masses from given axis is zero .

d )

masses = 3.7 + .7 = 4.4 kg

distance from axis = .5 m  

moment of inertia about given axis

= 4.4 x .5²

= 1.1 kg m².

Answer:

λ_A = 700 nm ,   m_B = m_a 2

Explanation:

The expression that describes the diffraction phenomenon is

         a sin θ = m λ

where a is the width of the slit, lam the wavelength and m an integer that writes the order of diffraction

a) They tell us that now lal_ A m = 1

         a sin θ = λ_A

coincidentally_be m = 2

          a sin  θ = m λ_b

as the two match we can match

         λ _A = 2 λ _B

         λ_A = 2 350 nm

         λ_A = 700 nm

b)

For lam_B

       a sin  λ_A  = m_B  λ_B

For lam_A

        a sin θ_A = m_ λ_ A

to match they must have the same angle, so we can equal

           m_B  λ_B = m_A  λ_A

           m_B = m_A  λ_A / λ_B

           m_b = m_a 700/350

           m_B = m_a 2

Answer:4 times more energy will be striking the childbearing

Explanation:

Because Volume is directly proportional to amplitude of sound. Energy is proportional to amplitude squared. If you triple the amplitude, you multiply the energy by 4

Answer:

 I = 1.23 A

Explanation:

In an RL circuit current passing is described by

           I = E / R (1 - [tex]e^{-Rt/L}[/tex])

Let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

        L = 35 mH = 35 10⁻³ H

        t = 5.0 ms = 5.0 10⁻³ s

let's calculate

         I = 18/12 (1 - [tex]e^{-12 .. 5 {10}^{-3}/35 .. {10}^{-3} }[/tex]e (- 5 10-3 12/35 10-3))

         I = 1.5 (1- [tex]e^{-1.715}[/tex])

         I = 1.23 A

Answer:

a. The reactance of the inductor is XL = V₀/I₀

b. The inductance of the inductor is L = V₀/2πfI₀

Explanation:

PART A

Since the voltage across the inductor V₀ = I₀XL where V₀ = e.m.f of voltage source, I₀ = current amplitude and XL = reactance of the inductor,

XL = V₀/I₀

So, the reactance of the inductor is XL = V₀/I₀

PART B

The inductance of the inductor is gotten from XL = 2πfL where f = frequency of voltage source and L = inductance of inductor

Since XL = V₀/I₀ = 2πfL

V₀/I₀ = 2πfL

L = V₀/2πfI₀

So the inductance of the inductor is L = V₀/2πfI₀

A) The reactance XL of the inductor :  [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  

B) The Inductance L of the inductor : [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]  

A) Expressing the Reactance of the inductor

Voltage across the Inductor = V₀ = I₀XL   ---- ( 1 )

Where :  V₀ = emf voltage ,  I₀ = current

from equation ( 1 )

∴ XL ( reactance ) = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  

B ) Expressing the Inductance of the Inductor

Inductance of an inductor is expressed as : XL = 2πfL

from part A

XL = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex] = 2πfL

∴ The inductance L of the Inductor expressed in terms of V₀, F and I₀

L = [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]

Hence we can conclude that The reactance XL of the inductor :  [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{I_{0} }[/tex]  and The Inductance L of the inductor : [tex]\frac{V_{0} }{2\pi fl_{0} }[/tex]  .

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Answer:

True or False

Explanation:

Because.....

easy 50% chance you are right

Answer:

2035

Explanation:

The doctor does not travel with the woman, and therefore, he won't experience any relativistic effect on his time. The doctor will judge time by the time here on earth. Technically, the last new year's day the doctor, who is here on earth, would expect the woman to celebrate will be in 2020 + 15 years = 2035

Answer:

c. 1.11 m/s down

Explanation:

Momentum is conserved.

m₁u₁ + m₂u₂ = m₁v₁ + m₂v₂

Assuming the balloon and projectile are originally at rest:

(90 kg) (0 m/s) + (10 kg) (0 m/s) = (90 kg) v + (10 kg) (10 m/s)

0 kg m/s = (90 kg) v + 100 kg m/s

v = -1.11 m/s

Answer:

the net work is zero

Explanation:

Work is defined by the expression

        W = F. ds

Bold type indicates vectors

In this problem, the friction force does not decrease, therefore it will be zero.

Consequently for work on a closed path it is zero.

The work in going from the initial point (0, 0, 0) to the end of each segment is positive and when it returns from the point of origin the angle is 180º, therefore the work is negative, consequently the net work is zero

Answer:

your question answer is 22°

Answer:

c. 70 Ω

Explanation:

The R and R resistors are in parallel.  The 2R and 2R resistors are in parallel.  The 4R and 4R resistors are in parallel.  Each parallel combination is in series with each other.  Therefore, the equivalent resistance is:

Req = 1/(1/R + 1/R) + 1/(1/2R + 1/2R) + 1/(1/4R + 1/4R)

Req = R/2 + 2R/2 + 4R/2

Req = 3.5R

Req = 70Ω

Answer:

a

   [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

b

  [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  spring constant is  [tex]k = 14 \ N/m[/tex]

     The  maximum extension of the spring is  [tex]A = 6.0 \ cm = 0.06 \ m[/tex]

     The number of oscillation is  [tex]n = 30[/tex]

      The  time taken is  [tex]t = 20 \ s[/tex]

Generally the the angular speed of this oscillations is mathematically represented as

           [tex]w = \frac{2 \pi}{T}[/tex]

where T is the period which is mathematically represented as

     [tex]T = \frac{t}{n}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]T = \frac{20}{30 }[/tex]

     [tex]T = 0.667 \ s[/tex]

Thus  

       [tex]w = \frac{2 * 3.142 }{ 0.667}[/tex]

       [tex]w = 9.421 \ rad/s[/tex]

this angular speed can also be represented mathematically as

       [tex]w = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m} }[/tex]

=>   [tex]m =\frac{k }{w^2}[/tex]

substituting values

      [tex]m =\frac{ 15 }{(9.421)^2}[/tex]

      [tex]m = 0.169 \ kg[/tex]

In SHM (simple harmonic motion )the equation for velocity is  mathematically represented as

        [tex]v = - Awsin (wt)[/tex]

The  velocity is maximum when  [tex]wt = \(90^o) \ or \ 1.5708\ rad[/tex]

     [tex]v_{max} = - A* w[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= A* w[/tex]

=>    [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.06 * 9.421[/tex]

=>   [tex]|v_{max} |= 0.5653 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

9.88 milivolt

Explanation:

Given: diameter d = 5.2 cm

magnetic field B_1 = 1.35 T, final magnetic field B_2 =0 T

t = 0.29 sec.

we know emf =  - dΦ/dt

and flux Φ = BA

A= area

therefore emf ε = -A(B_2-B_1)/Δt

[tex]=-\pi(d/2)^2\frac{B_2-B_1}{\Delta t} \\=-\pi(0.052/2)^2\frac{0-1.35}{0.29} \\=98.8\times10^4\\=9.88 mV[/tex]

Answer:

1. the sphere of the radius a

Explanation:

Because the charge distribution for each case is spherically symmetric, we can choose a spher- ical Gaussian surface of radius r , concentric with the sphere in question.

So E = k (Q /r 2) (for r ≥ R ) , where R is the radius of the sphere being considered, either a or b .

With the choice of potential at r = ∞ being zero, the electric potential at any distance r from the center of the sphere can be expressed as V = - integraldisplay r ∞ E dr = k /Q r

(for r ≥ R ) .

On the spheres of radii a and b , we have V a = k (Q/ a)and V b = k (Q/ b), respectively.

So Since b > a , the sphere of radius a will have the higher potential.

Also recall Because E = 0 inside a conductor, the potential

Answer:

Explanation:

Let f₀ be the frequency .

energy of photons having frequency of f₀

= hf₀ where h is plank's constant

for electron to get ejected , work function should be equal to energy of photon

hf₀ = 3.55

4.1357 x 10⁻¹⁵ x f₀ = 3.55

f₀ = 8.58 x 10¹⁴ Hz .

Answer:

E = 1336.71875 J

Explanation:

We are given;. Capacitance of Capacitor 1; C1 = 10.7 µF

Capacitor 2; C2 = 23.0 µF

Capacitor 3; C3 = 29.3 µF

Supply voltage;V = 125 V

Formula for capacitance in series is;

Capacitors in series circuit: C(eq) = 1/C(1) +1/C(2) +1/C(3) .......

Thus, equivalent capacitance is;

C(eq) = (1/10.7) + (1/23) + (1/29.3) = 0.1711 µF = 0.1711 × 10^(6) F

Now, the formula for maximum energy stored is;

E = ½ × C(eq) × V²

E = ½ × 0.1711 × 10^(-6) × 125²

E = 1336.71875 J

Answer:

A) 1.5 V

B) 4.5 V

Explanation:

A) Batteries in parallel have the same voltage as an individual battery.

V = 1.5 V

B) Batteries in series have a voltage equal to the sum of the individual batteries.

V = 1.5 V + 1.5 V + 1.5 V

V = 4.5 V

Answer:

The velocity is  [tex]v_h = 19.2 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The speed of the roller coaster at ground level  is [tex]v = 26 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally we can define the roller coaster speed at ground level using the an equation of motion as

     [tex]v^2 = u^2 + 2 g s[/tex]

 u is  zero given that the roller coaster started from rest

      So

            [tex]26^2 = 0 + 2 * g * s[/tex]

So  

           [tex]s = \frac{26^2}{ 2 * g }[/tex]

=>       [tex]s = 37.6 \ m[/tex]

Now the displacement half way is mathematically represented as

    [tex]s_{h} = \frac{37.6}{2}[/tex]

     [tex]s_{h} = 18.8 \ m[/tex]

So

      [tex]v_h ^2 = u^2 + 2 * g * s_h[/tex]

Where  [tex]v_h[/tex] is the velocity at the half way point

=>  [tex]v_h = \sqrt{ 0 + 2 * 9.8 * 18.8 }[/tex]

=>   [tex]v_h = 19.2 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

Pressure is the same for both plungers.

P = P

F / A = F / A

F / (¼ π d²) = F / (¼ π d²)

F / d² = F / d²

5 N / (0.05 m)² = F / (1 m)²

F = 2000 N

None of the options are correct.

Answer:

We can think the water stream as a solid object that is fired.

The distance between the fireperson and the building is 50m. (i consider that the position of the fireperson is our position = 0)

The angle is 30 above the horizontal. (yo wrote 300, but this has no sense because 300° implies that he is pointing to the ground).

The initial speed of the stream is 40m/s.

First, using the fact that:

x = R*cos(θ)

y = R*sin(θ)

in this case R = 40m/s and θ = 30°

We can use the above relation to find the components of the velocity:

Vx = 40m/s*cos(30°) = 34.64m/s

Vy = 20m/s.

First step:

We want to find the time needed to the stream to hit the buildin.

The horizontal speed is 34.64m/s and the distance to the wall is 50m

So we want that:

34.64m/s*t = 50m

t = 50m/(34.64m/s) = 1.44 seconds.

Now we need to calculate the height of the stream at t = 1.44s

Second step:

The only force acting on the water is the gravitational one, so the acceleration of the stream is:

a(t) = -g.

g = -9.8m/s^2

For the speed, we integrate over time and we get:

v(t) = -g*t + v0

where v0 is the initial speed: v0 = 20m/s.

The velocity equation is:

v(t) = -g*t + 20m/s.

For the position, we integrate again over time:

p(t) = -(1/2)*g*t^2 + 20m/s*t + p0

p0 is the initial height of the stream, this data is not known.

Now, the height at the time t = 1.44s is

p(1.44s) = -5.9m/s^2*(1.44s)^2 + 20m/s*1.44s + po

             = 16.57m + p0

So the height at wich the stream hits the building is 16.57 meters above the initial height of the fire hose.

Answer:

1) a block going down a slope

2) a) W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE, b) W = ΔE, c)  W = ΔK, d) ΔU = ΔK

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to give an example of various types of systems

1) a system where work is transformed into internal energy is a system with friction, for example a block going down a slope in this case work is done during the descent, which is transformed in part kinetic energy, in part power energy and partly internal energy that is represented by an increase in the temperature of the block.

2)

a) rolling a ball uphill

In this case we have an increase in potential energy, if there is a change in speed, the kinetic energy also increases, if the change in speed is zero, there is no change in kinetic energy and there is a change in internal energy due to the stationary rec in the point of contact

 W = ΔU + ΔK + ΔE

b) in this system work is transformed into internal energy

      W = ΔE

c) There is no friction here, therefore the work is transformed into kinetic energy

    W = ΔK

d) if you assume that there is no friction with the air, the potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy

      ΔU = ΔK

Answer:

y = 20.99 V / A

there is no friction    y = 20.99 h

Explanation:

Let's solve this exercise in parts: first find the thrust on the block when it is submerged and then use the conservation of energy

when the block of ice is submerged it is subjected to two forces its weight  hydrostatic thrust

              F_net= ∑F = B-W

the expression stop pushing is

              B = ρ_water g V_ice

where rho_water is the density of pure water that we take as 1 10³ kg / m³ and V is the volume d of the submerged ice

We can write the weight of the body as a function of its density rho_hielo = 0.913 10³ kg / m³

             W = ρ-ice g V

              F_net = (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g V

this is the net force directed upwards, we can find the potential energy with the expression

            F = -dU / dy

            ΔU = - ∫ F dy

            ΔU = - (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g ∫ (A dy) dy

            ΔU = - (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2

we evaluate between the limits y = 0,  U = 0, that is, the potential energy is zero at the surface

             U_ice = (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2

now we can use the conservation of mechanical energy

starting point. Ice depth point

             Em₀ = U_ice = (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2

final point. Highest point of the block

             [tex]Em_{f}[/tex] = U = m g y

as there is no friction, energy is conserved

            Em₀ = Em_{f}

            (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2 = mg y

let's write the weight of the block as a function of its density

            ρ_ice = m / V

            m = ρ_ice V

we substitute

             (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) g A y² / 2 = ρ_ice V g y

              y = ρ_ice / (ρ_water - ρ_ ice) 2 V / A

let's substitute the values

             y = 0.913 / (1 - 0.913) 2 V / A

             y = 20.99 V / A

This is the height that the lower part of the block rises in the air, we see that it depends on the relationship between volume and area, which gives great influence if there is friction, as in this case it is indicated that there is no friction

                V / A = h

where h is the height of the block

                 y = 20.99 h

Answer:

The distance is [tex]y = 0.00162 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The wavelength is  [tex]\lambda = 486 \ nm = 486 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

   The  slit spacing is  [tex]d = 0.600 \ mm = 0.60 *10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

    The distance of the screen is  [tex]D = 2.0 \ m[/tex]

 Generally the distance along the screen between adjacent bright fringes is mathematically represented as  

        [tex]y = \frac{\lambda * D}{d}[/tex]

substituting values

         [tex]y = \frac{ 486 *10^{-9} * 2}{0.6*10^{-3}}[/tex]

         [tex]y = 0.00162 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Concave mirrors is otherwise known as converging mirrors: These are mirrors that are caved inwards (reflecting surface is on the outside curved part). It is called a converging mirror due to the fact that light converges to a point when it strikes and reflects from the surface of the mirror. This type of mirror is used to focus light; parallel rays that are directed towards it will be concentrated to a point.

For a concave mirror to reflect light with properties that are the same as a spotlight (directed light rays parallel to each other), one has to consider its property to gather light to a point after reflecting. Meaning that, we can achieve the spotlight by locatng the point where the rays will be parallel, this point is called the focal point.

Therefore, the light bulb should be placed at the focal point of the mirror.

Answer:

C

They allow light to pass only if their directions of polarizations are exactly 90° apart.

Answer:

-0.73mA

Explanation:

Using amphere's Law

ε =−dΦB/ dt

=−(2.6T)·(7.30·10−4 m2)/ 1.00 s

=−1.9 mV

Using ohms law

ε=V =IR

I = ε/ R =−1.9mV/ 2.60Ω =−0.73mA