The nurse is trying to determine the ability of the client with myocardial infarction (MI) to manage independently at home after discharge. Which statement by the client is the strongest indicator of the potential for difficulty after discharge?1. I need to start exercising more to improve my health.2. I will be sure to keep my appointment with the cardiologist.3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.4. I think I have a good understanding of what all my medications are for.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.

Explanation:

All the response options, with the exception of the third, have an autonomy of the patient, where he shows that he will have no difficulties in performing necessary tasks, without the help of third parties. However, in the third answer option, the patient shows that he will have difficulties after being discharged, as he fears that he will have difficulties in being alone, since he has no one to help him.

Therefore, we can assume that the correct answer to your question is the third answer option.


Related Questions

sbar T.N. delivered a healthy male infant 2 hours ago. She had a midline episiotomy. This is her sixth pregnancy. Before this delivery, she was para 4014. She had an epidural block for her labor and delivery. She is now admitted to the postpartum unit. 1. What is important to note in the initial assessment

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

It is important to assess body temperature and the existence of abnormal swellings. It is also necessary to assess urinary production and bowel function, existence of clots or bleeding, breast tenderness, uterus contraction and the patient's emotional state.

These factors are important to be evaluated to determine the level and recovery of the patient the normal functioning of the body, then go through the procedures presented. These procedures determine if the patient will need to be submitted to other procedures that guarantee both his physical and emotional well-being.

What is a thyroid storm, and why would the admitting doctor want to consider this as a possible diagnosis

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Thyroid storm can be described as a condition that arises as a result of prolonged untreated hyperthyroidism. This condition is more described with the overproduction of two thyroid hormones.

Also, people with thyroid storm have low level of TSH hormone and high level of T3 and T4 hormone.

Thyroid storm is also classified with high blood pressure,high respiratory rate, high body temperature. These symptoms and some hormone level test of TSH, T3 and T4 would make the doctor consider admission.

The diversity of both students and faculty poses important considerations for teaching and learning. Reflect on the characteristic differences in gender, race, and culture, as well as the differences among the diverse generations in today’s nursing education classroom. When considering your personal philosophy of teaching, discuss how you might use these characteristic differences and diverse backgrounds and experiences of today’s nursing students as a teaching tool to connect students to nursing content and increase their understanding. In other words, how might you incorporate the background and experiences of your students into your teaching methods to enhance the ability of all students in your classroom to think critically and problem solve patient-care issues?

Answers

Answer:

As of 2016, the ethnic breakdown of the United States was 61.3 percent white (non-Hispanic/Latino), 17.8 percent Hispanic/Latinx, 13.3 percent black/African-American, 5.7 percent Asian, 1.3 percent Native American/Alaskan Native, and 2.6 percent reporting two or more races. In the same year, about 70 percent of all nurses were white — significantly more than the general population. African-American and Latinx populations in particular were underrepresented as a proportion of the nursing profession. The contrast was even more stark when considering nursing educators. In 19 states, the percentage of minority nursing students was at least double that of minority faculty.

This disparity can be a barrier to effective nursing education. Studies by respected organizations, such as the Sullivan Commission on Diversity in the Healthcare Workforce, show that educational outcomes improve when nurse educators reflect, value, and celebrate the diverse attributes of the student groups they teach. On the other hand, educational outcomes suffer when nurse educators fail to do these things. Diversity within an organization’s teaching staff is therefore a helpful tool for attracting, retaining, and training enthusiastic and skilled nursing students.

using the cpt code book, assign code(s) for the following scenario: Dr. Smith admits Ralph to a nursing home. He performs a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination and medical decision making of high complexity. Code for the initial visit for admission of a patient to a nursing home. List the CPT code verified in the Tabular List.

Answers

Answer:

CPT Code 99306

Explanation:

Since Dr. Smith performed a comprehensive history and examination on Ralph with a high medical decision making complexity, the verified CPT code would be 99310.

What is CPT code?

CPT code is an abbreviation for current procedural terminology code and it can be defined as the set of numbers that are formally assigned to each task and service that is being offered by a healthcare provider.

Basically, a current procedural terminology (CPT) code is typically used by an insurer to determine the amount of money that should be paid to a healthcare provider for the services rendered.

Since Dr. Smith performed a comprehensive history and examination on Ralph, and the medical decision making is of high complexity, the verified CPT code would be 99310.

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A weight reducing diet required the daily intake of ‘liquid protein’[soup of hydrolyzed gelatin], water and an assortments of vitamins. All other food and drink were to be avoided. People on this diet typically lost 10 to 14kg in the first week. A number of persons on this diet died. What are some of the dangers inherent in the diet and how can they lead to death?

Answers

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

From the information given, it should be noted that Gelatin has a nutritional distribution of amino acids that's unbalanced.

It should be noted that in a scenario whereby large amounts of gelatin are ingested into the body such that there is catabolizing of the excess amino acids, there will be an excess of the urwa cycle capacity which then brings about ammonia toxicity.

Furthermore, the dehydration which can be caused due to the excretion of large amount of urea can also lead to death.

When the person is being fed through an intravenous central catheter, they are given _____________________ nutrition.

Answers

Total parenteral nutrition
- If they are ONLY being fed this way it would be referred to as Total parental nutrition. = TPN, is used when this is the only source of nutrition the patient is receiving. They're entirely dependent on TPN for all of their nutrition. It is primarily used to treat patients with digestive system disorders or patients who are recovering from a serious accident or surgery.

Parenteral nutrition is used to treat patients who cannot eat or have limited digestive powers by providing a liquid mixture of nutrients directly to the bloodstream. Parenteral nutrition is delivered intravenously to a vein and includes protein, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and any other nutrients required by the body.

Parenteral nutrition is different than enteral nutrition, which is the use of a feeding tube to provide nutrients directly to the stomach for digestion. Parenteral nutrition may be used if a feeding tube didn't work or if the patient suffers from conditions like Crohn's disease, cancer, short bowel syndrome, or ischemic bowel disease to list a few.

Mr. Barker enjoys a comfortable retirement income. He recently had surgery and expected that he would have certain services and items covered by the plan with minimal out-of-pocket costs because his MA-PD coverage has been very good. However, when he received the bill, he was surprised to see large charges in excess of his maximum out-of-pocket limit that included some services and items he thought would be fully covered. He called you to ask what he could do? What could you tell him?

Answers

Answer:

You can offer to review the plans appeal process to help him ask the plan to review the coverage decision.

Explanation:

Responses of the Mast cells to the allergen include/s a. All of the answers are correct b. Degranulation c. Secretion of lipid mediators d. Secretion of cytokines

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - A. All of the answers are correct.

Explanation:

Mast cells are the cells that are present on connective tissue. These cells have many garnules that are filled with histamin and heparin that play role in first line immune response against allergens. Degranuation is the process of releasing these granules.

Other than this mast cells or mastocytes also secrete lipid mediators and cytokines. These are activated and secreted in presence of allergen or anaphalyxis response.

Porque estoy vivo?
En este mundo

Answers

Answer:

Porque tus padres querían hijos so hicieron el sexo

Explanation:

sexo

Martha Wembly has a history of diabetes mellitus, type 2. How is this different from diabetes mellitus, type 1

Answers

Answer and explanation:

Diabetes Mellitus is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia), if not properly controlled this disease can severely damage many organs and cause death.

There are different types of Diabetes Mellitus, Type 1, Type 2, and Gestational (this type of diabetes, in particular, is unique to pregnant women).

In a healthy body, when blood sugar levels are high (for example, right after we eat), Insulin would be released from the pancreatic beta-cells to induce the entering of glucose (also called sugar) into different tissues such as skeletal muscle and fat, where it will be used to produce energy and store the excess for when the body needs it.

Patients that suffer from Diabetes Mellitus cannot get the glucose they ingest into the mentioned tissues, and for that reason, the blood sugar levels stay high and can produce several life-threatening consequences. This incapacity can have different roots and is the reason behind the classification of this condition.

Type 1 Diabetes is the most uncommon of the two and it appears for the first time during childhood or teenage years. Patients with type 1 Diabetes CANNOT produce Insulin, because their pancreatic beta-cells are deficient. For this reason, these individuals have to be administered exogenous Insulin for the rest of their lives.

Type 2 Diabetes is, by far, the most common type of Diabetes. Unlike type 1 diabetics, these patients can produce glucose, but the combination between genetic predisposal and unhealthy habits such as poor diets or sedentarism can lead to a condition called Insulin resistance, in which the tissues cannot accept the glucose even if there's Insulin around. This type of Diabetes usually starts manifesting during adulthood (especially in patients that are older than 40 years old) and is treated with specific medication and a change in their habits.

susan oster, 45, is admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 38.5 degrees c, heart rate 102 beats/min, respiration 20/mm with septicemia and sirs. her wbc is 12,500. documentation states acute respiratory and acute hepatic failure are due to septicemia. which icd-10-cm codes are assigned

Answers

Question Completion with Options:

A) R65.20, A41.9, 196.00, K72.00

B) A41.9, R65.20, 396.00, K72.00

C) K72.00.A41.9,196.00, R65.20

D) R65.20, K72.00, A41.9,196.00

Answer:

Susan Oster, 45

The correct ICD-10-CM codes are:

A) R65.20, A41.9, 196.00, K72.00

Explanation:

The ICD-10 means the International Classification of Diseases 10th Revision as published by the World Health Organization.  The correct medical codes show the underlying condition (symptoms), followed by the etiology (specific causes of disease), the findings, disease types, and degrees of severity for Susan Oster, 45.  The vital signs in the patent's readings include the temperature reading, heartbeat rate, respiration rate, and the first diagnosis before laboratory tests are carried out to confirm or disprove the first diagnosis.

Cancer Diabetes Heart Disease Osteoporosis Stroke Take at least one of the disease risk assessments. Write at least 300 words describing the results and what you learned. Submit your assignment using the My Disease Risk Factors link above. This assignment is due by midnight Sunday night.

Answers

Answer:

don't konw sorrrry>>>>>>>>>>>>

Explanation:

54.Uterine subinvolution after normal delivery may occur as a
result of:
a. Vaginal infection
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Gastroenteritis
d. Endometritis

Answers

It is the Endometriosis

Mrs. Mendoza, who has had type 2 diabetes for 17 years, had a below-the-knee amputation of her gangrenous left foot. Her electronic health record indicates that she has had peripheral neuropath, diabetic retinopathy with loss of visual acuity, gastroparesis, and two previous hospitalizations for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome. The two basic components of type 2 diabetes are _________. (select all that apply)

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - Type 2 diabetes mellitus has major components: insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion.

Explanation:

In type 2 diabetes there are two major components that play an important role to cause this that are Insulin resistance in which insulin could not bind with the specific receptors that result in less effective at stimulating glucose uptake.

The other major component is impaired insulin secretion in which an increased amount of insulin is required that there is not enough insulin to prevent the breakdown of fats and production of ketones.

Calculate the dose of acetaminophen for a 3-year-old child with the body surface area of 0.30 m2. The adult dose of the drug is 500 mg. Record your answer using a whole number. _____mg

Answers

Answer:

87 mg

Explanation:

To find the dose of acetaminophen for a 3-year-old child with the body surface area of 0.30 m², we use the formula given below

Child dose = child surface area/1.73 × adult dose

Given that the child surface area = 0.30 m² and the adult dose = 500 mg,

Child dose = child surface area/1.73 × adult dose

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

Child dose = child surface area/1.73 × adult dose

Child dose =  0.30 m²/1.73 × 500 mg

Child dose = 0.1734 × 500 mg

Child dose = 86.71 mg

Child dose = 87 mg to the nearest whole number

Barbara is admitted to Healthwise Hospital for a procedure. This is her first visit/admission to this facility. She is assigned a new health record number for this first visit. If she is admitted or is seen at this hospital again, she will be assigned a new health record number and her old record will be brought forward and filed under the new number. This method of numbering is called _____ numbering.

Answers

Answer:

Healthwise Hospital

This method of numbering is called __serial unit___ numbering.

Explanation:

The best way to illustrate this serial unit numbering system is to use the following example. Rafael is registered for the first time in Healthwise Hospital for a medical procedure and he receives the number HH136501.  When he comes for a follow-up a month later he is registered again under a new medical record number HH140203 while his previous medical file(s) are brought forward. This continues to happen with each new visit. This system contrasts with serial numbering.  Serial numbering involves new numbers being assigned at each visit without reference to previous files. Serial unit numbering also contrasts with unit numbering, where only one number is assigned to a patient in this hospital.

Nursing students in a community health nursing course identified toxic waste disposal to be a major problem in their community. The instructor recognizes the students understand the appropriate approach to handle the situation by conducting which type of assessment

Answers

Answer: problem oriented

Explanation:

The options include:

a. comprehensive

b. problem oriented

c. familiarization

d. community subsystem

Based on the information given, the assessment conducted is a problem oriented assessment. This is an assessment whereby a particular problem is thoroughly assessed and the areas that aren't related to the problem isn't covered.

In this case, the instructor recognizes the students understand the appropriate approach to handle the situation by conducting the problem oriented assessment.

Answer: trouble orientated

Explanation:

The alternatives include:

a. complete b. trouble orientated

c. familiarization

d. network subsystem

Based at the data given, the evaluation carried out is a trouble-orientated evaluation. This is an evaluation wherein a specific trouble is very well assessed and the regions that are not associated with the trouble is not covered.

In this case, the trainer acknowledges the scholars recognize the correct technique to address the state of affairs via way of means of carrying out the trouble-orientated evaluation.

What is health?

Health is the state of being active and fit. Your body and other organs also work properly.

Thus it is clear that it is explained above.

To know more about health refer to the link :

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Meredith in labor for the first time she had a normal pregnancy and good prenatal care labor preceded normal until she was dilated to 4 cm since that point no progress has taken place it has been 12 hours meredith is tired and frustrated the fetus demonstrates no stress as of yet meredith is scheduled for a c-section

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

A C-section scheduled for Meredith is best for her. A dilation of 4cm can't proceed with normal labor. Being in labor for 12 hours is dangerous for the mother and fetus. Even if the fetus demonstrates no stress yet, it is safer to have a C-section for Meridith to keep the mother and fetus in good status.

A 40-year-old male vegetarian is diagnosed with folate deficiency anemia. He reports that he is an alcoholic. Which of the following factors put him at greatest risk for developing his disease? a. Being vegetarian b. Being alcoholic c. Age d. Gender

Answers

hid gender

because he was diagnosed for folate deficiency anemia

I can't find the descriptions online. Whats epidermal acanthosis, papillary dermal fibrosis, and parakeratosis? It did say parakeratosis is from lack of zinc but it didn't describe what it WAS.

Answers

Answer:

Acanthosis (thick skin) in chronic eczema. Parakeratosis and a (usually superficial) perivascular lymphohistiocytic infiltrate. Excoriation and signs of rubbing (irregular acanthosis and perpendicular orientation of collagen in dermal papillae) in chronic cases (lichen simplex).

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Candidacy is the beginning of a firefighter's career.
False
O True
Pleasee help me

Answers

The answer would be False !!!!!!!!!!!!!!

The _______ is the muscular wall that makes up the bulk of the heart. The _______ ventricle is the thicker and larger ventricle. The atrium and ventricle of each side are connected by a/an _______valve. A single cardiac cycle consists of the simultaneous contractions of both _______ followed by the simultaneous contractions of both _______. The heart supplies blood to itself via _______ arteries. Contraction of the ventricles (and relaxation of the atria) is called _______, whereas relaxation of the ventricles is called _______. The heart pumps blood to the lungs for oxygenation via the pulmonary _______.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - myocardium, left, cuspid, atria, ventricles, coronary, diastole, systole, arteries.

Explanation:

The myocardium is a cardiac muscle that makes the wall of the heart chambers, the left ventricles are thicker than the right ventricles, the cuspid valves and connects the chambers of each side.

Cardiac cycles are diastolic and systolic cycles that are contractions of ventricle and atria in a simultaneous pattern of 0.08 seconds.

Answer:

1. myocardium

2. left

3. atrioventricular

4. atria, ventricles

5. coronary

6. systole, diastole

7. artery

8. Deoxygenated or bad blood mixed with waste gasses and chemicals is collected from throughout the body via veins and brought back to the heart. Then the heart pumps the impure/deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation via pulmonary arteries. Pure/oxygenated blood is delivered back to the heart via pulmonary veins. Then oxygenated blood is supplied throughout the body via arteries, including to the heart itself via coronary arteries.

Explanation:

PENN FOSTER

Another form of fibrous connective tissue of the body that covers, connects or supports other tissues is called?

Answers

Fibrous connective tissues (figure 1) are the most diverse type of connective tissue. They are also called fibroconnective tissue or connective tissue proper. Reticular fibers are the third type of protein fiber found in connective tissues. This fiber consists of thin strands of collagen that form a network of fibers to support the tissue and other organs to which it is connected.

Which of the following Body types will have an ad in FLATED BMI

Answers

Extremely muscular because muscles weigh a lot, more than fat.

If a person’s diet includes a lot of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruits or vegetables, failing to meet recommended intakes of ______ is likely.

Answers

Answer:

potassium

Explanation:

Got it right on the test.

If a person's diet consists primarily of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruit and vegetables, he or she is more likely to fall short of meeting recommended potassium intakes, as fresh foods are high in potassium.

What are the roles of the ions in the body?

The ions' role is important for the body as they maintain equilibrium in the body and there are many ions such as sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, etc., and if an ionic imbalance is attained in the body, many diseases are seen and the body's homeostasis is affected. In general, eating green vegetables and natural foods balances the ions, whereas eating processed foods creates an imbalance due to the high sodium content of preservative products.

Hence, if a person's diet consists primarily of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruit and vegetables, he or she is more likely to fall short of meeting recommended potassium intakes, as fresh foods are high in potassium.

Learn more about the roles of ions in the body by clicking here.

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The question is incomplete; the complete question is below.

If a person's diet includes a lot of processed foods and not a lot of fresh fruits or vegetables, failing to meet recommended intakes of _____ is likely. 

A. Sodium 

B. Chloride 

C. Potassium 

D. Calcium

a nurse is teaching a pt about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer, what statement should the nurse include in the teaching

Answers

Answer:

you should avoid eating red meat prior to testing

Explanation:

A fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) is a cost-effective, non-invasive method for colon cancer screening, which can be used in asymptomatic patients. The FOBT test is used to identify hidden blood in stool samples, which may be indicative of colon cancer and the presence of polyps in the colon/rectum. It has been shown that screening by FOBT can significantly reduce mortality from colorectal cancer. Two days before the FOBT test, it is imperative to avoid red meats and other foods (e.g., beets, carrots, cauliflower, cucumbers, grapefruit, broccoli, cantaloupe, etc), which might lead to false alarms.

Mr. Barker enjoys a comfortable retirement income. He recently had surgery and expected that he would have certain services and items covered by the plan with minimal out-of-pocket costs because his MA-PD coverage has been very good. However, when he received the bill, he was surprised to see large charges in excess of his maximum out-of-pocket limit that included some services and items he thought would be fully covered. He called you to ask what he could do? What could you tell him?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - You can offer to review the plan's appeal process to help him ask the plan to review the coverage decision.

Explanation:

Mr. Barker received the bill and there is an excess of the maximum out-of-pocket limit that is a limit a person has to pay for covered medical care services.

As he asked what he could do, you could explain that there are several plans he could review all the plans appeal process and to as well help him to ask the issue, benefits of each plan to review. Explaining and reviewing plans and coverage will help a person to makes decisions about their benefits including the amount they have to pay for their medical services plan.

3. A 12-year-old child experiences high fever and chills. He also says that his heart feels like its pounding. Two weeks before these symptoms, the child fell off his bike and skinned his knee. This child also has a history of a heart murmur. What disease should be considered and what is the treatment

Answers

Answer:

The child seems to have an infective endocarditis probably because of the skinned knee which could have acted as a route for transmission into the body and reaching the heart and causing infection leading to increased in body temperature with chills(typical signs), pounding or rapid heart rate. This also exhibits an abnormal heart murmur .It can found in children if they have some skin injury.

Treatment:

-Antipyretics to reduce temperature

-Antibiotics to treat infection

-Skin hygiene to prevent entry of bacteria via open end

-Daily dressing as per need to prevent

-multiplication and growth of microorganisms

Overcoming challenges to cultural competence in research requires that: (Check ALL that apply)

Answers

Answer: • Investigators examine and understand of historical contexts for study populations before initiating research study design.

• Early-phase study design should take into account race, ethnicity and cultural factors.

• IRB membership should include representatives of large communities and cultural groups as representatives.

Explanation:

Cultural competence in research refers to the ability of researchers to provide high quality research whereby the culture and the diversity of the population is taken into account during the development of the research ideas and when conducting the research.

The requirements for cultural competence include:

• Investigators examine and understand of historical contexts for study populations before initiating research study design.

• Early-phase study design should take into account race, ethnicity and cultural factors.

• IRB membership should include representatives of large communities and cultural groups as representatives.

difference between action potential of sa node and contractile myocytes​

Answers

Different groups of cells depolarize at different rates. The rate of depolarization of SA node cells is faster than the rate of depolarization of AV node cells. ... If both the SA node and AV node fail, the Purkinje fibers have a modest level of automaticity (20 beats/minute) that may still reach threshold

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