The characteristic that Todd's diet display is Moderation means not eating to extremes, neither too much nor too little.
Moderation may be described as “the avoidance of excess.” In nutrition, ingesting carefully is the exercise of best eating the quantity of meals your frame calls for so that it will be healthful. Moderation in a healthful weight-reduction plan approach ingesting meals withinside the proper quantity or quantity. You have to keep away from ingesting a specific meals or nutrient excessively or insufficiently on the grounds that it is able to bring about both overnutrition or undernutrition. The primary reason moderation is an effective weight-loss tool is that caloric intake usually decreases.
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a child is brought into the emergency department with a severe asthmatic episode by the grandparents who are caring for the child over the weekend while the parents are away. what is the legal consideration(s) for the health care team? select all that apply.
A child is brought into the emergency department with a severe asthmatic episode by the grandparents who are caring for the child over the weekend while the parents are away therefore the legal consideration for the health care team is to offer the required medical treatment and save the life of the child and is denoted as option B.
What is Healthcare?This is referred to as the various forms of efforts which are made to maintain or restore physical, mental, or emotional well-being by trained professionals such as Doctors etc.
Under the law, children are entitled to protection and appropriate medical treatment despite their parents' religious views or in their absence which is why offering the required care is legal and is the appropriate and right thing to do in this type of scenario.
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The options are:
suspend treatment until parents arrive.continue with the treatment.allow the child to die.a client is experiencing painful joints and changes in the lungs, heart, and kidneys. for which condition will the nurse schedule this client for diagnostic tests?
According to the research, the correct answer is Option B. A client is experiencing painful joints and changes in the lungs, heart, and kidneys. For Rheumatoid Arthritis condition will the nurse schedule this client for diagnostic tests.
What is Rheumatoid Arthritis?It is a disease that falls within the autoimmune diseases that causes serious and irreversible joint damage.
In this sense, the patient's own immune system attacks the joints themselves and is called a systemic disease because it can damage organs such as the lungs, heart and systems.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, Rheumatoid Arthritis is characterized by exacerbation with inflammation of the joints and changes in the lungs, heart.
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The full question is:
A client is experiencing painful joints and changes in the lungs, heart, and kidneys. For which condition will the nurse schedule this client for diagnostic tests?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Osteoarthritis
victims of abuse and neglect rarely identify themselves to healthcare professionals. what can an observant nurse use to determine if a patient is a suspected victim of abuse or neglect?
Injuries of varying ages - A victim of abuse is rarely abused only once. Some injuries will have partially healed when new ones are inflicted.
Signs of physical abuse are as follow:
bruises, black eyes, welts, lacerations, and rope marks.broken bones.open wounds, cuts, punctures, untreated injuries in various stages of healing.broken eyeglasses/frames, or any physical signs of being punished or restrained.laboratory findings of either an overdose or under dose medications.To learn more about physical abuse please visit here:
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which antibiotics may be administered topically? (select all that apply) group of answer choices ofloxacin daptomycin polymyxin b rifampin bacitracin
Both Bacitracin and Polymyxin B are antibiotics used topically. Rifampin, ofloxacin, and daptomycin are not designed to be applied topically.
A particular class of antimicrobial agent that works against bacteria is an antibiotic. Antibiotic drugs are frequently employed in the treatment and prevention of bacterial infections because they are the most effective type of antibacterial agent for doing so.
Bacteria are common, largely free-living creatures that frequently only have one biological cell. They make up a significant portion of the prokaryotic microbial kingdom. Bacteria, which are typically a few micrometers long and were among the first living forms to arise on Earth, are found in the majority of its habitats.
Bacteria may be killed or have their growth suppressed. Antibiotics frequently cause rash, nausea, dizziness, diarrhea, and yeast infections as side effects.
The most severe adverse effects include diarrhea caused by the Clostridioides difficile infection (commonly known as C. difficile or C. diff), which can cause severe colon damage and even death.
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morphine is ordered to infuse at 3mg/hr. the medication is prepared with 60mg of morphine in 250ml of fluid. at what rate should your pump be set
12.5 ml/hr is the right answer. The dosage of morphine to be infused is 3 mg/hr. 250 cc of liquid and 60 milligrammes of morphine are used to produce the medicine. 12.5 ml per hour should be the setting for your pump.
[tex]X mL/hr = 250mL/60 mg x 3 mg/hr= 12.5 ml/hr[/tex]
If you only need to calculate the infusion rate, or the amount of medication to be infused every hour, divide the total volume in mL by the total number of hours the drug is to be infused over to get the rate in mL per hour. For intravenous delivery, it's crucial to administer morphine gradually over a period of 4 to 5 minutes while the patient is lying down. In adults and adolescents older than 12 years old, appropriate starting doses of morphine for continuous intravenous infusion are 1-2 mg per hour.
So, we can conclude that the correct response is 12.5 ml/hr. Your pump's setting should be 12.5 ml per hour.
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TRUE/FALSE. In the agreement/attestation statement signed by a provider, it agrees to charge Medicare beneficiaries for any services that Medicare beneficiaries are entitled to have payment made on their behalf by the Medicare program.
False. Assisting the elderly of the country with hospital, medical, and other healthcare bills is the goal of the Medicare health insurance programme. Almost 65 years of age and older has access to Medicare.
Additionally, Medicare has been expanded to cover those under 65 with end-stage renal disease, Social Security disability benefits, or Railroad Retirement Board benefits (ESRD). Medicare is administered by a federal organisation called the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).
Each sort of healthcare coverage that a Medicare beneficiary has is referred to as a "payer" when they do so. It is possible to tell when Medicare is the secondary payer using a number of techniques and tools, which helps to verify that claims are paid properly.
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an orthodox jewish pregnant woman comes to the labor and birth suite with her birth attendant. her partner is also present in the room. the woman is about to give birth when the nurse observes the partner move to the head of the bed outside the view of the birth. the nurse interprets this action as:
According to the condition of the question, the nurse interprets this action as the reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices.
What is the major responsibility of the nurse to pregnant women?The prenatal nurse monitors the health status of the mother and fetus, provides emotional support, and teaches the pregnant woman and her family about physiological and psychological changes during pregnancy, fetal development, labor and childbirth, and care for the newborn.
According to the context of this question, when a woman is about to give birth when the nurse observes the partner move to the head of the bed outside the view of the birth. This demonstrates the reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices towards their same culture and emotions.
Therefore, the nurse interprets this action as a reflection of the couple's religious beliefs and practices.
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a client with breast cancer is being treated with cyclophosphamide. the nurse plans care, knowing that this medication fits which classification?
The classification is the Cell cycle phase nonspecific.
If breast cancer has spread to the lymph nodes your doctor may recommend chemotherapy. Year. Breast cancers that arise at a younger age may be more aggressive than cancers that arise later in life. Therefore, doctors may recommend that young breast cancer patients undergo chemotherapy.
Most women undergo surgery for breast cancer and many receive additional treatments such as chemotherapy, hormone therapy, and radiation after surgery. Chemotherapy may also be used before surgery in certain circumstances. First-line chemotherapy can successfully replace mastectomy with breast-conserving surgery. Adjuvant combination chemotherapy improves survival compared with no chemotherapy.
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a baby was born with a ventricular septal defect (vsd). the provider performed a right heart catheterization and transcatheter closure with implant by percutaneous approach. what codes are reported?
93581, Q21.0, The following codes were recorded for a newborn with a ventricular septal defect (vsd). The medical professional carried out a transcatheter closure and right cardiac catheterization.
One type of common birth abnormality is a hole in the heart called a ventricular septal defect (VSD) (congenital). Blood can flow from the left side of the heart to the right side of the heart due to a hole (defect) in the wall (septum) separating the lower chambers (ventricles) of the heart. Urinary catheterization involves inserting a catheter (a hollow tube) into the bladder to drain or collect urine. cardiac catheterization comes in two primary flavours: clean intermittent catheterization and indwelling catheterization (CIC). With this kind of catheterization, the catheter's tip stays inside the bladder.
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which of the following characterizes chronic malnutrition in children? a. rapid weight loss b. low weight for height c. short height for age d. hyperactivity e. shrunken liver
The chronic malnutrition in children is short height for age which means option c is the correct choice.
This is a condition that develops when children do not eat the correct balance of nutrients in the first 1,000 days of life (from conception to the age of two), resulting in the irreversible stunting of their cognitive and physical development. It is caused by a lack of nutrients, either as a result of a poor diet or problems absorbing nutrients from food. Estimates indicate that starving people become weak in 30 to 50 days and die in 43 to 70 days.
Therefore, option c is the correct choice.
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a client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv). after recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the client expresses a desire to learn as much as possible about hiv and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (aids). when teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that humoral immunity is provided by which type of white blood cell?
According to the nurse, lymphocytes, a kind of white blood cell, are responsible for humoral immunity. regarding the immune system with the customer.
The two terms are not synonymous.The people who utilize a company's products or services are called users, as opposed to a certain kind of consumers who pay for the company's professional help. Contrary to what consumers often do, customers frequently purchase solutions.
What kind of a customer would you give as an example?An individual who makes purchases or pays for services is referred to as a customer. Clients might include businesses and other groups. The establishment of a relationship or agreement between buyers and sellers is typical.
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what is the term for characteristics, other than the characteristic of interest, that may also be related to the disease under study?
Confounding is the term for characteristics, other than the characteristic of interest, that may also be related to the disease under study.
Often referred to as a "mixing of effects," confounding occurs when the effects of the exposure being studied on a particular outcome are combined with the effects of another factor (or collection of factors), distorting the underlying relationship.
If you were investigating whether inactivity causes weight increase, for instance, inactivity would be your independent variable and weight gain would be your dependent variable. Any additional variable that likewise affects your dependent variable is a confounding variable.
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Risk factors associated with the development of breast cancer include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Risk factors associated with the development of breast cancer include:
EthnicityAdvanced ageWomen who have never been pregnantWomen who had late onset of menarche and early menopauseBreast cancer is a type of cancer that develops in the cells of the breasts. Breast cancer is the second most common cancer diagnosed in women in the United States, after skin cancer. Breast cancer can affect both men and women, but it affects women far more frequently.
Significant support for breast cancer awareness and research funding has aided in the advancement of breast cancer diagnosis and treatment. Breast cancer survival rates have increased, and the number of deaths associated with the disease has been steadily decreasing, owing largely to factors such as earlier detection, a new personalized approach to treatment, and a better understanding of the disease.
Breast cancer signs and symptoms may include a breast lump or thickening that feels different from the surrounding tissue, as well as a change in the size, shape, or appearance of a breast, dimpling is a change in the skin over the breast. A newly flipped nipple, the pigmented area of skin surrounding the nipple (areola) or breast skin peeling, scaling, crusting, or flaking, redness or pitting of the skin over your breast, similar to orange skin.
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a healthcare provider has entered orders for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd). which order should the nurse question?
The order the nurse should question for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is Oxygen increased to 3 L/minute if oxygen saturation is less than 94% on room air, option 4.
What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or COPD, is a group of diseases that cause airflow obstruction and breathing difficulties. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis are examples. COPD makes it harder to breathe for the 16 million Americans who have it.
COPD patients retain CO2, the normal trigger for respiratory rate. In clients with COPD and high levels of CO2, oxygen levels trigger breathing. When the body receives too much oxygen, it slows its breathing. When given extremely high levels of oxygen, patients with COPD may stop breathing completely (greater than 2 L).
The full question is:
A healthcare provider has entered orders for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following orders should the nurse question?
1. Albuterol nebulizer treatments every 4 hours as needed
2. Keep head of bed elevated 30-45°
3. Oxygen via nasal canula at 2 L/minute
4. Oxygen increased to 3 L/minute if oxygen saturation is less than 94% on room air
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at the clinic, little jake received an injection from the physician's assistant who was wearing a white coat. after that, every time he saw someone wearing white, he started to scream in fright. jake's white coat phobia was classically conditioned, the white coat being the .
Jake's white coat phobia was classically conditioned, the white coat being the conditioned stimulus (CS).
A conditioned stimulus (CS) is a stimulus that may eventually trigger a conditional reaction. Using the terminology of the conditioned stimulus (CS) , it is a learned stimulus that may eventually trigger a conditional reaction. as an example, the sound of a bell is that the stimulation in Pavlov's experiment, and therefore the dogs salivating would be the conditional reaction.
An injection is that the act of administering a liquid, particularly a drug, into an individual's body employing a needle and a syringe. An injection is taken into account a sort of canal drug administration; it doesn't involve absorption within the channel.
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2. nutritional assessment should be done a. annually. b. on sick pets. c. if a pet is overweight. d. at every visit on every pet.
nutritional assessment should be done at every visit on every pet. It also allows them to routinely evaluate patients' overall nutritional status.
Health care professionals can diagnose malnutrition, identify underlying illnesses that cause it, and plan essential interventions using nutritional assessment. The acronym ABCD anthropometric, biochemical, clinical, and dietary is a simple method to recall the several forms of nutrition assessments. The size, weight, and body proportions of an individual are measured using anthropometry. Clinical nutrition assessments have three main objectives: to determine the existence and type of malnutrition, to identify obesity as a health risk, and to develop optimal diets as a preventative measure against diseases propylthiouracil in later life. The five areas of nutrition assessment listed in the NCP are anthropometric measurements, biochemical data, medical tests and procedures, nutrition-related physical findings, and client history.
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your client on a regimen of statins tells you her doctor diagnosed her with rhabdomyolysis. the impact to her exercise prescription includes increased exercise recovery time or:
Your client on a regimen of statins tells you her doctor diagnosed her with rhabdomyolysis and the impact to her exercise prescription includes increased exercise recovery time or lower exercise intensities.
Low intensity exercise are a lower impact sort of exercise that puts less stress on your muscles and joints however still improves cardiovascular health, muscle strength and burns calories - simply not the maximum amount as high intensity exercise. samples of low intensity exercises include: Brisk walk. Yoga. Zumba.
Rhabdomyolysis is that the breakdown of muscle tissue that results in the discharge of muscle cell contents into the blood. These substances are harmful to the excretory organ and sometimes cause excretory organ injury. Early treatment with aggressive fluid replacement reduces the chance of excretory organ injury.
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a patient presents to your dental office the day after her dental appointment complaining of swelling and itching on the right side of her face. you should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms are related to dental anesthesia. group of answer choices true false
You should reassure the patient that it is not possible that her symptoms related to dental anesthesia is False.
The reason local anesthetic concentrations are higher than injectables is to facilitate the diffusion of local anesthetic through mucous membranes. Neither local nor injectable anesthetics used in dentistry are natural vasoconstrictors.
Cetakaine Spray is the only FDA-approved local anesthetic for gag reflex inhibition. The dosage is one spray per second. The toxicity of local anesthetics usually occurs as a result of treatment error. Circumstances leading to toxicity include accidental intravenous or arterial injections and overdose of ingestion or topical formulations containing local anesthetics.
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a client with a spinal cord injury is to receive methylprednisolone sodium succinate 100 mg intravenously twice a day. the medication is supplied in vials containing 125 mg per 2 ml. how many ml will constitute the correct dose? enter the correct number only.
The correct dose maybe 1.6 ml. Use of high-dose methylprednisolone within eight hours of acute closed spinal cord injury as a therapy standard or as a treatment is not supported by enough research.
Within eight hours of a closed spinal cord injury, a bolus intravenous infusion of methylprednisolone at a dose of 30 mg per kilogram of body weight administered over fifteen minutes, followed 45 minutes later by an infusion of 5.4 mg per kilogram of body weight administered every hour for 23 hours, is the only course of treatment for which there is only weak clinical evidence (Level I- to II-1). If methylprednisolone infusion is chosen as a therapy option, there is not enough evidence to justify continuing it past 23 hours.
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the nurse is presenting a seminar to expectant teen parents regarding infant car seat safety. what statement from a teen parent indicates to the nurse that teaching was successful?
The statement from a teen parent that indicates to the nurse that teaching was successful is "An infant must stay in the backseat, facing backward, till at least a year old."
The nurse is searching for a press release that indicates the teenager parents perceive the right use of babe automotive seats. Though there ar some variations from state to state, the National Safety Council advises that infants ought to be in an exceedingly rear-facing seat within the back seat of a vehicle till a minimum of age one year. This comment indicates the fogeys perceive the teaching clearly.
Infants are often thought of kids anyplace from birth to one year recent. Baby are often accustomed consult with any kid from birth to age four years recent, therefore encompassing newborns, infants, and toddlers.
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Dietary supplements may be beneficial for
a. a pregnant woman
b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake
c. an elderly man with pneumonia
d. a healthy college student
e. a,b, and c only
The correct option is (E) that is a, b and c only.
a. a pregnant woman
b. someone who is on a diet with restricted kilocalorie intake
c. an elderly man with pneumonia
All nutrients are important, but these six play a key role in your baby's growth and development during pregnancy:
Folic acid.Iron.Calcium.Vitamin D.DHA.Iodine.To learn more about pregnancy please visit here:
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Generic medications __________. A. Are more expensive than the original versionb. Are designed to cause more side effects than the original versionc. Often won't help the conditiond. Include the same active ingredients as the original medication.
Answer:
Include the same active ingredients as the original medication.
Explanation:
1. A medical order states that a patient is to receive 500 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV over two
hours. How fast is the IV running in ml/hr?
Hello,
I hope you and your family are doing well!
To find the rate at which the IV is running in ml/hr, you can use the formula:
rate = volume/time
In this case, the volume of the IV is 500 mL and the time it is to be infused is 2 hours. Substituting these values into the formula gives us:
rate = 500 mL / 2 hours = 250 mL/hr
Therefore, the IV is running at a rate of 250 mL/hr.
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this war supplied two essential elements for the popular imagery of the post-1945 mass zombie: use of the human wave and brainwashing.
This war supplied two essential elements for the popular imagery of the post-1945 mass zombie: Korean War. Use of the human wave and brainwashing.
Between North Korea and South Korea, the Korean War, often known by various names, lasted from 1950 to 1953. Following border conflicts and rebellions in South Korea, North Korea invaded South Korea on June 25, 1950, sparking the start of the Korean War. China and the Soviet Union supported North Korea, while the United States and its allies supported South Korea. On July 27, 1953, an armistice put an end to the conflict.
Imperial Japan occupied Korea from 1910 until its capitulation at the conclusion of World War II on August 15, 1945, a 35-year domination.
[f] Along the 38th parallel, Korea was divided into two zones of occupation by the US and the USSR.
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which clinical manifestation would be most indicative of complete arterial obstruction in the lower extremities?
The most frequent cause of lower extremity chronic arterial occlusive disease is atherosclerosis.
Blood flow to the lower leg is decreased during activity or at rest due to artery blockage brought on by atherosclerosis. Exercise-induced discomfort in the affected limb that goes away with rest is known as intermittent claudication. The location of this pain is typically far from the artery obstruction or constriction. The discomfort of intermittent arterial claudication is primarily confined to the calf since the superficial femoral and popliteal arteries are the vessels that are most frequently damaged by atherosclerosis. The two iliac arteries' bifurcation and the distal aorta are the next most typical sites of involvement. Pain in the thighs or buttocks as well as in the legs may result from the narrowing of these arteries.
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The most frequent cause of lower extremity chronic arterial occlusive disease is atherosclerosis.
Blood flow to the lower leg is decreased during activity or at rest due to artery blockage brought on by atherosclerosis. Exercise-induced discomfort in the affected limb that goes away with rest is known as intermittent claudication. The location of this pain is typically far from the artery obstruction or constriction. The discomfort of intermittent arterial claudication is primarily confined to the calf since the superficial femoral and popliteal arteries are the vessels that are most frequently damaged by atherosclerosis. The two iliac arteries' bifurcation and the distal aorta are the next most typical sites of involvement. Pain in the thighs or buttocks as well as in the legs may result from the narrowing of these arteries.
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a 71-year-old woman presents with an acute onset of confusion, slurred speech, and left-sided weakness. she is conscious and her airway is patent. her bp is 180/94 mm hg, her pulse is 70 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 14 breaths/min and unlabored, and her oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. what should you do?
Keep her sitting up and transport them without delay.
In the case of a stroke the patient's symptoms are obvious. Second, the most important procedure is to transport the patient to a stroke center where fibrinolytics can be administered and other procedures can be performed just to address airway breathing and circulation problems. Sit the patient protect the airway and transport the patient immediately.
In this scenario, the patient is breathing well and does not require a ventilator. Her blood pressure is elevated, but this is not being treated by her EMT on site. The patient's oxygen saturation did not indicate hypoxemia and he was not short of breath. Therefore, supplemental oxygen is not indicated. Do not give aspirin to patients with stroke-like symptoms. Aspirin may make things worse if the stroke is caused by bleeding in the brain.
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the nurse is preparing to administer hepatitis b vaccine, recombinant (energix-b) 5 mcg im to a school-aged child. the vaccine is labeled, 10 mcg/ml. how many ml should the nurse administer?
Use ratio and proportion, 5 mcg : X ml :: 10 mcg : 1ml 10X = 5 X = 0.5 ml
Most people who are vaccinated with hepatitis B vaccine are immune for life. Hepatitis B vaccine is usually given as 2, 3, or 4 shots. Infants should get their first dose of hepatitis B vaccine at birth and will usually complete the series at 6–18 months of age.Hepatitis B vaccine is a vaccine that prevents hepatitis B. The first dose is recommended within 24 hours of birth with either two or three more doses given after that. This includes those with poor immune function such as from HIV/AIDS and those born premature.The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommends hepatitis B (HepB) vaccination among all adults aged 19–59 years and adults > 60 years with risk factors for hepatitis B or without identified risk factors but seeking protection.
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a client who is in rehabilitation following a cerebrovascular accident (or brain attack) is experiencing total hemiplegia of the dominant right side. the nurse finds that the client needs assistance with eating to ensure optimum nutrition. which action is most important for the nurse to take to facilitate rehabilitation with eating?
Answer:
The most important action for the nurse to take to facilitate rehabilitation with eating for a client who is experiencing total hemiplegia of the dominant right side following a cerebrovascular accident is to assess the client's swallowing function. This is important because individuals with hemiplegia often have difficulty swallowing, which can lead to malnutrition and other complications. The nurse can assess the client's swallowing function by performing a swallowing evaluation, which typically involves observing the client while they eat and drink to identify any problems with swallowing. Based on the results of the evaluation, the nurse can recommend appropriate interventions to improve the client's swallowing function and ensure that they are able to eat and drink safely and optimally.
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Explanation:
an 80-year-old patient who is overweight andsedentary has developed elevated fastingglucose levels (142, 153, and 147 mg/dl). shewas diagnosed with diabetes today.considering her age, how should the nursepractitioner proceed
The nurse practitioner would proceed with start metformin 500 mg daily.
To treat high blood sugar, metformin is taken along with a healthy diet, an exercise routine, and maybe other drugs. Patients with type 2 diabetes use it. Keeping blood sugar levels under control helps prevent kidney damage, blindness, nerve damage, limb loss, and issues with sexual function. The chance of having a heart attack or stroke may be reduced if your diabetes is well controlled.
The way that metformin works is by assisting in restoring your body's appropriate reaction to the insulin that must naturally make. Additionally, it reduces how much sugar the liver produces and how much sugar your stomach and intestines absorb.
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the nurse is caring for a client receiving a combination of antineoplastic medications. the client asks the nurse why so many different medications are being used instead of just one medication. the nurse should explain what characteristics of combination therapy? select all that apply.
These characteristics of combination therapy as antineoplastic medications include the following:
Targets different phases of the cell cycle
Decreases the development of cell resistance. That is option B and C respectively.
What is antineoplastic medications?The antineoplastic medications are those drugs that are used for the treatment of various types of cancer.
Typical examples of antineoplastic medications include the following:
busulfan, melphalan, cyclophosphamide, dacarbazine, cytarabine, fluorouracil, carboplatinThe antineoplastic medications are grouped into the following classes such as:
alkylating agents, plant alkaloids, antimetabolites, anthracyclines, topoisomerase inhibitors and corticosteroidsThe combination of one or two classes of antineoplastic medications in the treatment of cancer is to target different phases of the cell cycle and decrease the development of cell resistance.
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Complete question:
The nurse is caring for a client receiving a combination of antineoplastic medications. The client asks the nurse why so many different medications are being used instead of just one medication. The nurse should explain what characteristics of combination therapy? Select all that apply.
Increases the quantity of each medication used
Targets different phases of the cell cycle
Decreases the development of cell resistance
Decreases the adverse effects of each medication
Prolongs the length of treatment
