Answer:
Okapi
Mark Brainliest
okapi...
hopr helps uh
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PLEASEEEE ANSWER ASAPPP WILL GIVE BRAINLIESTTT
Identify the number of electrons each of the following atoms needs to gain or lose to have a stable outer electron configuration: Sodium(Na), Sulfur(S), Strontium(Sr)
Answer:
Sodium: +8
Sulfur: +2
Strontium: -2
Toluene crosses pure lipid bilayers many hundreds of times faster than a related compound, phenylalanine. Suggest two different properties of these molecules that would account for this difference.
Answer:
The lipid bilayer is hydrophobic that is hydrophobic and it can easily cross the lipid bilayer.
Toulene is a hydrophobic and neutral molecule compound so it can easily pass through the bilayer. It is an aromatic compound with a methane group attached to the benzene ring. It is smaller in comparison to Phenylalanine.
Phenylalanine-- It is an amino acid with a benzene ring attached to it. This amino acid is less hydrophobic than the aliphatic amino acids. Because of its less hydrophobic nature, it travels slowly compared to Toluene. It is also larger and has amino and carboxyl groups attached to it. On the other hand, Phenylalanine is a polar compound which has -COOH and -NH2 group. which prevents its delay in its transport across the lipid bilayer.
Review Questions
1. If a diploid eukaryotic cell contains 14 pairs of chromosomes for a total of 2n = 28, how
many chromosomes will be in the resulting products of cellular division if the cell
undergoes: mitosis?meiosis?
2. If a haploid eukaryotic cell contains 10 chromosomes for a total of n = 10. How many
chromosomes will be in the resulting daughter cells if this cell undergoes mitosis?
3. By what process do homologous chromosomes exchange portions of their DNA during
meiosis?
4. In what phase does the answer to #3 occur?
5. How many mature ova will be produced from each primary oocyte?
6. How many mature sperm will be produced from each primary spermatocyte?
7. Do the homologous chromosomes separate during meiosis I or meiosis II?
8. Do the sister chromatids separate during meiosis I or meiosis II?
9. What is a polar body?
10. List the phases of mitosis and briefly describe what happens in each phase:
Answer:
6==. During spermatogenesis, four sperm result from each primary spermatocyte, which divides into two haploid secondary spermatocytes; these cells will go through a second meiotic division to produce four spermatids
Answer this question properly
When an organism encounters nitrate in its environment, which condition will determine whether the nitrate is used in an assimilatory or dissimilatory manner?
a. low concentration or ammonia
b. low concentration of sulfate
c. oxygen present
d. low temperature
e. oxygen absent
f. high concentration of nitrite
Answer:
Dissimilatory- oxygen absent
Assimilatory- high concentration of nitrite
Explanation:
In assimilatory nitrate reduction, ammonium is produced and subsequently incorporated into biomass to build up e.g., proteins and nucleic acids. Dissimilatory nitrate reduction is a process for energy conservation, in which nitrate is used as an electron acceptor in the (near) absence of oxygen . Dissimilatory nitrate reduction and nitrate storage in particular are physiological life traits that provide microbes with environmental flexibility (i.e., metabolic activity under both oxic and anoxic conditions) and resource independence (i.e., anaerobic metabolism without immediate nitrate supply), respectively. Such life traits are especially important in environments that are temporarily anoxic and/or nitrate-free and they may have developed as a “life strategy” in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
3. A bacterial isolate from a urine specimen was grown in culture, Gram stained, and then tested for its ability to ferment sugars and hydrolyze various subtrates. What approach to bacterial identification is this an example of
Answer:
Phenotypic approach for bacterial identification
Explanation:
Bacterial identification can be done by conventional methods, which are based on phenotypical characteristics. These methods are much affordable and reasonable.
Phenotypical identification is based on bacteria´s observable characteristics, such as their morphology, development, and biochemical/metabolic properties.
It is important to consider that these methods do not provide absolute certainty. They can only indicate the genera or species to which the bacteria under study may belong.
Some primary evidence is usually used for fast bacteria identification:
Gram staining, morphology, growth at different media or different incubation atmospheres, glucose fermentation, spores production, motion, aerobiosis/anaerobiosis, among others.Knowing that the bacteria in the exposed example was isolated and grown in culture, then Gram-stained and tested for biochemical reaction, we can assume that the approach for its identification is phenotypic.
130 and 14C are isotopes of 12C, which has 6 electrons, 6 protons, and 6 neutrons. What is the arrangement of subatomic particles in 14c?
A. 6 electrons, 7 protons, and 6 neutrons.
The correct answer is C. 6 electrons, 6 protons, and 8 neutrons.
Explanation
An isotope is a type of atom that is characterized by having a nucleus with a different number of neutrons. Additionally, isotope atoms are those that have the same number of protons in the nucleus (in the case of carbon 6 protons), but different mass numbers. In the case of the isotope of carbon, it has 8 neutrons (2 more neutrons than the regular carbon) and 6 protons in the nucleus, that is, that its mass is 14 (6 protons + 8 neutrons equals 14). According to the above, the correct answer is C.
02-Why is it important to meet the members Of your extended family?
Answer:
because they are our heart and supporting members
Mutations that result in the death of the individual are known as
Answer:
Mutations that cause the death of an organism are called lethals — and it doesn't get more negative than that.
For the following three cultures, using any resource find out if they are obligate aerobes, facultative anaerobe, or obligate anaerobe- o Escherichia coli o Micrococcus luteus o Clostridium sporogenes
Answer:
Escherichia coli - Facultative anaerobe
Micrococcus luteus - Obligate aerobe
Clostridium sporogenes - Obligate anaerobe
Explanation:
In simple terms, obligate aerobes are organisms that require oxygen to grow and metabolize molecules such as fats and sugars to produce energy. Many animals fall under this category. Other examples are Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Micrococcus luteus.
Facultative anaerobes are organisms (usually bacteria) that can grow both in the presence and absence of oxygen. The most example of this are the Escherichia coli.
Obligate anaerobes are organisms (usually microorganisms) that cannot survive when exposed to normal atmospheric concentration of oxygen. Examples are Clostridium sporogenes and Clostridium botulinum.
What similarities and differences do you see with our human species?
Answer:
similarities: body differences:attitude
Explanation:
everyone has body with similar properties such as hand,leg and eye.while attitude they have good and bad depends on the education they get.
What is rcbL, and why is it a particularly useful molecule for studying evolutionary relationships in plants and green algae
Answer:
RBCL denotes for 'rubisco protein.' It is characterized as 'a plant enzyme which catalyzes both the fixing of carbon dioxide found in atmosphere during photosynthesis and the reverse process of photorespiration.' It plays a very significant role in studying, as well as, in evaluating relations associated with phylogenetics in plants primarily along with green algae as it assists them to produce energy molecules by using carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. It has therefore been the key factor behind a number of organic carbon that is discovered in our surrounding biosphere.
animals with scales on skin are called?
Answer:
Animals with scales on their skin are called reptiles..hope it helps
stay safe healthy and happy...What are cut flowers?
Answer:
Cut flowers are flowers or flower buds that have been cut from the plant bearing it. It is usually removed from the plant for decorative use.
Explanation:
1. A week after returning from a backpacking trip, four teenagers developed nausea and severe diarrhea. All had consumed untreated water from a stream which doctors concluded was infested with the organism, Giardia. Think about the symbiotic relationships that you studied in this unit. What type of relationship exists between the teens and the organism?
2. As humans burn fossil fuels for energy, the percent of carbon stored in fossils is reduced while the carbon in the atmosphere is increased. If green plants are also being removed, how might the carbon cycle and greenhouse effect be influenced?
3. How are decomposers critical to the carbon cycle?
Answer:
Explanation:
1) The relationship that exists between the teens and the organism (Giardia) is Parasitism. Because in such symbiotic relationship one species (the parasite-Giardia) benefits while the other species (the host- the teens) is harmed.
2) Plants remove Carbon dioxide (a major green house gas) from atmosphere during photosynthesis. But, if plants are also being removed with increase in use of fossil fuels, the CO2 that escapes the fossil fuels will remain in the atmosphere for longer as there are not enough plants to "suck" them back into a stored form of Carbon. Carbon Dioxide increases green hourse effect thus green house effect will increase and earth's temperature might rise due to this.
3) Without decomposers we would not be able to continue the carbon cycle because we could not release the stored carbon from plants and animals into the atmosphere. Decomposers break down dead material from organism and release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere, where it's available to plants for photosynthesis. Without them, we could not recycle nutrients or carbons in our ecosystem and thus, they are critical for the carbon cycle.
Which of the following events contributes to the termination of a signal generated by the binding of a ligand to a receptor tyrosine kinase? Only one answer is correct
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
2. Kinases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
3. Kinases phosphorylate key residues.
4. The receptor tyrosine kinase dimerizes.
5. GTPase removes a phosphoryl group from GTP.
6. Phosphatases phosphorylate key residues.
Answer:
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
Explanation:
Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs) are high-affinity transmembrane protein receptors that bind to a wide variety of ligands (e.g., growth factors, cytokines, hormones). These receptors (RTKs) have a transmembrane domain and therefore these proteins act as membrane receptors, as well as exhibit catalytic activity. The intracellular C terminal region of RTKs contains catalytic domains responsible for both autophosphorylation and tyrosine phosphorylation of their protein substrates. Moreover, Protein Tyrosine Phosphatase (PTPs) are critical enzymes that remove phosphate groups from tyrosine residues in different substrates (including RTKs), thereby regulating key signaling pathways such as cell proliferation, cell differentiation, and cell-cell adhesion.
How do sinkholes form? Be sure to provide a detailed explanation of sinkhole formation.
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Over hundreds of thousands of years, layers of rocks like bedrock and limestone erode. Then, a hole or cavity forms when it erodes. Slowly, the matter above the cavity falls in. This causes it to expand. Drought is also another reason that sinkholes form in the ground.
Answer:
Sample Answer edge 2021
Explanation:
When it rains, rainwater, which is slightly acidic, soaks into the ground and becomes more acidic as it moves through the soil. When this water comes in contact with the bedrock, it reacts with the limestone, dissolving it. As the water flows through the ground, it carries the dissolved limestone away with it, enlarging the natural holes and cracks that were already present in the rock. Over time, large cavities may form in the bedrock. Sinkholes often form when the overlying sediments become too heavy for the ceiling of an underground cavity to support. The ceiling gives way and the overlying sediments collapse into the cavity.
The most common Class II variant is the F508del variant, which is missing the 508th amino acid in the protein but has an otherwise normal sequence. Loss of this amino acid leads to misfolding of the protein, and the misfolded protein is not properly transported to the membrane. Based on this information, how many nucleotides are deleted in the CFTR allele encoding this variant?
Answer:
The correct answer is - 3 (two codons of 507th that are U, C, and the first nucleotide of 508th codon U).
Explanation:
Each amino acid is coded by a three-nucleotide base long codon. So in the case of the F508del variant, there is a deletion of three nucleotides that is encoded for phenylalanine amino acid.
In this isoleucine is encoded by 507th codon that is AUG and 508th codon is UUU codes for Isoleucine.
In this case, two codons of 507th are U, C, and the first nucleotide of 508th codon U. So overall three nucleotides are deleted in the F508del variant..
In algae and plants, photosynthesis happens in the
vacuoles.
mitochondria.
chloroplasts.
chromosomes.
Answer:
chloroplast........................
Answer:
chloroplasts
Explanation:
they contain chlorophyll, a necessary element for photosynthesis
Explain the processes that occur in the nucleus.
Answer:
A nuclear reactor is driven by the splitting of atoms, a process called fission, where a particle (a 'neutron') is fired at an atom, which then fissions into two smaller atoms and some additional neutrons. ... The fissioning of atoms in the chain reaction also releases a large amount of energy as heat.
what is the difference between cell elongation and plasmolysis?
Read each description below regarding the the CNS control of the ANS.
a. It's the integrating centers for reflexes controlling heart rate and blood pressure.
b. It activates the fight-or-flight response.
c. It's the integrating center for thermoregulaton.
d. Sexual thoughts or images can increase blood flow to the genitals.
e. It's the major control center of the ANS.
1. Cerebral Cortex
2. Hypothalamus
3. Brainstem
4. Spinal Cord
(1)The cerebral cortex, also known as the cerebral mantle, is the outer layer of neural tissue of the cerebrum of the brain in humans and other mammals. The cerebral cortex mostly consists of the six-layered neocortex, with just 10% consisting of allocortex.
(2)The hypothalamus is a small region of the brain. It's located at the base of the brain, near the pituitary gland. While it's very small, the hypothalamus plays a crucial role in many important functions, including: releasing hormones. regulating body temperature.
(3) The brainstem (or brain stem) is the posterior stalk-like part of the brain that connects the cerebrum with the spinal cord. In the human brain the brainstem is composed of the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla oblongata Ten pairs of cranial nerves come from the brainstem.
(4)The spinal cord is a long, fragile tubelike structure that begins at the end of the brain stem and continues down almost to the bottom of the spine. The spinal cord consists of bundles of nerve axons forming pathways that carry incoming and outgoing messages between the brain and the rest of the body.
If the lymph system did not do its job, what would be one of the consequences?
Answer:
"*Because the lymphatic system collects excess tissue fluid, if it were not working, swelling (edema) would occur in the tissues. The thymus cleanses the blood from the cardiovascular system of cellular debris and bacteria."
In the Science Olympiad, what is the main branch of science to study?
Answer:
Well, so far there are three branches of Science namely;
Earth SciencePhysical ScienceLife Scienceidentifying technological advancement
Answer:
It occurs to create innovation in the existing technology.
Explanation:
A technological advancement is an attempt to develop current materials, devices, products or processes by further understanding of science. technological advancement provides innovations of existing technology or formation of new technology in order to better the life style and make easier our work. If the technological advancement did not occur, we are unable to increase efficiency of various instruments and machines.
Describe the difference between the five types of managed care plans
Answer:
You choose a primary care doctor who coordinates most of your care. Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO) usually pay more if you get care within the network. They still pay part of the cost if you go outside the network. Point of Service (POS) plans let you choose between an HMO or a PPO each time you need care.
Which of the following is a risk associated with making our lifestyle more convenient?
Increased use of technology
O Decrease in environmental hazards
Increased use of science
Increased pollution in the air, water, soil
Answer:
Increased pollution in the air, water, soil.
What is the phase that not all cells enter, but it is a phase where cells are not actively dividing
Answer:
The phase that not all cells enter, but is a phase where cells are not actively dividing is called the G0 or non-dividing phase.
Answer:
G₀ phase
Explanation:
Some types of cells divided slowly or not at all. These cells may exit the G₁ phase and enter a resting phase called G₀ phase. In G₀ phase, a cell is not actively preparing to divide. It's simply doing its job. For some cells, G₀ is a permanent state, while others may restart cell division given the right signals.
the value 10.00 has sigificant figuers
Answer:
1.e 1,0,0,0
Explanation:
it's just that
According to scientific evidence, the age of the earth is about how old?
Answer:
I believe it to be around 400 billion years old.
Explanation:
