Stock price is $150. You see an at-the-money call option trading at $15, and at-the-money put trading at $5. The options have the same expiration date. You decide to buy a straddle. What will be the breakeven points of the strategy, i.e., at what stock prices will your profit will be exactly zero?a. Two breakeven points, S* = 145 and S* = 165b. Two breakeven points, S* = 135 and S* = 155c. One breakeven point, S* = 150d. Two breakeven points, S* = 130 and S* = 170

Answer:

Expected market return = 17%

Explanation:

Given the Jump master’s beta = 1.50

Risk free rate = 2%

Market risk premium  = 10%

To find the expected return we have to use the below formula.

Expected market return = Riskfree rate + Beta × Market risk premium

Now insert all the values in order to get the expected market return.

Expected market return = 2 + 1.50 × 10

Expected market return = 17%

Answer:

C. nonstructured

Explanation:

-Recurring decision refers to a decision that has to be made regularly.

-Ad hoc decision refers to a decision made for a specific situation.

-Nonstructured decision is a decision that can have multiple solutions that are correct and you don't have a form to define which one is the right option.

-Structured decision is when you make a decision using a process that has been established to manage a specific situation.

According to this, the answer is that in a(n) nonstructured decision, there may be several "right" answers, and there is no precise way to get a right answer.

Answer:

true

Explanation:

when two opponents with equal power are committed to mutually exclusive goals then they have to reach a compromise.in a compromise, either of these two parties having a conflict would be willing to give up something to reach an agreement. The needs of both sides would be balanced, as both sides would have to make sacrifices. This makes it a lose-lose approach to conflict resolution for either parties involved. A compromise has to be reached for important goals to be achieved.

Answer:

PV= $61,759.80

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Future value (FV)= $83,000

Number of years (n)= 10 years

Interest rate (i)= 3% compounded annually

To calculate the initial deposit, we need to use the following formula:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 83,000 / (1.03^10)

PV= $61,759.80

Answer:

A) The assessment does not follow a normal distribution

B ) P(r<0) = 0.2546 ( from standard normal table ),     P( r > 0.16 ) ≠ 0.15

Explanation:

Expected return on portfolio  E (r) = 8%

Standard deviation (STD) = 12%

chances of Negative return  P(r < 0 )  = 25%

calculate the probabilities for a normal distribution

E (r) = 0.08 , STD = 0.12,  P(r < 0 ) = 0.25

P( r > 0.16 ) = 0.15

calculating the value of the probability  P(r < 0 )

P(r < 0 ) = P [tex](Z < \frac{0-E(r)}{STD} )[/tex]

              = P ( Z <  [tex]\frac{0-0.08}{0.12}[/tex] )

              = P ( Z < - 0.667 )

P(r<0) = 0.2546 ( from standard normal table )

calculating the value of the  probability P( r > 0.16 )

P( r > 0.16 ) = [tex]P ( Z > \frac{0.16- E(r)}{STD})[/tex]

                  = P ( Z > [tex]\frac{0.16-0.08}{0.12}[/tex] )

                  = P ( Z > 0.667 )

to compare if p(r>0.16 ) is = 0.15

 P(R > 0.16 ) = 1 - P ( Z < 0.667 )

                    = 1 - 0.7454 ( value from standard normal table )

                    = 0.2546

hence P( r > 0.16 ) ≠ 0.15

The assessment does not follow a normal distribution

Answer:

2550

Explanation:

The HHI is calculated by squaring the market share of each firm in the industry.

40² + 20² + 15² + 15² + 10² = 1600 + 400 + 225 + 225 + 100 = 2550

Answer: d. $36,400; $1700 F; $500 U

Explanation:

1. Standard fixed overhead cost allocated to​ production

= Standard Hours * Standard rate per machine hour

= 2,600 * 14

= $36,400

2.  Fixed overhead budget​ variance

= Budget overhead cost - Actual overhead cost

= 36,900 - 35,200

= $1,700 favorable

3. Fixed Overhead Volume Variance

= Standard fixed overhead cost - Budgeted overhead

= 36,400 - 36,900

= -$500

= $500 Unfavorable

Answer:

a) Defects Per Million Opportunity

Explanation:

DPMO is an acronym which stands for Defects Per Million Opportunity. Defects per Million Opportunities refers to a standard metric which represents the number of defects in a process per one million opportunities.

In order to calculate the DPMO, we divide the number of defects by the number of opportunities and then multiply by a million.

Additionally, when a quality characteristics or properties do not tally with a standard or specifications it is generally referred to as a defect.

Hence, in a six sigma approach to quality or level of performance, the defects per million opportunities (DPMO) is 3.4.

Answer:

Allocated MOH=  140,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The budgeted variable manufacturing overhead is $5 per direct labor-hour

The budgeted fixed manufacturing overhead is $95,000 per mont

The budgeted direct labor time for November is 9,000 hours

To allocate overhead, we need to use the following formula:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= (5*9,000) + 95,000

Allocated MOH=  140,000

Answer:

Annual depreciation= $16,000

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Purchase price= $44,000

Useful life= 5 years

Salvage value= $4,000

To calculate the depreciation expense under the double-declining balance, we need to use the following formula:

Annual depreciation= 2*[(book value)/estimated life (years)]

Annual depreciation= 2*[(44,000 - 4,000) / 5]

Annual depreciation= 16,000

Answer:

A more established company may find it difficult to implement an enterprise-wide, customer-centric culture due to the following reasons:

A) Existence of a Multi-Product Business Model

A business entity that is well established with a lot of years under its belt will find it a tough challenge to shift from a product-oriented business model to a customer-oriented business model.

To be product-focused simply means that that a company has woven its organisational structure around products. For examples, a company that is into the gaming business may have teams for their Sports Betting Section, another for their online gaming section, game hardware section, gaming apps section etc.

First, for these various teams, their performance metric will largely depend on how functionally efficient their products are.  

Second, techy or geeky staff are seldom efficient when it comes to emotional intelligence - a key requirement for being customer efficient.

One way to handle this is to ensure that there is a central Customer Relationship Management team that oversees the customers for each product.

B) Organisational Inflexibility

As direct to the point as it sounds, getting market intelligence for with the intention to use them for decision making is challenging. What is tougher is the ability to implement the insights from such intelligence to effect a turn around in the way customers perceive and respond to a company's offerings.

The ability to quickly take gather market intel, agree on a strategic direction based on same and execute can be referred to organisational agility.  

The more bureaucratic and hierarchical an organisation is (this, by the way, characterises older and more established business systems) the less agile it is likely to be.

Cheers!

Answer:

total contribution margin = $579,000

operating income = $277,000

average contribution margin ratio = 48.33%

break even sales volume = $624,870.68

Explanation:

Product A: Sales $466,000; Contribution Margin Ratio 30%

Product B: Sales $732,000; Contribution Margin Ratio 60%

Mix's fixed expenses are $302,000

total contribution margin = ($466,000 x 30%) + ($732,000 x 60%) = $139,800 + $439,200 = $579,000

weighted contribution margin = (466/1198 x 30%) + (732/1198 x 60%) = 11.67% + 36.66% = 48.33%

break even sales volume = $302,000 / 48.33% = $624,870.68

operating income = $579,000 - $302,000 = $277,000

Answer:

The amount this company would report under cash flows from financing activities is $60,600.

Explanation:

These cash flows of $60,600 represent the actual cash outflows, an amount that bondholders would receive from the company in retirement of the bonds.  The statement of cash flows records the actual cash inflows and outflows of a company transactions during a particular accounting period.  Every item is adjusted to reflect the actual cash flows.  It is strictly based on the Cash Basis of accounting instead of the accrual basis.

Answer:

A. Involve businesses developing attractive electronic marketplaces to entice customers and sell products and services to consumers.

Explanation:

The Business to Consumer (B2C) sales strategy corresponds to a type of sale aimed at the final consumer. This sale takes place at retail, and occurs according to the consumer purchase decision process, which identifies their needs, judges the options according to their preferences and desires and finally chooses the option that best suits their search for a particular product or service.

Therefore, in the B2C strategy, retail companies have as main objective to create in the consumer the desire for a purchase, so the most appropriate option for this issue is that developing attractive electronic markets will help the company to attract customers and sell products and services to consumers.

Answer: B. Jobs can be mastered quickly.

Explanation:

Job specialization is when the employees in an organization focuses and concentrates on one particular aspect in a organization. Specialization makes employees more efficient and also effective at their role.

Also, jobs can be mastered quickly since the employees typically focuses on one particular aspect in the organization.

Answer and Explanation:

The Preparation of horizontal analysis for 2022 using 2021 as the base year is prepared with the help of a spreadsheet.

Horizontal analysis is a method for the analysis of financial statements that indicates fluctuations in the amount of the related products over a period of time. It is a valuable instrument for determining trend situations.

So, with the help of the spreadsheet, we will be able to find the net income by using the formulas.

The horizontal analysis of the Income Statement is the analytical form of preparing the income statement to determine the accurate amount and percentage of changes in each item of the income statement.

The horizontal income statement is attached below.

The horizontal analysis determines the change in the amounts of each account. The percentage change is the division of a change in amount by the base amount of the base year.

In this case, the base year was 2021.

Therefore, the change in amounts will be determined based upon the figures of the base year.

To know more about horizontal analysis, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/14698328

Answer:

Pick-up Later:

Set a pickup date

Process the transaction

Place all the items in the pickup area near the front of the store

Place a note on the items indicating they are sold.

Explanation:

The purpose of the above procedure is to enable the customer to take delivery of purchased goods hitch-free.  The pick-up area needs to be covered against rain so that the mulch and topsoil do not degrade.  It is assumed that the customer's contact information and payment have been secured before the arrangement for pick-up later.

Answer:

D. Marketing mix.

Explanation:

Marketing mix refers to the choices about product attributes, distribution strategy, communication strategy, and pricing strategy that a firm offers its targeted markets.

Generally, a marketing mix is made up of the four (4) Ps;

1. Products: this is typically the goods and services that gives satisfaction to the customer's needs and wants. They are either tangible or intangible items.

2. Price: this represents the amount of money a customer buying goods and services are willing to pay for it.

3. Place: this represents the areas of distribution of these goods and services for easier access by the potential customers.

4. Promotions: for a good sales record or in order to increase the number of people buying a product and taking services, it is very important to have a good marketing communication such as advertising, sales promotion, direct marketing etc.

Answer:

No,  as the net present value comes in negative

Explanation:

As we know that

Net present value = Present value of cash inflows - Initial investment

where,

Present value os $163,000

And, the initial investment is $180,000

Now placing these values to the above formula

So, the net present value is

= $163,000 - $180,000

= -$17,000

Therefore the company should not accept the project as net present value is in negative that is -$17,000

Answer:

When the Fed raises the federal funds rate, the inflation rate decreases about two years later.

Explanation:

When trying to stimulate the economy either by increasing or decreasing, policymakers have to take into consideration how it would effect interest rate, amount of money available in the economy, loans that would be acquired by banks and the behavior of interest rate.

Interest rate can be impacted quickly even though the period of time it would take for such action to have a reflection on what quantity of money is available in the economy. Then also a period of 2 years would be taken for this action to take effect on inflation.

Therefore

When the Fed raises the federal funds rate, the inflation rate decreases about two years later.

Answer:

Total Quality Management

Explanation:

Total Quality Management is an approach in which all the employees of the company work to improve the entire process to offer a good customer experience. According to this, the answer is that the term that means managing the entire organization so that it excels on all dimensions of products and services that are important to customers is Total Quality Management.

Answer:

The printing press.

Explanation:

The printing press and its form of works are known to be an early age form that have been used and still in use for advertising. Advertisements of this form are seen in form of newspapers or magazines and are sometimes included as brochures or fliers. Write ups used in the print media to grab the attention of the specific target audience comes under the purview of print advertising.

Newspapers readers and also other publications methods have a tendency to browse the print ads that they come across. Moves to purchase these products could possibly not be instantaneous, but it does settle down in their subconscious mind. Next time they see the product in the market, they are tempted to buy it.

Answer:

Dr Discount on BP 8,000

Cr Cash 592,000

Cr Bond payable 600,000

Dr Interest expense 15,333.33

Cr Interest payable 15,000

Cr Discount on BP 333.33

Dr Interest payable 15,000

Dr interest expense 3,066.67

Cr Cash 18,000

Cr Discount on BP 333.33

Explanation:

Preparation of the general journal entry to record the interest accrued at December 31, 2010.

Based on the information given we were told that the company issues bonds with a par value of the amount of $600,000 in which the bonds mature in 10 years with a 6% annual interest and sold at the amount of $592,000 this means that the transaction will be recorded as:

Dr Discount on BP 8,000

(600,000-592,000)

Cr Cash 592,000

Cr Bond payable 600,000

(To record issuance of the bonds)

Dr Interest expense 15,333.33

Cr Interest payable 15,000 (600,000 x 6% x 5/12 )

Cr Discount on BP 333.33

(8,000 / (10years* 2 payment =400*5/6=333.33)

(To record year end adjustment entry)

Dr Interest payable 15,000

(600,000 x 6% x 5/12 )

Dr interest expense 3,066.67

(600,000 x 6% x 1/12=3,000)

(400 - 333.33= 66.67)

(3,000+66.67=3,066.67)

Cr Cash 18,000

(600,000 x 6% x 6/12)

Cr Discount on BP 333.33

(8,000 / (10years* 2 payment =400*5/6=333.33)

(To record first interest payment to bondholders)

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

Decision Tree Analysis is a form or type of quantitative risk assessment tool and techniques that involves a diagram that indicates the significances of choosing one or other alternatives.

In other words, the purpose of the tool is to assist you to select between several courses of action.

For example, lines are drawn towards the right for each possible solution, and then the solution is written along the line. Then evaluation of each alternative can be easily considered.

On the other hand, Monte Carlo Analysis is also a form or type of quantitative risk assessment tools and techniques that utilizes optimistic, most probable, and cynical estimates to infer the total project cost and project completion dates.

For example, an estimate of the probability of completing a project at a cost of $100M can be carried out using Monte Carlo Analysis

x

Answer:

So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.

Explanation:

To calculate how many dollars worth of sales are generated by $1 of total assets, we use the total assets turnover ratio. It is an accounting measure that measures the efficiency of the company's assets in generating sales. It calculates the dollar values of sales generated by each $1 of total assets. The formula for total assets turnover is,

Total Assets Turnover = Sales / Average Total Assets

We already know the level of sales. We need to determine the value of total assets first.

Total Assets = Fixed assets + Current Assets

As we know that net working capital = current assets - current liabilities,

So, the current assets are,

2715 = Current assets - 3908

2715 + 3908 = Current assets

Current assets = $6623

Total assets = 6623 + 22407

Total assets = $29030

Total Assets Turnover = 31350 / 29030

Total assets turnover = 1.0799 rounded off to 1.08

So, from every $1 of total assets, $1.08 worth of sales are generated.

Answer: The minimizing the imbalance in the workloads among workstations.

Explanation:

Workspace can inspire informal and productive encounters if it balances what three physical and social aspects.

Answer:

Two challenges that Salesforce may face today:

1. Competitions

2. Cash Flows

Explanation:

1. Salesforce has been the global Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) provider for Customer Relationship Management (CRM) system. However, they are challenged by new market joiners such as Hubspot. There are also new startups offering free and simple cloud-based CRM systems that targetting small businesses. The entry of the new competitors seriously threatens the leading market share of Salesforce.

2. The current pandemic affected negatively to all enterprises, including Salesforce's outstanding customers. They should expect a drop in their total number of fee payers while the cost to maintain their high product standard is still the same as before. It may give them a lot of working capital headaches.

Answer:

1. Present value in pound=$23,752,969

Dollar equivalent=$46,073,634

2.Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$48,952,500

Present value in pound=$46,072,918

Explanation:

1a.Calculation for present value of the £25 million cash flow

Using this formula

Present value in pound =cash flow*(1/1+Cash flow cost of capital)^ One year in the future

Let plug in the formula

Present value in pound=$25,000,000*(1/1+0.0525)^1

Present value in pound=$25,000,000*(1/1.0525)^1

Present value in pound=$25,000,000*0.950119

Present value in pound=$23,752,969

1b.Calculation for the dollar equivalent of this amount

Using this formula

Dollar equivalent=Present value in pound*Spot exchange rate

Let plug in the formula

Dollar equivalent=$23,752,969*$1.9397

Dollar equivalent=$46,073,634

2a. Calculation for the Dollar equivalent for U.S investors

Using this formula

Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=Cash flow*one-year forward rate

Let plug in the formula

Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$25,000,000*$1.9581

Dollar equivalent for U.S investors=$48,952,500

2b. Calculation for the present value of the £25 million cash flow from the standpoint of a U.S. investor .

Using this formula

Present value in pound =Cash flow*(1/1+Cash flow cost of capital)^ One year in the future

Let plug in the formula

Present value in pound=$48,952,500*(1/1.0625)^1

Present value in pound=$48,952,500*0.941176

Present value in pound=$46,072,918

Therefore the Present value in pound for question 1 is $23,752,969 while the Dollar equivalent is $46,073,634.

The Dollar equivalent for U.S investors in question 2 is $48,952,500 while the Present value in pound is $46,072,918

Answer:

Explanation:

To learn more about IT careers or just carriers in general, one can contact the Career counselor at school. Their job is to help students find out more abut careers so that they know which path they would like to follow.

One can also attend information sessions where they can listen to people speak on IT careers and ask questions they would like answers to as well.

A practical way to find out about IT careers is to intern at an IT firm. This way you get to see first hand what the job entails and if it is the kind of thing you would like to do.

There are also professional organizations that offer certifications in IT such as CompTIA. As they are well versed in the area, they can provide more information on IT careers including the educational background required.

Answer:

1. Scheduling an appointment with a career counselor at school.

2. Attending an informational session.

3. Applying for an internship

5. Contacting a professional organization, such as CompTIA.

Explanation: This is the correct answer on Edge 2021, just did the assignment. Hope this helps ^-^.

Answer:

January 1, 2020

Bonds Payable                                          1600000 Dr

Loss on Redemption of bonds                 36800 Cr

     Discount on Bonds Payable                        4800 Cr

     Cash                                                              1632000 Cr

Explanation:

The redemption of bonds before the maturity usually requires a payment for redemption which is a certain percentage of its face value. It is usually higher than the face value. The above bonds are redeemed at 102 which means at 102% of the face value of the bonds. Thus, the cash paid to redeem the bonds is,

Cash = 1600000 * 102%  =  1632000

The bonds have a carrying value, which is the face value less discount or add premium, of,

Carrying value = 1600000 - 4800  =  $1595200

If they are redeemed for an amount in excess of the carrying value, they are redeemed at a loss.

The loss on redemption is,

Loss = 1595200 - 1632000 = $36800