Answer:
$125,026
Explanation:
Common Shares 3,600
Fair value $20
Total market value of common stock $72,000
Preferred shares 5,600
Fair value $20
Total market value of preferred stock $112,000
Lump Sum amount $205,400
Amount of proceeds should be allocated to the preferred stock = 205,400 * (112,000 / (72,000 + 112,000) ) = $125,026
A portfolio to the right of the market portfolio on the CML is: Group of answer choices a lending portfolio. an inefficient portfolio. a borrowing portfolio.
Answer:
a borrowing portfolio.
Explanation:
A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.
CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.
Answer:
a borrowing portfolio.
Explanation:
A borrowing portfolio is a portfolio to the right of the market portfolio. It is on the right half of the line. It shows that an investor can purchase the market portfolio and still borrow money so as to purchase more.
CML is known as the the capital market line. It shows the most advantageous portfolios that are a combination of risk and return.
Explanation:
Brodrick Company expects to produce 21,200 units for the year ending December 31. A flexible budget for 21,200 units of production reflects sales of $508,800; variable costs of $63,600; and fixed costs of $142,000. Assume that actual sales for the year are $587,200 (26,300 units), actual variable costs for the year are $113,900, and actual fixed costs for the year are $137,000. Prepare a flexible budget performance report for the year.
Answer:
Flexible budget performance report for the year
Flexible budget Actual Variance Fav/Unf
Sales 631,200 587,200 44,000 UNF
Variable cost (78,900) (113,900) 35,000 F
Contribution 416,000 368,000 48,000 UNF
margin
Fixed cost (142,000) (137,000) 5000 UNF
Net operating 274,000 231,000 43,000 UNF
income
Working:
a. At flexible budget, selling price per unit = $508,800 / 21,200 = $24 per unit . Total sales =26,300 *24 = $631,200
b. Variable cost per unit = $63,600 / 21,200 = $3 per unit . Total cost = 3 * 26,300 = 78,900
ROI, Residual Income, and EVA with Different Bases Envision Company has a target return on capital of 12 percent. The following financial information is available for October ($ thousands):
Software Division . Consulting Division Venture Capital Division
(Value Base) (Value Base) (Value Base)
Book Current Book Current Book Current
Sales $100,000 $100,000 $200,000 $200,000 $800,000 $800,000
Income 12,250 11,700 16,400 20,020 56,730 51,920
Assets 70,000 90,000 100,000 110,000 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000 14,000 14,000 40,000 40,000
Required
a. Compute the return on investment using both book and current values for each division. Round answers to three decimal places.
Book Value Current Value
Software Answer ? Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
b. Compute the residual income for both book and current values for each division. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate.
Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer 3,850 $Answer 900
Consulting Answer 4,400 . Answer 6,820
Venture Capital Answer (16,470) Answer (1,880)
c. Compute the economic value added income for both book and current values for each division if the tax rate is 30 percent and the weighted average cost of capital is 10 percent. Use negative signs with answers, when appropriate. Book Value Current Value
Software $Answer ? $Answer ?
Consulting Answer ? Answer ?
Venture Capital Answer ? Answer ?
Answer:
a. ROI = income / Assets
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 0.175 0.13
Consulting Division 0.164 0.182
Venture Capital Division 0.093 0.088
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250/70,000=0.175
Consulting Division = 16,400/100,000=0.164
Venture Capital Division = 56,730/610,000 =0.093
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700/90,000=0.13
Consulting Division = 20,020/110,000=0.182
Venture Capital Division= 51,920/ 590,000=0.088
b. Residual income = Income - {Asset x Return on capital 12% }
Book Value Current Value
Software Division 3850 900
Consulting Division 4400 6820
Venture Capital Division -16470 -18880
Workings:
i. Book value
Software Division = 12,250-(70,000*12%)=3850
Consulting Division = 16,400-(100,000*12%)=4400
Venture Capital Division = 56,730-(610,000*12%) =-16470
ii. Current value
Software Division = 11,700-(90,000*12%)=900
Consulting Division = 20,020-(110,000*12%)=6820
Venture Capital Division= 51,920-(590,000*12%)=-18880
c. Economic Value Added ( EVA ) = Net Income After Tax - ( Amount of Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital [WACC] )
C. Software Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 100,000 100,000
Income 12,250 11,700
Assets 70,000 90,000
Liabilities 10,000 10,000
Capital invested 60,000 80,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 3675 3510
Income after Tax 8,575 8,190
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 6,000 8,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,575 190
Consulting Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 200,000 200,000
Income 16,400 20,020
Assets 100,000 110,000
Liabilities 14,000 14,000
Capital invested 86,000 96,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 4920 6006
Income after Tax 11,480 14,014
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 8,600 9,600
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) 2,880 4,414
Venture Capital Division
(Value Base)
Book Current
Sales 800,000 800,000
Income 56,730 51,920
Assets 610,000 590,000
Liabilities 40,000 40,000
Capital invested 570,000 550,000
(Asset - Liabilities)
Tax on Income(30%) 17019 15576
Income after Tax 39,711 36,344
(Income - Tax on
income) (A)
Capital invested 57,000 55,000
* WACC - 10% ) (B)
EVA (C)=(A)-(B) -17,289 -18,656
Which of the following methods is appropriate for a business whose inventory consists of a relatively small number of unique, high-cost items?
a. FIFO
b. average
c. LIFO
d. specific identification
Answer: Specific identification
Hope it is correct
In the consensus case, what is Amazon's enterprise value on the valuation date using the exit multiple terminal value
Answer:
The exit multiple expect that the market different premise is a reasonable strategy for esteeming a business. The estimation of the business is gotten by duplicating money related measurements, for example, EBITDA or EBIT by a factor that is basic to practically identical organizations that were as of late procured. A fitting scope of products can be created by taking a gander at late equivalent acquisitions in the open market.
The various acquired is then increased by the anticipated EBIT or EBITDA in year N (last year of projection period) to give the future incentive toward the finish of year N. The future value (otherwise called terminal value) is then limited by a factor equivalent to the quantity of years in the projection time frame.
The worth got is then added to the current estimation of the free incomes to acquire the suggested venture esteem. For repetitive organizations where profit vacillate as per varieties in the economy, we utilize the normal EBITDA or EBIT over the span of the particular recurrent as opposed to the sum in year N in the projection time frame.
This implies an industry different is applied as opposed to applying a current numerous to consider the recurrent varieties of profit. On the off chance that investigators utilized a current numerous, the valuation would be influenced by financial cycles.
A Enterprise Value (EV) to Revenue Multiple is used to value a business by dividing its enterprise value by its annual revenue. The formula to calculate the Enterprise Value (EV) to Revenue Multiple is EV/Revenue
EV = Enterprise Value
EV can be denoted as (Equity Value + All Debt + Preferred Shares) – (Cash and Equivalents)
While Revenue = Total Annual Revenue
This can be calculated when we have a share price, shares outstanding, debt, and cash or its equivalence.
Geese Company utilizes the LIFO retail inventory method. Its cost-to-retail percentage is 60% based on beginning inventory and 64% based on current-period purchases. The company determined that beginning inventory at retail was $200,000 and that during the current period a new layer was added with retail value of $50,000. The cost of ending inventory should be
Answer:
$152,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the cost of the ending inventory
First step is to calculate the cost-to-retail percentage of the beginning inventory amount
Using this formula
Beginning Inventory =Cost-to-retail percentage*Beginning inventory at retail
Let plug in the formula
Beginning Inventory =60%*$200,000
Beginning Inventory =$120,000
Second step is to calculate current-period purchases percentage of the new layer amount
Using this formula
Current period purchases= Purchases percentage* New layer
Let plug in the formula
Current period purchases=64%*50,000
Current period purchases=$32,000
The last step is to find the cost of the ending inventory using this formula
Ending inventory cost=Beginning Inventory+Current period purchases
Let plug in the formula
Ending inventory cost=$120,000+$32,000
Ending inventory cost=$152,000
Therefore the cost of the ending inventory will be $152,000
Using the following data on bond yields: This Year Last Year Yield on top-rated corporate bonds 4 % 7 % Yield on intermediate-grade corporate bonds 6 % 9 % a. Calculate the confidence index this year and last year.
Answer:
0.6667 ; 0.7778
Explanation:
Given the following :
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - this year - - - - last year
Top rated bond - - - - - 4% - - - - - - - - - 7%
Intermediate grade - - 6% - - - - - - - - - 9%
Confidence Index (This year) :
(Yield on top rated corporate bond / yield on intermediate grade corporate bond)
= 4% / 6% = 0.6667
Confidence index(last year) :
(Yield on top rated corporate bond / yield on intermediate grade corporate bond)
= 7% / 9% = 0.7778
A negative supply shock, such as the OPEC oil price increases of the early 1970s, can be illustrated by a shift to the ______________ of the short-run aggregate supply curve and a shift _________________ of the short-run Phillips curve.
Answer: Leftward; upwards.
Explanation: A Supply shock is a term used to describe the sudden and unexpected change in the supply of a given product or commodity usually indicated by the leftward shift if the shock is negative in the aggregate supply curve and an upward change in direction in the Phillips curve both on the short run. Both curves are used to demonstrate graphically the impacts of shifts in supply for a given product or commodity.
Neelon Corporation has two divisions: Southern Division and Northern Division. The following data are for the most recent operating period: Total Company Southern Division Northern Division Sales $ 418,000 $ 193,000 $ 225,000 Variable expenses $ 130,880 $ 79,130 $ 51,750 Traceable fixed expenses $ 186,000 $ 77,000 $ 109,000 Common fixed expense $ 79,420 $ 36,670 $ 42,750 The common fixed expenses have been allocated to the divisions on the basis of sales. What is the company's overall net operating income if it operates at the break-even points for its two divisions?
Answer:
Neelon Corporation
Total Company Southern Northern
Division Division
Sales $ 418,000 $ 193,000 $ 225,000
Variable expenses $ 130,880 $ 79,130 $ 51,750
Traceable fixed expenses $ 186,000 $ 77,000 $ 109,000
Common fixed expense $ 79,420 $ 36,670 $ 42,750
Net operating income $ 21,700 $200 $21,500
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Total Company Southern Northern
Division Division
Sales $ 418,000 $ 193,000 $ 225,000
Variable expenses $ 130,880 $ 79,130 $ 51,750
Traceable fixed expenses $ 186,000 $ 77,000 $ 109,000
Common fixed expense $ 79,420 $ 36,670 $ 42,750
Net operating income $ 21,700 $200 $21,500
Neelon Corporation reaches break-even point when it will make no profit or loss. This implies that its break-even point is reached when sales revenue equals both variable and fixed costs. The excess that Neelon Corporation generates from sales revenue over total costs is regarded as operating income.
Find the operating cash flow for the year for Harper Brothers, Inc. if it had sales revenue of , cost of goods sold of , sales and administrative costs of , depreciation expense of , and a tax rate of .
Answer:
$101,960,000
Explanation:
For the computation of operating cash flow first we need to follow some steps which are shown below:-
Step 1
EBIT = Sales - Cost of goods sold - Sales and administrative costs - Depreciation
= $302,100,000 - $135,900,000 - $39,600,000 - $65,000,000
= $61,600,000
Step 2
Net income = EBIT - Tax
= $61,600,000 - ($61,600,000 × 40%)
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000
= $36,960,000
and finally
Operating cash flow = EBIT - Taxes + Depreciation
= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000 + $65,000,000
= $101,960,000
Problem 9-18 Comprehensive Variance Analysis [LO9-4, LO9-5, LO9-6]
Miller Toy Company manufactures a plastic swimming pool at its Westwood Plant. The plant has been experiencing problems as shown by its June contribution format income statement below:
Flexible Budget Actual
Sales (3,000 pools) $ 179,000 $ 179,000
Variable expenses:
Variable cost of goods sold* 33,390 44,540
Variable selling expenses
11,000
11,000
Total variable expenses
44,390
55,540
Contribution margin
134,610
123,460
Fixed expenses:
Manufacturing overhead 50,000 50,000
Selling and administrative 75,000 75,000
Total fixed expenses
125,000
125,000
Net operating income (loss) $ 9,610 $
(1,540
)
*Contains direct materials, direct labor, and variable manufacturing overhead.
Janet Dunn, who has just been appointed general manager of the Westwood Plant, has been given instructions to "get things under control." Upon reviewing the plant’s income statement, Ms. Dunn has concluded that the major problem lies in the variable cost of goods sold. She has been provided with the following standard cost per swimming pool:
Standard Quantity or Hours Standard Price
or Rate Standard Cost
Direct materials 3.6 pounds $
2.00
per pound $ 7.20
Direct labor 0.5 hours $
6.60
per hour 3.30
Variable manufacturing overhead 0.3 hours* $
2.10
per hour
0.63
Total standard cost per unit $ 11.13
*Based on machine-hours.
During June the plant produced 3,000 pools and incurred the following costs:
Purchased 15,800 pounds of materials at a cost of $2.45 per pound.
Used 10,600 pounds of materials in production. (Finished goods and work in process inventories are insignificant and can be ignored.)
Worked 2,100 direct labor-hours at a cost of $6.30 per hour.
Incurred variable manufacturing overhead cost totaling $3,000 for the month. A total of 1,200 machine-hours was recorded.
It is the company’s policy to close all variances to cost of goods sold on a monthly basis.
Required:
1. Compute the following variances for June:
a. Materials price and quantity variances.
b. Labor rate and efficiency variances.
c. Variable overhead rate and efficiency variances.
2. Summarize the variances that you computed in (1) above by showing the net overall favorable or unfavorable variance for the month.
Answer:
1 a. Materials price and quantity variances.
Material price variance = (Actual price - Standard price) * Actual Quantity purchased
= ($2.45 - $2) * 15,800
= $0.45 * 15,800
= $7110 (Unfavorable)
Materials Quantity variance = (Actual Quantity used - Standard Quantity allowed) * Standard price
(10600 - 3000 * 3.6) * $2
= (10,600 - 10,800) * $2
= 200 * $2
= 400 (Favorable)
b. Labor rate and efficiency variances.
Labor rate variance = (Actual rate - standard rate) * Actual hours
= (6.30 - 6.6) * 2,100
= 0.3 * 2,100
= 630 (Favorable)
Labor Efficiency variance = (Actual hours - standard hours allowed) * Standard rate
= (2100 - 3000 * 0.5) * 6.6
= (2,100 - 1,500) * 6.6
= 600 * 6.6
= 3960 (Unfavorable)
c. Variable overhead rate and efficiency variances
Variable overhead rate variance = (Actual rate - Standard rate * Actual machine hours)
= 3000 - (2.10 * 1200)
= 3,000 - 2,520
= 480 Unfavorable
Variable overhead Efficiency variance = (Actual hours - standard hours allowed)* Standard rate
= (1200 - 3000 * 0.3) * 2.10
= (1200 - 900) * 2.10
= 300 * 2.10
= 630 (Unfavorable)
2. Variances Amount
Material price variance 7,110 U
Material quantity variance 400 F
Labor rate variance 630 F
Labor efficiency variance 3,960 U
Variable overhead rate variance 480 U
Variable overhead efficiency variance 630 U
Net variance 11,150 U
The net variance of all the variance of the month is 11,150 (Unfavorable)
What is another name for progress monitoring? a. Curriculum-based measurement c. Curriculum-based learning b. Assessment d. None of these
Answer:
Curriculum based measurement
Answer:
a. Curriculum-based measurement
It's correct
1. Noor Patel has had a busy year! She decided to take a cross-country adventure. Along the way, she won a new car on "The Price Is Right" (valued at $15,500) and won $500 on a scratch-off lottery ticket (the first time she ever played). She also signed up for a credit card to start the trip and was given a sign-up bonus of $100. How much will she have to include in her federal taxable income?
2A. What is the amount of taxes for a head of house hold with a taxable income of $57,500 with a rate of 25%?
B. What is the amount of taxes for a single person with a taxable income of $35,000 with a rate of 15%?
C. What is the amount of taxes for a married couple filling jointly with a taxable income of $70,700 with a rate of 15%?
Answer:
1. 16,100
Explanation:
To get how much she would include in her federal taxable income. We would have to add up these values:
The car won on the price is right + scratch off lottery + sign up bonus.
15,500 + 500 + 100
=$16,100
2a.
head of household
0 to 9275 at 10% = 927.5
(37650 - 9275)*15% = 4256.1
(57500 - 37650)*25% = 4962.5
total = 927.5 + 4256.1 + 4962.5
= 10146.1
2b
single person
0 to 9275 at 10% = 927.5
(35000-9275)*10% = 3858.75
total = 927.5 + 3858.75
= 4786.25
2c
for married couple
0 to 18550 at 10% = 1855
(70700-1855)*15% = 7822.5
total = 1855 + 7822.5
=9677.5
Assume you have a margin account with a 50% initial margin. You purchase 100 shares of stock at $80 per share. The price increases to $100 per share. What is the net value of your investment (margin) now
Answer:
Net value of the investment (margin) is $6,000
Explanation:
The initial margin = (100 shares * $80) * 50%
The initial margin = $4,000
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares* ($100-$80)
Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares * $20
Increase in the Margin value =$2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $4,000 + $2,000
Net value of the investment (margin) = $6,000
The two main types of e-commerce are
Answer:
B2B (Business to business) and B2C (Business to consumer)
On December 18, 2017, Stephanie Corporation acquired 100 percent of a Swiss company for 4.0 million Swiss francs (CHF), which is indicative of book and fair value. At the acquisition date, the exchange rate was $1.00 = CHF 1. On December 18, 2017, the book and fair values of the subsidiary’s assets and liabilities were:
Cash CHF 814,000
Inventory 1,314,000
Property, plant & equipment 4,014,000
Notes payable 2,128,000
Stephanie prepares consolidated financial statements on December 31, 2017. By that date, the Swiss franc has appreciated to $1.10 = CHF 1. Because of the year-end holidays, no transactions took place prior to consolidation.
Required:
a. Determine the translation adjustment to be reported on Stephanie’s December 31, 2017, consolidated balance sheet, assuming that the Swiss franc is the Swiss subsidiary’s functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this translation adjustment?
b. Determine the remeasurement gain or loss to be reported in Stephanie’s 2017 consolidated net income, assuming that the U.S. dollar is the functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss?
Answer:
a. Translation adjustment = $401,400
b. Remeasurement loss = –$131,400
Explanation:
a. Determine the translation adjustment to be reported on Stephanie’s December 31, 2017, consolidated balance sheet, assuming that the Swiss franc is the Swiss subsidiary’s functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this translation adjustment?
This can determined as follows:
Step 1: Calculation of beginning net asset in
Particular Amount (CHF)
Cash CHF 814,000
Inventory 1,314,000
Property, plant & equipment 4,014,000
Notes payable (2,128,000)
Beginning net asset 4,014,000
Beginning net asset in USD = Beginning net asset in Swiss francs (CHF) * Beginning exchange rate = CHF4.014,000 * $1 = $4,014,000
Step 2: Calculation of ending net asset
Ending net asset in USD = Beginning net asset in Swiss francs (CHF) * Ending exchange rate = CHF4.014,000 * $1.10 = $4,415,400
Step 3: Calculation translation adjustment
Translation adjustment = Ending net asset in USD - Beginning net asset in USD = $4,415,400 - $4,014,000 = $401,400
Economic relevance of this translation adjustment
The positive translation adjustment implies that the equity of stockholders has increased by $401,000.
We obtained a positive value because the net position of the subsidiary in Switzerland is CHF4,014,000 and there was a Swiss franc appreciation of $0.10 (i.e. $1.10 - $1.00 = $0.10).
The translation adjustment of $401,000 does not however implies that it was made as a dollar cash flow. The only condition that can make to turn to a profit is if this operation is sold at CHF4,014,000 on December 31 and the amount realized as a proceed is changed to dollars at ruling exchange rate of $1.10 to a Swiss franc on December 31, 2017.
b. Determine the remeasurement gain or loss to be reported in Stephanie’s 2017 consolidated net income, assuming that the U.S. dollar is the functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss?
This can be determined as follows:
Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc = Cash - Note payable = CHF814,000 - CHF2,128,000 = –CHF1,314,000
Beginning net liabilities in USD = Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc * Beginning exchange rate = –CHF1,314,000 * $1.00 = –$1,314,000
Ending net liabilities in USD = Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc * Ending exchange rate = –CHF1,314,000 * $1.10 = –$1,445,400
Remeasurement loss = Ending net liabilities in USD – Beginning net liabilities in USD = [–$1,445,400] – [–$1,314,000] = –$131,400
Economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss
There is a negative remeasurement or remeasurement lost because the net monetary liability position of the Swiss subsidiary is CHF 1,314,000. The appreciation of the Swiss franc by $0.10 results in a loss of $131,400] that not is unrealized.
The readjustment loss of $131,400 does not however implies that it was a dollar cash outflow. The only condition that can make it to turn to a loss is if this operation is sold on December 31. This will lead to the realization of a transaction gain of $81,400 [i.e. CHF814,000 x ($1.10 - $1.00)].
Also, the Swiss franc note payable will be paid off by using the US dollar. This will bring about the realization of a truncation loss of $212,800 [i.e. CHF2,128,000 x ($1.10 - $1.00)].
Gen-Fast Shoes wants to expand internationally and is deciding if its line of tennis shoes can be sold at a high price in Europe. One way for Gen-Fast Shoes to assess this is to determine whether these types of shoes in the foreign market offer customers greater.
a. cost.
b. exports.
c. value.
d. competition.
e. production.
Answer: value
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that Gen-Fast Shoes wants to expand internationally and is deciding if its line of tennis shoes can be sold at a high price in Europe.
One way for Gen-Fast Shoes to assess this is to determine whether these types of shoes in the foreign market offer customers greater value.
Value simply means the worth of something. When people realize that the tennis shoes are worth it, it'll command a high value.
An investment adviser representative's friend provides him with a list of 10 prospective clients. The representative agrees to pay his friend a referral fee for each person on the list that opens an account with the adviser. Which statement is TRUE
Answer: C. The arrangement is permitted only if it is in writing between the investment adviser and the friend and the arrangement is disclosed in writing to any customer opening an account
Explanation:
The friend in this case will be ruled to be a Solicitor under SEC Rules as they are referring clients to the Investment Adviser for a fee.
As such this business relationship between the friend and the Investment Adviser representative will fall under SEC Rule 206(4)-3 Cash payments for client solicitations. This rule makes it clear amongst other things that the investment adviser will have to prepare a written disclosure document which will inform any customer opening an account of the agreement between the adviser and his friend.
If the economy is normal, Charleston Freight stock is expected to return 16.5 percent. If the economy falls into a recession, the stock's return is projected at a negative 11.6 percent. The probability of a normal economy is 70 percent while the probability of a recession is 30 percent. What is the variance of the returns on this stock
Answer:
Variance of the returns of this stock is 0.01658177
Explanation:
Mean return = 0.7 * 16.5% + 0.3*-11.6%
Mean return = 0.1155 - 0.0348
Mean return = 0.0807
Mean return = 8.07%
Variance of the return = 0.7 * (16.5%-8.07%)^2 + 0.3 * (-11.6%-8.07%)^2
Variance of the return = 0.7 * (8.43%)^2 + 0.3 * (-19.67%)^2
Variance of the return = 0.7 * (0.0843)^2 + 0.3 * (-0.1967)^2
Variance of the return = 0.0049745 + 0.011607267
Variance of the return = 0.01658177
The ___________ incorporates a line receiver in order to convert the optical signal into the electrical regime.
a) Attenuator
b) Transmitter
c) Repeater
d) Designator
Answer: repeater
Explanation:
The attenuation is used to limits the maximum distance that occurs between an optical fiber transmitter and the receiver.
It should be noted that the repeater helps to incorporates a line receiver to convert the optical signal into the electrical regime.
Emira wants to buy a classic drawing from an art centre in Kuala Lumpur. She managed to secure a painting by a renowned Malaysian artist that costs her RM99,800. Currently, she only has RM12,650 in her savings account and she intends to use 70% of her saving to fund the purchase. If she borrows the remaining amount from Bank Atlantis that levies 4.77% of interest rates, determine the total interest payment that she will pay if the agreement takes 10 years of settlement.
Answer:
RM23,617.80
Explanation:
cost of the painting RM99,800
she has RM12,650 on her bank account and she will use 70% = RM8,855 as down payment. She will borrow the rest = RM99,800 - RM8,855 = RM90,945
interest charged on the loan 4.77% / 12 = 0.3975%
120 monthly periods (10 years)
using the present value formula to determine the monthly payment:
PV = monthly payment x annuity factor
monthly payment = PV / annuity factor
PV = 90,945
annuity factor (120 periods, 0.3975%) = 95.26168
monthly payment = 90,945 / 95.26168 = 954.69
total payments = 120 x 954.69 = RM114,562.80
interests paid = RM114,562.80 - RM90,945 = RM23,617.80
Debra and Merina sell electronic equipment and supplies through their partnership. They wish to expand their computer lines and decide to admit Wayne to the partnership. Debra's capital is $200,000, Merina's capital is $160,000, and they share income in a ratio of 3:2, respectively.Required:Record Wayne's admission for each of the following independent situations:a. Wayne directly purchases half of Merina's investment in the partnership for $97,000.b. Wayne invests the amount needed to give him a one-third interest in the partnership's capital if no goodwill or bonus is recorded.
Answer:
a. Merina's captal is $160,000. Half would be $80,000.
Entry;
DR Merina, Capital ..................................................................$80,000
CR Wayne, Capital ....................................................................................$80,000
(To record purchase of half of Merina Capital)
b.
DR Cash......................................................................$180,000
CR Wayne, Capital.........................................................................$180,000
(To record Wayne investment)
Working
The current Capital amount is;
= 200,000 +160,000
= $360,000
If Wayne joins and adds to this such that he owns 1/3 then;
2/3x = 360,000
x = 360,000/2/3
x = $540,000
Wayne's share would be;
= 1/3 * 540,000
= $180,000
The journal entries that would take place will take effect as A- A debit in Merina's capital amount and Cash account as $17000 and a credit effect in Wayne's capital account. The amount of debit and credit will be $97000.
And for B- There will be Debit in Cash account effecting a credit in The Wayne's capital account. The amount effecting the debit and credit side will be $180,000.
The journal entries are added in the images attached to the answer. The entries would take place in the journal entries on the respective date of their occurrence.( Image attached below).When Wayne is introduced as partner for one third share the calculation of the amount of his capital would be shown as considering the capital as x. The capital by existing partners is $360000. (Image below).,[tex]\dfrac{2}{3}x\ = 360000[/tex]
[tex]x= \dfrac {360000}{\dfrac{2}{3}}[/tex]
Now the value of x will be calculated as
[tex]x= \dfrac{540000}{3}[/tex]
[tex]x=180000[/tex]
Therefore Wayne's capital will be calculated as $180,000, so he will be required to bring in additional $180,000 capital in the firm for getting one third share in the profits and losses of the company.Hence, the correct statements for A will be that Wayne pays $97000 which will be divided in Merina's capital and cash accounts in the proportion of $80000 and $17000 respectively.
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"Your customer has been declared legally incompetent and his daughter has presented the proper legal papers appointing her as the guardian. Which statement is TRUE?"
Answer: B. Trading instructions can be accepted only from the daughter
Explanation:
The customer has been declared legally incompetent which means that he should not be making decisions that have to do with something as serious as trading instructions as he will not be able to comprehend them.
The only person that should therefore take over such roles would be his daughter who is a legal guardian. As she is not his guardian, she is able to take such decisions for him and so the trading instructions should be accepted only from the daughter.
Q3) Creative Sports Design (CSD) manufactures a standard-size racket and an oversize racket. The firm’s rackets are extremely light due to the use of a magnesium-graphite alloy that was invented by the firm’s founder. Each standard-size racket uses 0.125 kilograms of the alloy and each oversize racket uses 0.4 kilograms; over the next two-week production period only 80 kilograms of the alloy are available. Each standard-size racket uses 10 minutes of manufacturing time and each oversize racket uses 12 minutes. The profit contributions are $10 for each standard-size racket and $15 for each oversize racket, and 40 hours of manufacturing time are available each week. Management specified that at least 20% of the total production must be the standard-size racket. How many rackets of each type should CSD manufacture over the next two weeks to maximize the total profit contribution? Assume that because of the unique nature of their products, CSD can sell as many rackets as they can produce.
Answer:
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total profit contribution = (165 x $15) + (42 x $10) = $2,895
Explanation:
materials machine hours profit
standard size 0.125 kg 1/6 $10
oversize 0.4 kg 1/5 $15
constraints 80 kilograms of materials
40 hours of manufacturing
profit per machine hour:
standard size $10 x 6 = $60 x 40 hours = $2,400 (total possible production = 240 rackets)
oversize $15 x 5 = $75 x 40 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
profit per kilogram of alloy:
standard size $10 / 0.125 = $80 x 80 kgs = $6,400 (total possible production = 480 rackets)
oversize $15 / .4 = $37.50 x 80 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)
since the most important constraint is the manufacturing hours available, the company should try to produce the products that yield the highest contribution margin per machine hour. In this case, at least 20% of total production must be standard size rackets, so the remaining 80% should be oversize rackets that yield a higher profit.
165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)
42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)
total manufacturing time = 40 hours
if we produce 166 oversize rackets and 41 standard size rackets, total manufacturing time will exceed 40 hours (40.03 hours exactly).
Southland Corporation has a present capital structure consisting of common stock (10 million shares) and debt ($150 million, 8% coupon rate). The company needs to raise $60 million and is undecided between two financing plans. Plan A: Equity financing. Under this plan, an additional common stock will be sold at $15 per share. Plan B: Debt financing. Under this plan, the firm will issue 10% coupon bonds. At what level of operating income (EBIT) will the firm be indifferent between the two plans? Assume a 40% marginal tax rate.
Answer:
The level of operating income (EBIT) where the firm will be indifferent between the two plans is $33 million.
Explanation:
Indifferent level of EBIT refers to the EBIT level where the he Earnings Per Share (EPS) two alternative financial plans are the same.
Indifferent level of EBIT can be calculated using the following formula:
[(EBIT - FB) * (1 - T)] / SA = [(EBIT - FB) * (1 - T)] / SB .................... (1)
Where:
EBIT = Indifference level of EBIT
FA = Fixed interest costs under plan B = Interest on existing debt = $150 * 8% = $12 million
FB = Fixed interest costs under plan A = Interest on existing debt + Interest on new debt = ($150 * 8%) + ($60 * 10%) = $18 million
T = Tax rate = 40%, or 0.40
SA = Number of equity shares outstanding under Plan B = Existing number of shares + New number of shares = 10 million + ($60 million / $15) = 10 million + 4 million = 14 million
SB = Number of equity shares outstanding under Plan A = Existing number of shares = 10 million
Substiuting the values into equation (1) and solve for EBIT, we have:
[(EBIT - 12) * (1 - 0.40)] / 14 = [(EBIT - 18) * (1 - 0.40)] / 10
[(EBIT - 12) * 0.60] / 14 = [(EBIT - 18) * 0.60] / 10
[EBIT0.60 - 7.20] / 14 = [(EBIT0.06 - 10.80] / 10
[EBIT0.60 - 7.20] * 10 = [(EBIT0.06 - 10.80] * 14
EBIT6 - 72 = EBIT8.40 - 151.20
-72 + 151.20 = EBIT8.40 - EBIT6
EBIT2.40 = 79.20
EBIT = 79.20 / 2.40
EBIT = $33 million
Therefore, the level of operating income (EBIT) where the firm will be indifferent between the two plans is $33 million.
If D = 8,200 per month, S = $44 per order, and H = $2.00 per unit per month, a) What is the economic order quantity? The EOQ is 601601 units (round your response to the nearest whole number). b) How does your answer change if the holding cost doubles? The EOQ is 425425 units (round your response to the nearest whole number). c) What if the holding cost drops in half? The EOQ is nothing units (round your response to the nearest whole number).
Answer: A) The Economic Order Quantity is 601 units.
B)The Economic Order Quantity is 425 units.
C )The Economic Order Quantity is 849 units
Explanation:
EOQ, economic order quantity = [tex]\sqrt{ 2 x Dx S/ H}[/tex]
where D= demand
S = Order cost
H= holding cost.
a)when D = 8,200 per month, S = $44 per order, and H = $2.00
EOQ, economic order quantity = [tex]\sqrt{2x D x S /H}[/tex]
= [tex]\sqrt{2 x 8,200 x 44 /2 }[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{360,800}[/tex] = 600.666= 601 units
b) if the holding cost doubles, holding cost = HX 2 = 2 X 2 = 4
EOQ, economic order quantity =[tex]\sqrt{ 2 x D xS /H }[/tex]
= [tex]\sqrt{2 X 8,200 X 44 / 2 X $2}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{180,400}[/tex] = 424.73 = 425units
C) if the holding cost drops in half, holding cost = H/2 = 2 X 1/2 = 1
EOQ, economic order quantity =[tex]\sqrt{ 2 x D xS /H }[/tex]
= [tex]\sqrt{2 X 8200 x 44/1}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{721,600}[/tex] = 849.47 = 849units
You just sold 500 shares of Wesley, Inc. stock at a price of $30.92 a share. Last year, you paid $32.04 a share to buy this stock. What is your capital gain on this investment
Answer:
-$560
Explanation:
The computation of capital gain on this investment is shown below:-
Capital gain = (Stock price - Paid shares) × Sold shares
where,
The Stock price is $30.92
Paid shares is $32.04
And, the sold shares is 500 shares
Now placing these values to the above formula
So, the capital gain on this investment is
= ($30.92 - $32.04) × 500
= -$1.12 × 500
= -$560
. Define a primary and secondary market for securities and discuss how they differ. Discuss how the primary market is dependent on the secondary market. (
Explanation:
Primary market for securities is one that provides access to buy new new issues of stocks and bonds of a company. A good example of primary market is an Initial Public Offering (IPO), organized by a company that wants to sell it's shares for the first time to investors.
While Secondary market, are places to sell securities to a secondary (second) buyer from the current security owner who bought from the primary market.
The primary market is dependent on the secondary market since it is the demand from the secondary market that determines the asset valuation of the primary market.
Burke's Corner currently sells blue jeans and T-shirts. Management is considering adding fleece tops to its inventory to provide a cooler weather option. The tops would sell for $53 each with expected sales of 4,300 tops annually. By adding the fleece tops, management feels the firm will sell an additional 285 pairs of jeans at $65 a pair and 420 fewer T-shirts at $26 each. The variable cost per unit is $36 on the jeans, $16 on the T-shirts, and $31 on the fleece tops. With the new item, the depreciation expense is $33,000 a year and the fixed costs are $76,000 annually. The tax rate is 35 percent. What is the project's operating cash flow?
Answer: $26,282.25
Explanation:
The operating cash-flow will be the amount of cash the company got from sales less the amount they would have to pay on taxes.
Cash from tops
= (Sales price - Variable costs) * quantity
= ( 53 - 31) * 4,300
= $94,600
Cash from jeans
= ( 65 - 36) * 285
= $8,265
Cash from jeans
= (26 - 16) * -420
= -$4,200
As this deals with cash, a tax adjusted depreciation will need to be added back because it is a non cash expense and fixed costs will have to be deducted.
Pre-tax operating cash-flow = 94,600 + 8,265 - 4,200 - 76,000
= $22,665
Post-tax Project Operating cash-flow
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (depreciation * tax)
= $22,665 * ( 1 - 0.35) + (33,000 * 0.35)
= $14,732.25 + 11,550
= $26,282.25
Vaughn Manufacturing is constructing a building. Construction began in 2020 and the building was completed 12/31/20. Vaughn made payments to the construction company of $3114000 on 7/1, $6456000 on 9/1, and $5950000 on 12/31. Weighted-average accumulated expenditures were
Answer:
$3,709,000
Explanation:
7/1 Time weighted amount = $3,114,000 * 6/12 = $1,557,000
9/1 Time weighted amount = $6,456,000 * 4/12 = $2,152,000
12/31 Time weighted amount = $5,950,000 * 0/12 = $0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = 7/1 Time weighted amount + 9/1 Time weighted amount + 12/31 Time weighted amount
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $1,557,000 + $2,152,000 + 0
Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $3,709,000
