Answer:
10.75 A
The current is in opposite direction since it causes a repulsion force between the wires
Explanation:
Force per unit length on the wires = 4.30×10^−5 N/m
distance between wires = 2.6 cm = 0.026 m
current through one wire = 0.52 A
current on the other wire = ?
Recall that the force per unit length of two wires conducting and lying parallel and close to each other is given as
[tex]F/l[/tex] = [tex]\frac{u_{0}I_{1} I_{2} }{2\pi r }[/tex]
where [tex]F/l[/tex] is the force per unit length on the wires
[tex]u_{0}[/tex] = permeability of vacuum = 4π × 10^−7 T-m/A
[tex]I_{1}[/tex] = current on the first wire = 0.520 A
[tex]I_{2}[/tex] = current on the other wire = ?
r = the distance between the two wire = 0.026 m
substituting the value into the equation, we have
4.30×10^−5 = [tex]\frac{4\pi *10^{-7}*0.520*I_{2} }{2\pi *0.026}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{ 2*10^{-7}*0.520*I_{2} }{0.026}[/tex]
4.30×10^−5 = 4 x 10^-6 [tex]I_{2}[/tex]
[tex]I_{2}[/tex] = (4.30×10^-5)/(4 x 10^-6) = 10.75 A
The current is in opposite direction since it causes a repulsion force between the wires.
Suppose a 58-turn coil lies in the plane of the page in a uniform magnetic field that is directed into the page. The coil originally has an area of 0.150 m2. It is stretched to have no area in 0.100 s. What is the magnitude (in V) and direction (as seen from above) of the average induced emf if the uniform magnetic field has a strength of 1.10 T? magnitude V direction ---Select--- †\
Answer:
95.7v
Explanation
Using Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction we know that rate of change in magnetic flux will induce EMF in closed loop
So it is given as
E= Ndစ/dt
E= N BA-0/ deta t
Given that
N = 58turns
B = 1.10T
A = 0.150m^²
Deta t= 0.1s
now we have
E = 58(1.10x0.150)/0.1
= 95.7v
Magnetic flux is decreasing, so the direction of the current will be to aid the decreasing flux $decrease= CLOCKWISE
Explanation:
An electromagnetic flowmeter is useful when it is desirable not to interrupt the system in which the fluid is flowing (e.g. for the blood in an artery during heart surgery). Such a device is illustrated. The conducting fluid moves with velocity v in a tube of diameter d perpendicular to which is a magnetic field B. A voltage V is induced between opposite sides of the tube. Given B = 0.120 T, d = 1.2 cm., and a measured voltage of 2.88 mV, determine the speed of the blood.
Answer:
2 m/s
Explanation:
The electromagnetic flow-metre work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The induced voltage is given as
[tex]E = Blv[/tex]
where [tex]E[/tex] is the induced voltage = 2.88 mV = 2.88 x 10^-3 V
[tex]l[/tex] is the distance between the electrodes in this field which is equivalent to the diameter of the tube = 1.2 cm = 1.2 x 10^-2 m
[tex]v[/tex] is the velocity of the fluid through the field = ?
[tex]B[/tex] is the magnetic field = 0.120 T
substituting, we have
2.88 x 10^-3 = 0.120 x 1.2 x 10^-2 x [tex]v[/tex]
2.88 x 10^-3 = 1.44 x 10^-3 x [tex]v[/tex]
[tex]v[/tex] = 2.88/1.44 = 2 m/s
What would happen in a State if its citizens lack relevant knowledge, skills
and positive attitude?
Answer:
If the older generation is lacking, the younger generation would likely have knowledge, skill, or a positive attitude in some combination, but it is relative to the culture.
The simple reason is the desirability for genetic variation using recessive genes.
In other words, if the older generation lacks something, it tends to be something they don’t need, but something that will look good on young people. But mostly relative to the culture and education system.
Hope this helps
A velocity selector in a mass spectrometer uses a 0.100-T magnetic field. (a) What electric field strength is needed to select a speed of 4.00 . 106 m/s
Answer:
The electric field strength needed is 4 x 10⁵ N/C
Explanation:
Given;
magnitude of magnetic field, B = 0.1 T
velocity of the charge, v = 4 x 10⁶ m/s
The velocity of the charge when there is a balance in the magnetic and electric force is given by;
[tex]v = \frac{E}{B}[/tex]
where;
v is the velocity of the charge
E is the electric field strength
B is the magnetic field strength
The electric field strength needed is calculated as;
E = vB
E = 4 x 10⁶ x 0.1
E = 4 x 10⁵ N/C
Therefore, the electric field strength needed is 4 x 10⁵ N/C
Simple harmonic oscillations can be modeled by the projection of circular motion at constant angular velocity onto the diameter of a circle. When this is done, the analog along the diameter of the acceleration of the particle executing simple harmonic motion is
Answer:
the analog along the diameter of the acceleration of the particle executing simple harmonic motion is the projection along the diameter of the centripetal acceleration of the particle in the circle
Which one of the following actions would make the maxima in the interference pattern from a grating move closer together?
A. Increasing the number of lines per length.
B. Decreasing the number of lines per length.
C. Increasing the distance to the screen.
D. Increasing the wavelength of the laser.
Answer:
Answer:
A. Increasing the number of lines per length.
How wide is the central diffraction peak on a screen 2.20 mm behind a 0.0328-mmmm-wide slit illuminated by 588-nmnm light?
Answer:
[tex]y = 0.0394 \ m[/tex]
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
The distance of the screen is [tex]D = 2.20 \ m[/tex]
The distance of separation of the slit is [tex]d = 0.0328 \ mm = 0.0328*10^{-3} \ m[/tex]
The wavelength of light is [tex]\lambda = 588 \ nm = 588 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]
Generally the condition for constructive interference is
[tex]dsin\theta = n * \lambda[/tex]
=> [tex]\theta = sin^{-1} [ \frac{ n * \lambda }{d } ][/tex]
here n = 1 because we are considering the central diffraction peak
=> [tex]\theta = sin^{-1} [ \frac{ 1 * 588*10^{-9} }{0.0328*10^{-3} } ][/tex]
=> [tex]\theta = 1.0274 ^o[/tex]
Generally the width of central diffraction peak on a screen is mathematically evaluated as
[tex]y = D tan (\theta )[/tex]
substituting values
[tex]y = 2.20 * tan (1.0274)[/tex]
[tex]y = 0.0394 \ m[/tex]
Consider two parallel wires where the magnitude of the left currentis 2 I0(io) and that of the right current is I0(io). Point A is midway between the wires,and B is an equal distance on the other side of the wires.
The ratio ofthe magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to that at point Bis________
Answer:
Explanation:
At the point midway between wires
magnetic field due to wire having current 2I₀
= 10⁻⁷ x 2 x2I₀ / r where 2r is the distance between wires .
magnetic field due to wire having current I₀
= 10⁻⁷ x 4 I₀ / r
magnetic field due to wire having current I₀
= 10⁻⁷ x 2I₀ / r
= 10⁻⁷ x 2 I₀ / r where 2r is the distance between wires .
these fields are in opposite direction as direction of current is same in both .
net magnetic field = (4 - 2 )x 10⁻⁷ x I₀ / r
= 2 x 10⁻⁷ x I₀ / r
At point A net magnetic field = 2 x 10⁻⁷ x I₀ / r
At point B , we shall calculate magnetic field
magnetic field due to nearer wire having current 2 I₀ = 10⁻⁷ x 4 I₀ / r
magnetic field due to wire far away = 10⁻⁷ x 2 I₀ / 3r
These magnetic fields act in the same direction so they will add up
net magnetic field = [ (4 I₀ / r) + (2 I₀ / 3r) ] x 10⁻⁷
= (14 I₀ / 3r ) x 10⁻⁷
Magnetic field at point B = (14 I₀ / 3r ) x 10⁻⁷
Ratio of field at A and B
= 3 / 7 . Ans
The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B is :
3 / 7
Given data :
Magnitude of the left current is 2I₀
Magnitude of the right current is I₀
First step : Determine the magnetic field at point A
The magnetic field due to the left current ( 2I₀ )
10⁻⁷ * 2 * 2I₀ / r ( 2r = distance between wires )
The magnetic field due to the right current ( I₀ )
10⁻⁷ * 2 I₀ / r
From the expressions above the magnetic fields are in opposite direction
∴ Net magnetic field = (4 - 2 )* 10⁻⁷ * I₀ / r = 2 * 10⁻⁷ * I₀ / r
Hence The magnetic field at point A = 2 * 10⁻⁷ * I₀ / r
Next step : determine the magnetic field at point B
Magnetic field due to the closest wire to point B ( i.e.2I₀ ) = 10⁻⁷ * 4 I₀ / r
Magnetic field due to the wire away from point A = 10⁻⁷ * 2 I₀ / 3r
Since the fields acts in the same directions
The net magnetic field = (4 I₀ / r) + (2 I₀ / 3r) ] * 10⁻⁷ = ( 14 I₀ / 3r ) * 10⁻⁷
Hence The magnetic field at point A = ( 14 I₀ / 3r ) * 10⁻⁷
Therefore the ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B = 3/ 7
Hence we can conclude that the ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field at point A to point B = 3 / 7
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A rigid container holds 4.00 mol of a monatomic ideal gas that has temperature 300 K. The initial pressure of the gas is 6.00 * 104 Pa. What is the pressure after 6000 J of heat energy is added to the gas?
Answer:
The final pressure of the monoatomic ideal gas is 8.406 × 10⁶ pascals.
Explanation:
When a container is rigid, the process is supposed to be isochoric, that is, at constant volume. Then, the equation of state for ideal gases can be simplified into the following expression:
[tex]\frac{P_{1}}{T_{1}} = \frac{P_{2}}{T_{2}}[/tex]
Where:
[tex]P_{1}[/tex], [tex]P_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final pressures, measured in pascals.
[tex]T_{1}[/tex], [tex]T_{2}[/tex] - Initial and final temperatures, measured in Kelvins.
In addtion, the specific heat at constant volume for monoatomic ideal gases, measured in joules per mole-Kelvin is given by:
[tex]\bar c_{v} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot R_{u}[/tex]
Where:
[tex]R_{u}[/tex] - Ideal gas constant, measured by pascal-cubic meters per mole-Kelvin.
If [tex]R_{u} = 8.314\,\frac{Pa\cdot m^{3}}{mol\cdot K}[/tex], then:
[tex]\bar c_{v} = \frac{3}{2}\cdot \left(8.314\,\frac{Pa\cdot m^{2}}{mol\cdot K} \right)[/tex]
[tex]\bar c_{v} = 12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}[/tex]
And change in heat energy ([tex]Q[/tex]), measured by joules, by:
[tex]Q = n\cdot \bar c_{v}\cdot (T_{2}-T_{1})[/tex]
Where:
[tex]n[/tex] - Molar quantity, measured in moles.
The final temperature of the monoatomic ideal gas is now cleared:
[tex]T_{2} = T_{1} + \frac{Q}{n\cdot \bar c_{v}}[/tex]
Given that [tex]T_{1} = 300\,K[/tex], [tex]Q = 6000\,J[/tex], [tex]n = 4\,mol[/tex] and [tex]\bar c_{v} = 12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K}[/tex], the final temperature is:
[tex]T_{2} = 300\,K + \frac{6000\,J}{(4\,mol)\cdot \left(12.471\,\frac{J}{mol\cdot K} \right)}[/tex]
[tex]T_{2} = 420.279\,K[/tex]
The final pressure of the system is calculated by the following relationship:
[tex]P_{2} = \left(\frac{T_{2}}{T_{1}}\right) \cdot P_{1}[/tex]
If [tex]T_{1} = 300\,K[/tex], [tex]T_{2} = 420.279\,K[/tex] and [tex]P_{1} = 6.00\times 10^{4}\,Pa[/tex], the final pressure is:
[tex]P_{2} = \left(\frac{420.279\,K}{300\,K} \right)\cdot (6.00\times 10^{4}\,Pa)[/tex]
[tex]P_{2} = 8.406\times 10^{4}\,Pa[/tex]
The final pressure of the monoatomic ideal gas is 8.406 × 10⁶ pascals.
Which unbalanced force accounts for the direction of the net force of the rocket?
a. Air resistance
b. Friction
c. Gravity
d. Thrust of rocket engine
It depends on what stage of the mission you're talking about.
==> While it's sitting on the pad before launch, the forces on the rocket are balanced, so there's no net force on it.
==> When the engines ignite, their thrust (d) is greater than the force of gravity. So the net force on the rocket is upward, and the spacecraft accelerates upward.
==> After the engines shut down, the net force acting on the rocket is due to Gravity (c).
. . . If the rocket has enough vertical speed, it escapes the Earth completely, and just keeps going.
. . . If it has enough horizontal speed, it enters Earth orbit.
. . . If it doesn't have enough vertical or horizontal speed, it falls back to Earth.
A rocket will preserve to speed up so long as there's a resultant pressure upwards resulting from the thrust of the rocket engine.
What unbalanced force bills for the course of the internet pressure of the rocket?A rocket launches whilst the pressure of thrust pushing it upwards is greater than the burden force because of gravity downwards. This unbalanced pressure reasons a rocket to accelerate upwards. A rocket will maintain to hurry up so long as there's a resultant force upwards resulting from the thrust of the rocket engine.
What's the net pressure of unbalanced?
If the forces on an item are balanced, the net pressure is zero. If the forces are unbalanced forces, the results do not cancel each difference. Any time the forces acting on an object are unbalanced, the net pressure is not 0, and the movement of the item modifications.
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An undiscovered planet, many light-years from Earth, has one moon, which has a nearly circular periodic orbit. If the distance from the center of the moon to the surface of the planet is 2.165×105 km and the planet has a radius of 4175 km and a mass of 6.70×1022 kg , how long (in days) does it take the moon to make one revolution around the planet? The gravitational constant is 6.67×10−11N·m2/kg2 .
Answer:
364days
Explanation:
Pls see attached file
Explanation:
The moon will take 112.7 days to make one revolution around the planet.
What is Kepler's third law?The period of the satellite around any planet only depends upon the distance between the planet's center and satellite and also depends upon the planet's mass.
Given, the distance from the moon's center to the planet's surface,
h = 2.165 × 10⁵ km,
The radius of the planet, r = 4175 km
The mass of the planet = 6.70 × 10²² kg
The total distance between the moon's center to the planet's center:
a = r +h = 2.165 × 10⁵ + 4175
a = 216500 + 4175
a = 220675
a = 2.26750 × 10⁸ m
The period of the planet can be calculated as:
[tex]T =2\pi \sqrt{\frac{a^3}{Gm} }[/tex]
[tex]T =2\3\times 3.14 \sqrt{\frac{(2.20675 \times 10^8)^3}{(6.67\times 10^{-11}).(6.70\times 10^{22})} }[/tex]
T = 9738253.26 s
T = 112.7 days
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A pool ball moving 1.83 m/s strikes an identical ball at rest. Afterward, the first ball moves 1.15 m/s at a 23.3 degrees angle. What is the y-component of the velocity of the second ball?
Answer:
v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s
Explanation:
This is an exercise of conservation of the momentum, for this we must define a system formed by the two balls, so that the forces during the collision have internal and the momentum is conserved
initial. Before the crash
p₀ = m v₁₀
final. After the crash
[tex]p_{f}[/tex] = m [tex]v_{1f}[/tex] + m v_{2f}
Recall that velocities are a vector so it has x and y components
p₀ = p_{f}
we write this equation for each axis
X axis
m v₁₀ = m v_{1fx} + m v_{2fx}
Y Axis
0 = -m v_{1fy} + m v_{2fy}
the exercise tells us the initial velocity v₁₀ = 1.83 m / s, the final velocity v_{2f} = 1.15, let's use trigonometry to find its components
sin 23.3 = v_{2fy} / v_{2f}
cos 23.3 = v_{2fx} / v_{2f}
v_{2fy} = v_{2f} sin 23.3
v_{2fx} = v_{2f} cos 23.3
we substitute in the momentum conservation equation
m v₁₀ = m v_{1f} cos θ + m v_{2f} cos 23.3
0 = - m v_{1f} sin θ + m v_{2f} sin 23.3
1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.15 cos 23.3
0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 1.15 sin 23.3
1.83 = v_{1f} cos θ + 1.0562
0 = - v_{1f} sin θ + 0.4549
v_{1f} sin θ = 0.4549
v_{1f} cos θ = -0.7738
we divide these two equations
tan θ = - 0.5878
θ = tan-1 (-0.5878)
θ = -30.45º
we substitute in one of the two and find the final velocity of the incident ball
v_{1f} cos (-30.45) = - 0.7738
v_{1f} = -0.7738 / cos 30.45
v_{1f} = -0.8976 m / s
the component and this speed is
v_{1fy} = v1f sin θ
v_{1fy} = 0.8976 sin (30.45)
v_{1fy} = - 0.4549 m / s
A city of Punjab has a 15 percent chance of wet weather on any given day. What is the probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days?
Answer: 0.0617
Explanation:
Given: The probability of wet weather on any given day in a city of Punjab : p=15%=0.15
Let X be a binomial variable that represents the number of days having wet weather.
Binomial probability formula : [tex]P(X=x)=^nC_xp^x(1-p)^x[/tex], where n= total outcomes, p = probability of success in each outcomes.
Here, n= 7 ( 1 week = 7 days)
The probability that it will take a week for it three wet weather on 3 separate days:
[tex]P(X=3)^=\ ^7C_3(0.15)^3(1-0.15)^{7-3}\\\\=\dfrac{7!}{3!(7-3)!}(0.15)^3(0.85)^4\\\\=\dfrac{7\times6\times5}{3\times2}\times 0.003375\times0.52200625\approx0.0617[/tex]
Hence, the required probability =0.0617
For a beam of light in air (n = 1) reflecting off glass (n = 1.5), what is Brewster's angle to the nearest degree?
Answer: 56°
Explanation:
Brewster's angle refers to the angle at the point where light of a certain polarization passes through a transparent dielectric surface and is transmitted perfectly such that no reflection is made.
The formula is;
[tex]= Tan^{-1} (\frac{n_{2} }{n_{1}} )[/tex]
[tex]= Tan^{-1} (\frac{1.5 }{1} )[/tex]
= 56.30993247
= 56°
48. A patient presents with a thrombosis in
the popliteal vein. This thrombosis most likely
causes reduction of blood flow in which of the
following veins?
Answer:
the interation blood veins
Explanation:
How many turns of wire are needed in a circular coil 13 cmcm in diameter to produce an induced emf of 5.6 VV
Answer:
Number of turns of wire(N) = 3,036 turns (Approx)
Explanation:
Given:
Diameter = 13 Cm
emf = 5.6 v
Note:
The given question is incomplete, unknown information is as follow.
Magnetic field increases = 0.25 T in 1.8 (Second)
Find:
Number of turns of wire(N)
Computation:
radius (r) = 13 / 2 = 6.5 cm = 0.065 m
Area = πr²
Area = (22/7)(0.065)(0.065)
Area = 0.013278 m²
So,
emf = (N)(A)(dB / dt)
5.6 = (N)(0.013278)(0.25 / 1.8)
5.6 = (N)(0.013278)(0.1389)
N = 3,036.35899
Number of turns of wire(N) = 3,036 turns (Approx)
A 5.0-µC point charge is placed at the 0.00 cm mark of a meter stick and a -4.0-µC point charge is placed at the 50 cm mark. At what point on a line joining the two charges is the electric field due to these charges equal to zero?
Answer:
Electric field is zero at point 4.73 m
Explanation:
Given:
Charge place = 50 cm = 0.50 m
change q1 = 5 µC
change q2 = 4 µC
Computation:
electric field zero calculated by:
[tex]E1 =k\frac{q1}{r^2} \\\\E2 =k\frac{q2}{R^2} \\\\[/tex]
Where electric field is zero,
First distance = x
Second distance = (x-0.50)
So,
E1 = E2
[tex]k\frac{q1}{r^2}=k\frac{q2}{R^2} \\\\[/tex]
[tex]\frac{5}{x^2}=\frac{4}{(x-50)^2} \\\\[/tex]
x = 0.263 or x = 4.73
So,
Electric field is zero at point 4.73 m
Vector has a magnitude of 6.0 m and points 30° north of east. Vector has a magnitude of 4.0 m and points 30° east of north. The resultant vector + is given by
Answer:
The resultant vector is [tex]\vec R = \vec A + \vec B = 7.196\,i + 6.464\,j[/tex].
Explanation:
First, each vector is determined in terms of absolute coordinates:
6-meter vector with direction: 30º north of east.
[tex]\vec A = (6\,m)\cdot (\cos30^{\circ} \,i + \sin 30^{\circ}\,j)[/tex]
[tex]\vec A = 5.196\,i + 3\,j[/tex]
4-meter vector with direction: 30º east of north.
[tex]\vec B = (4\,m)\cdot (\cos 60^{\circ}\,i + \sin 60^{\circ}\,j)[/tex]
[tex]\vec B = 2\,i + 3.464\,j[/tex]
The resultant vector is obtaining by sum of components:
[tex]\vec R = \vec A + \vec B = 7.196\,i + 6.464\,j[/tex]
The resultant vector is [tex]\vec R = \vec A + \vec B = 7.196\,i + 6.464\,j[/tex].
A microwave oven operates at 2.4 GHz with an intensity inside the oven of 2300 W/m2 . Part A What is the amplitude of the oscillating electric field
Answer:
The amplitude of the oscillating electric field is 1316.96 N/C
Explanation:
Given;
frequency of the wave, f = 2.4 Hz
intensity of the wave, I = 2300 W/m²
Amplitude of oscillating magnetic field is given by;
[tex]B_o = \sqrt{\frac{2\mu_o I}{c} }[/tex]
where;
μ₀ is permeability of free space = 4π x 10⁻⁷ m/A
I is intensity of wave
c is speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s
[tex]B_o = \sqrt{\frac{2*4\pi *10^{-7}*2300}{3*10^8} } \\\\B_o = 4.3899 *10^{-6} \ T[/tex]
The amplitude of the oscillating electric field is given by;
E₀ = cB₀
E₀ = 3 x 10⁸ x 4.3899 x 10⁻⁶
E₀ = 1316.96 N/C
Therefore, the amplitude of the oscillating electric field is 1316.96 N/C
In a LRC circuit, a second capacitor is connected in parallel with the capacitor previously in the circuit. What is the effect of this change on the impedance of the circuit
Answer:
Impedance increases for frequencies below resonance and decreases for the frequencies above resonance
Explanation:
See attached file
Explanation:
You have three resistors: R1 = 1.00 Ω, R2 = 2.00 Ω, and R3 = 4.00 Ω in parallel. Find the equivalent resistance for the combination
Answer:
4 / 7
Explanation:
1/total resistance = 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/4
= 1¾
total resistance = 1 ÷ 1¾
= 4/7
Two coherent sources of radio waves, A and B, are 5.00 meters apart. Each source emits waves with wavelength 6.00 meters. Consider points along the line connecting the two sources.Required:a. At what distance from source A is there constructive interference between points A and B?b. At what distances from source A is there destructive interference between points A and B?
Answer:
a
[tex]z= 2.5 \ m[/tex]
b
[tex]z = (1 \ m , 4 \ m )[/tex]
Explanation:
From the question we are told that
Their distance apart is [tex]d = 5.00 \ m[/tex]
The wavelength of each source wave [tex]\lambda = 6.0 \ m[/tex]
Let the distance from source A where the construct interference occurred be z
Generally the path difference for constructive interference is
[tex]z - (d-z) = m \lambda[/tex]
Now given that we are considering just the straight line (i.e points along the line connecting the two sources ) then the order of the maxima m = 0
so
[tex]z - (5-z) = 0[/tex]
=> [tex]2 z - 5 = 0[/tex]
=> [tex]z= 2.5 \ m[/tex]
Generally the path difference for destructive interference is
[tex]|z-(d-z)| = (2m + 1)\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]
=> [tex]|2z - d |= (0 + 1)\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]
=> [tex]|2z - d| =\frac{\lambda}{2}[/tex]
substituting values
[tex]|2z - 5| =\frac{6}{2}[/tex]
=> [tex]z = \frac{5 \pm 3}{2}[/tex]
So
[tex]z = \frac{5 + 3}{2}[/tex]
[tex]z = 4\ m[/tex]
and
[tex]z = \frac{ 5 -3 }{2}[/tex]
=> [tex]z = 1 \ m[/tex]
=> [tex]z = (1 \ m , 4 \ m )[/tex]
A beam of light from a laser illuminates a glass how long will a short pulse of light beam take to travel the length of the glass.
Answer:
The time of short pulse of light beam is [tex]2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]
Explanation:
Given that,
A beam of light from a laser illuminates a glass.
Suppose, the length of piece is [tex]L=25.21\times10^{-2}\ m[/tex]
Index of refraction is 2.83.
We need to calculate the speed of light pulse in glass
Using formula of speed
[tex]v=\dfrac{c}{\mu}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]v=\dfrac{3\times10^{8}}{2.83}[/tex]
[tex]v=1.06\times10^{8}\ m/s[/tex]
We need to calculate the time of short pulse of light beam
Using formula of velocity
[tex]v=\dfrac{d}{t}[/tex]
[tex]t=\dfrac{d}{v}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]t=\dfrac{25.21\times10^{-2}}{1.06\times10^{8}}[/tex]
[tex]t=2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]
Hence, The time of short pulse of light beam is [tex]2.37\times10^{-9}\ sec[/tex]
Kasek rides his bicycle down a 6.0° hill (incline is
6° with the horizontal) at a steady speed of 4.0
m/s. Assuming a total mass of 75 kg (bicycle and
Kasek), what must be Kasek's power output to
climb the same hill at the same speed?
Answer:
P = 2923.89 W
Explanation:
Power is
P = F v
for which we must calculate the force, let's use Newton's second law, let's set a coordinate system with a flat parallel axis and the other axis (y) perpendicular to the plane
X Axis
F - Wₓ = 0
F = Wₓ
Y Axis
N - [tex]W_{y}[/tex] = 0
let's use trigonometry for the components of the weight
sin 6 = Wₓ / W
cos 6 = W_{y} / W
Wₓ = W sin 6
W_{y} = W cos 6
F = mg cos 6
F = 75 9.8 cos 6
F = 730.97 N
let's calculate the power
P = F v
P = 730.97 4.0
P = 2923.89 W
A plastic balloon that has been rubbed with wool will stick to a wall.
a. Can you conclude that the wall is charged? If not, why not? If so, where does the charge come from?
b. Draw a series of charge diagrams showing how the balloon is held to the wall.
Answer:
Explanation:
When plastic balloon is rubbed with wool , charges are created on both balloon and silk in equal amount . Rubber balloon will acquire negative charge and silk will acquire positive charge .
Now when balloon is brought near a wall , there is induction of charge on the wall due to charge on the balloon . On the near surface of wall positive charge is produced and on the surface deep inside the wall negative charge is produced . The charge deep inside goes inside the earth but the positive charge near the surface of wall can not escape . It remains trapped by negative charge on the balloon .
hence there is mutual attraction between balloon and surface of wall is just like attraction between opposite charges . But once the ballon due to mutual attraction comes in contact with the wall , the charge on balloon and on wall neutralises each other and hence after some time the balloon falls off from the wall on the ground . It does not remain attracted to wall for ever . It happens due to neutralisation of charges on balloon and wall .
You are walking around your neighborhood and you see a child on top of a roof of a building kick a soccer ball. The soccer ball is kicked at 31° from the edge of the building with an initial velocity of 15 m/s and lands 63 meters away from the wall. How tall, in meters, is the building that the child is standing on?
Answer:
69.58 m tall
Explanation:
Pls see attached file
What did the results of photoelectric-effect experiments establish?
Answer:
Option A
Electrons are emitted if low intensity, high-frequency light hits a metal surface.
Explanation:
From the experiments conducted to study the photoelectric effect, conclusions were made that the key factor that contributes to the emission of electrons from the surface of the metal is the frequency of the beam of light. This frequency has to be beyond a minimum threshold, if not, there will be no emission of electrons from the metal surface no matter the intensity of the beam of light or the length of time it is incident upon the metal surface.
This makes option A correct because it highlights the contributions made by the threshold frequency to the photoelectric effect.
Water is pumped with a 120 kPa compressor entering the lower pipe (1) and flows upward at a speed of 1 m/s. Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s and water density is1000 kg/m-3. What is the water pressure on the upper pipe (II).
Answer:
The water pressure on the upper pipe is 92.5 kPa.
Explanation:
Given that,
Pressure in lower pipe= 120 kPa
Speed of water in lower pipe= 1 m/s
Acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s²
Density of water = 1000 kg/m³
Radius of lower pipe = 12 m
Radius of uppes pipe = 6 m
Height of upper pipe = 2 m
We need to calculate the velocity in upper pipe
Using continuity equation
[tex]A_{1}v_{1}=A_{2}v_{1}[/tex]
[tex]\pi r_{1}^2\times v_{1}=\pi r_{2}^2\times v_{2}[/tex]
[tex]v_{2}=\dfrac{r_{1}^2\times v_{1}}{r_{2}^2}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]v_{2}=\dfrac{12^2\times1}{6^2}[/tex]
[tex]v_{2}=4\ m/s[/tex]
We need to calculate the water pressure on the upper pipe
Using bernoulli equation
[tex]P_{1}+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_{1}^2+\rho gh_{1}=P_{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}\rho v_{2}^2+\rho gh_{2}[/tex]
Put the value into the formula
[tex]120\times10^{3}+\dfrac{1}{2}\times1000\times1^2+1000\times10\times0=P_{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}\times1000\times(4)^2+1000\times10\times2[/tex]
[tex]120500=P_{2}+28000[/tex]
[tex]P_{2}=120500-28000[/tex]
[tex]P_{2}=92500\ Pa[/tex]
[tex]P_{2}=92.5\ kPa[/tex]
Hence, The water pressure on the upper pipe is 92.5 kPa.
When the magnet falls toward the copper block, the changing flux in the copper creates eddy currents that oppose the change in flux. The resulting braking force between the magnet and the copper block always opposes the motion of the magnet, slowing it as it falls. The braking force on the magnet is nearly equal to its weight, so it falls very slowly. The rate of the fall produces a rate of flux change sufficient to produce a current that provides the braking force. If the magnet is pushed, forcefully, toward the block, the rate of change of flux is much higher than this. When the magnet is moving much more quickly than it will fall unaided, what is the direction of the net force on the magnet?
Answer:
The net force is directed downwards.
Explanation:
Since the magnet is falling much more faster than it would unaided, then there is a net force that is accelerating the magnet downwards. We know that acceleration is due to a force acting on a mass, and in this case, the magnet is the mass. Also, the acceleration is always in the direction of the force producing it, which means that the net force on the magnet is vertically downwards.
please help !!!!!!!!!!
Answer:
Lighthouse 1 during the day will be warmer, lighthouse 2 during the night will be warmer.
Explanation:
As the paragraph stated land absorbs heat and heats up faster than water. So during the day the lighthouse farthest away from the water will be hotter. But then the converse is true also land losses heat faster than water at night. So the water retains the heat from the day better making the lighthouse by the water warmer at night.
