Remember when we draw magnetic field lines, we draw them so that the density of the lines in a given drawing represents the strength of the field at every location in the drawing. Therefore, if we draw a surface in a uniform magnetic field:

a. the number of magnetic field lines must equal the number of electric field lines.
b. the number of magnetic field lines entering the surface must be less than the number leaving the surface.
c. the number of magnetic field lines entering the surface must be greater than the number leaving the surface.
d. the number of magnetic field lines entering the surface must be equal to the number leaving the surface.

Answer:

no, all substances doesnot conduct heat

Answer:

No, all substances do not conduct heat easily because it depends on the nature of the substance. Some are good conductors of heat and some are bad. Therefore, it depends on their characteristics and their ability to conduct heat.

The bad conductors of heat are water, air, plastic, wood, etc.

Gold, Silver, Copper, Aluminium, Iron, etc. are good heat conductors as well as electrical conductors.

Answer:

[tex]\rho=2.28\times 10^5\ C/m^3[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge, Q = 2.1 C

The radius of sphere, r = 1.3 cm = 0.013 m

We need to find the charge per unit volume for this situation. It can be calculated a follows:

[tex]\rho=\dfrac{Q}{\dfrac{4}{3}\pi r^3}\\\\\rho=\dfrac{2.1}{\dfrac{4}{3}\pi \times (0.013)^3}\\\\\rho=2.28\times 10^5\ C/m^3[/tex]

So, the charge per unit volume is [tex]2.28\times 10^5\ C/m^3[/tex].

Answer:

Number of time bend length = 1.33 (Approx.)

Explanation:

Given:

Length of beam = 160 centimeter

Length of beam after deflection = 120 centimeter

Find:

Number of time bend length

Computation:

Number of time bend length = Length of beam / Length of beam after deflection

Number of time bend length = 160 / 120

Number of time bend length = 1.33333

Number of time bend length = 1.33 (Approx.)

The deflection of a 160-cm-long beam in bending will be 1.33 times the deflection of an equivalent 120-cm-long beam.

Length of beam = 160 centimeter

Length of beam after deflection = 120 centimeter

The number of time bend length = Length of beam / Length of the beam after deflection.

Number of time bend length = 160 / 120

Number of time bend length = 1.33

Deflecting is to turn (something) aside, especially from a direct path or fixed direction armor that deflects bullets deflecting attention from the troubled economy deflecting a question.

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The height of the motorcycle daredevil when it reaches the landing ramp is 4.93 m.

Since the ramp is a 33.0° ramp and the motorcycle daredevil jumps off with a speed of 20.3 m/s, the motorcycle dare devil has a horizontal component of speed u = 20.3cos33.0° m/s and a vertical component of speed v = 20.3sin33.0° m/s.

Now, since the other ramp is d = 28.0 m away, it takes the time it takes the motorcycle dare devil to reach it is t.

Considering motion in the horizontal direction, d = ut.

Thus, t = d/u

= 28.0 m/20.3cos33.0° m/s

= 28.0 m/(20.3 × 0.8387) m/s

= 28.0 m/17.025 m/s

= 1.645 s

Let h be the height of the motorcycle daredevil when it reaches the landing ramp in time, t.

Considering the vertical motion and using h = vt - 1/2gt² where v = vertical velocity of motorcycle daredevil = 20.3sin33.0°, t = time taken to reach landing ramp = 1.645 s and g = acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s² (Note that there is a negative in front of g since it is directed downwards)

So, substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

h = vt - 1/2gt²

h = 20.3sin33.0° m/s × 1.645 s - 1/2 × 9.8 m/s² × (1.645 s)²  

h = 20.3 × 0.5446 m/s × 1.645 s - 1/2 × 9.8 m/s² × 2.706025 s²

h = 18.187 m - 1/2 × 26.519 m

h = 18.187 m - 13.26 m

h = 4.927

h ≅ 4.93 m

So, the height of the motorcycle daredevil when it reaches the landing ramp is 4.93 m.

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Answer:

e

Explanation:

the field points to the right

If loop is kept horizontally  and direction of current is clockwise , then according to Fleming’s Left Hand Rule the direction of magnetic field will be towards right .

Fleming’s Left Hand Rule states that if we arrange our thumb, forefinger and middle finger of the left-hand perpendicular to each other, then the thumb points towards the direction of the force experienced by the conductor, the forefinger points towards the direction of the magnetic field and the middle finger points towards the direction of the electric current.

If loop is kept horizontally  and direction of current is clockwise , then according to Fleming’s Left Hand Rule the direction of magnetic field will be towards right .

correct answer e) The field points to the right

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Answer:

The elastic extensibility of a piece of string is .08. If the string is 100 cm long, how long will the string be when it is stretched to the point where it becomes plastic? is your ansewer dont take tension

The string will be 108 cm long when it is stretched to the point where it becomes plastic.

Elasticity in physics and materials science refers to a body's capacity to withstand a force that causes distortion and to recover its original dimensions once the force has been withdrawn.

When sufficient loads are applied, solid objects will deform; if the material is elastic, the object will return to its original size and shape after the weights have been removed. Unlike plasticity, which prevents this from happening and causes the item to stay deformed,

Given parameters:

The elastic extensibility of a piece of string is 0.08.

The string is 100 cm long.

Hence,  it becomes plastic, after  it is stretched up to = 100 × 0.08 cm = 8 cm.  The string will be 108 cm long.

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Answer:

I = 26.80 A

Explanation:

From Ohm's law,

V = IR ............ 1

P = IV ............ 2

where V is the value of the voltage, I is the current, R is the resistance and P is the power.

i. The power of light switched on = 660 Watts.

ii. The power of the toaster = [tex]\frac{V^{2} }{R}[/tex]

               = [tex]\frac{(110)^{2} }{440}[/tex]

               = 27.5 Watts

iii. The power of the stove = 2200 Watts.

iv. The power of the blender = [tex]\frac{V^{2} }{R}[/tex]

                = [tex]\frac{(110)^{2} }{220}[/tex]

                = 55 Watts

Total power of the appliances = 660 + 27.5 + 2200 + 55

                                                   = 2942.5 Watts

So that,

P = IV

I = [tex]\frac{P}{V}[/tex]

 = [tex]\frac{2942.5}{110}[/tex]

 = 26.75

I = 26.75 A

The total current being used when all the appliances are running at the same time is 26.80 A.

Answer:

[tex]E=4.9\times 10^5\ J[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

The speed of a driver, v = 80 km/h = 22.22 m/s

The mass of the truck, m = 2000 kg

We need to find how much internal energy is produced. The internal energy produced by a truck is its kinetic energy and it is given by :

[tex]E=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2\\\\E=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot22.22^{2}\cdot2000\\\\E=493728.4\ J[/tex]

or

[tex]E=4.9\times 10^5\ J[/tex]

So, [tex]4.9\times 10^5\ J[/tex] of internal energy is produced.

Answer:

 y = 0.1 m

Explanation:

The electrical power for point loads is

         V = [tex]k \sum \frac{q_i}{r_i}[/tex]k Sum qi / ri

in this case

         V = k ([tex]- \frac{q_1}{r_1 } + \frac{q_2}{r_2}[/tex])

indicate that V = 0

        [tex]\frac{q_1}{r_1} = \frac{q_2}{r_2}[/tex]

        r₂ = [tex]\frac{q_2}{q_1} r_1[/tex]

the distance r1 is

         r₁ = y -0

the distance r2

         r₂ = 0.14 -y

we substitute

        0.14 - y = [tex]\frac{10}{25}[/tex]  y

          y ( [tex]\frac{10}{25} + 1[/tex]) = 0.14

          y 1.4 = 0.14

          y = 0.14 / 1.4

          y = 0.1 m

Answer:

The final position is 36 feet.

Explanation:

initial position, d = 330 feet

speed, v = 3 feet per minute

time, t = 30 minute

now the time is 32 minute

time interval = 2 minute

So, the distance in 2 minutes is

d' = 2 x 3 = 6 feet

So, the final position is

D = 30 + 6 = 36 feet

Answer:

(a) The dc value is 95.5 volts

(b) The rms value is 106.1 volts

(c) The period is 0.01s

Explanation:

Given

[tex]V(t) = 150\sin(wt)[/tex]

[tex]f = 100Hz[/tex]

Solving (a): The dc value

[tex]V(t) = 150\sin(wt)[/tex] implies that

[tex]V_{max} = 150[/tex]

So, the dc value is:

[tex]V = \frac{2}{\pi} * V_{max}[/tex]

[tex]V = \frac{2}{\pi} * 150[/tex]

[tex]V = \frac{300}{\pi}[/tex]

[tex]V = 95.5V[/tex]

Solving (b): The RMS value

This is calculated as:

[tex]V_{rms} = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2} * V_{max}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]V_{rms} = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2} * 150[/tex]

[tex]V_{rms} = \frac{150}{\sqrt 2}[/tex]

[tex]V_{rms} = 106.1V\\[/tex]

Solving (c): The period

This is calculated as:

[tex]T = \frac{1}{f}[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]T = \frac{1}{100Hz}[/tex]

[tex]T = 0.01s[/tex]

Answer:

Option D: 4 mm⁴

Explanation:

Formula for area moment of inertia for a circular cross-section is;

I = πd⁴/64

We are given diameter;

d = 3 mm

Thus;

I = π × 3⁴/64

I = 3.98 mm⁴

Approximating to a whole number gives;

I = 4 mm⁴

Answer:

the resulting angular acceleration is 15.65 rad/s²

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

force generated in the patellar tendon F = 400 N

patellar tendon attaches to the tibia at a 20° angle 3 cm( 0.03 m ) from the axis of rotation at the knee.

so Torque produced by the knee will be;

T = F × d⊥

T = 400 N × 0.03 m × sin( 20° )

T = 400 N × 0.03 m × 0.342

T = 4.104 N.m

Now, we determine the moment of inertia of the knee

I = mk²

given that; the lower leg and foot have a combined mass of 4.2kg and a given radius of gyration of 25 cm ( 0.25 m )

we substitute

I = 4.2 kg × ( 0.25 m )²

I = 4.2 kg × 0.0626 m²

I = 0.2625 kg.m²

So from the relation of Moment of inertia, Torque and angular acceleration;

T = I∝

we make angular acceleration ∝, subject of the formula

∝ = T / I

we substitute

∝ = 4.104 / 0.2625

∝ = 15.65 rad/s²

Therefore, the resulting angular acceleration is 15.65 rad/s²

Answer:

Moves towards left

Explanation:

When the truck is moving towards right then there is pseudo force acting on the fog statue which is acting left wards.

A seen from the stationary observer, the dog statue moves towards left.

Answer:

We can remove ions and water molecules

Explanation:

We can remove ions and water molecules because both of them have an electric field . So this will help in repelling or attractive the above mentioned particles. Water is polar so it has an electric field due to net dipole moment.

Answer:

b

Explanation:

Answer:

Simple harmonic motion is the movement of a body or an object to and from an equilibrium position. In a simple harmonic motion, the maximum displacement (also called the amplitude) on one side of the equilibrium position is equal to the maximum displacement.

The force acting on an object must satisfy Hooke's law for the object to undergo simple harmonic motion. The law states that the force must be directed always towards the equilibrium position and also directly proportional to the distance from this position.

In order to achieve the condition of simple harmonic motion, the force must be directed always towards the equilibrium position and also directly proportional to the distance from this position.

The given problem is based on the concept and fundamentals of simple harmonic motion. Simple harmonic motion is the movement of a body or an object to and from an equilibrium position.

Thus, we can conclude that in order to achieve the condition of simple harmonic motion, the force must be directed always towards the equilibrium position and also directly proportional to the distance from this position.

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(B)

Explanation:

Centripetal means "towards the center" so the acceleration vector of an object undergoing UCM is always pointed towards the center.

The acceleration vector of a particle in a uniform circular motion points toward the center of the circle, The correct option is option (b).

Centripetal force is the force acting on an object in curvilinear motion directed towards the axis of rotation or center of curvature. The unit of centripetal force is Newton.

Centripetal means "towards the center" so the acceleration vector of an object undergoing circular motion is always pointed towards the center.

Therefore, The acceleration vector of a particle in a uniform circular motion points toward the center of the circle, The correct option is option (b).

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Answer:

The height of water increasing is 8.5 x 10^-4 m/s.  

Explanation:

radius, r = 5 m

Volume per second, dV/dt = 2 m^3/min = 2/60 m^3/s

Let the height of cylinder is h.

The volume of the cylinder is given by

[tex]V = \pi r^2 h \\\\\frac{dV}{dt} = \pi r^2 \frac{dh}{dt}\\\\\frac{2}{30} = 3.14\times 5\times 5\times \frac{dh}{dt}\\\\\frac{dh}{dt}=8.5 \times 10^{-4} m/s[/tex]

Answer:

0,0560 cal / gºC.

Answer:

that is the right answer

Explanation:

Answer:

Spaceship speed is 36000 km/h

So, in 1 hour spaceship travel 36000 km

Or we can say that in 60×60 second spaceship travel 36000 km

Therefore in 1 sec spaceship travel

=

= 10 km/s

Answer:

Explanation:

360 km/hr(1000 m/km) / 3600 s/hr) = 100 m/s

Explanation:

pls write the full question

Answer:

Rs = 0.02008 Ω = 20.08 mΩ

Explanation:

The range of an ammeter can be increased by connecting a small shunt resistance to it in a series combination. This shunt resistance can be calculated by the following formula:

[tex]Rs = \frac{I_gR_g}{I - I_g}[/tex]

where,

[tex]R_s[/tex] = value of shunt resistance = ?

[tex]I_g[/tex] = current range of ammeter = 20 mA = 0.02 A

I = Required range of ammeter = 5 A

[tex]R_g[/tex] = Resistance of ammeter = 5 ohms

Therefore,

[tex]R_s = \frac{(0.02\ A)(5\ ohms)}{5\ A-0.02\ A}[/tex]

Rs = 0.02008 Ω = 20.08 mΩ

Answer:

1.79 T

Explanation:

Applying,

F = BILsin∅................ Equation 1

Where F = Force, B = magnetic field, I = current flowing through the wire, L = length of the wire, ∅ = angle between the magntic field and the force

make B the subject of the equation

B = F/ILsin∅............. Equation 2

From the question,

Given: F = 2.15 N, I = 30 A, L = 4.00 cm = 0.04 m, ∅ = 90° (perpendicular to the field)

Substitute these values into equation 2

B = 2.15/(30×0.04×sin90°)

B = 2.15/1.2

B = 1.79 T

Hence the average field strength is 1.79 T

Answer:

s = 1800 m = 1.8 km

Explanation:

The distance, the speed, and the time of reach of the sound are related by the following formula:

[tex]s = vt[/tex]

where,

s = distance

v = speed

t = time

FOR WATER:

[tex]s = v_wt[/tex] ---------------------- eq (1)

where,

s = distance between ship and diver = ?

[tex]v_w[/tex] = speed of sound in water = 1440 m/s

t = time taken by sound in water

FOR AIR:

[tex]s = v_a(t+4\ s)[/tex] ---------------------- eq (2)

where,

s = distance between ship and diver = ?

[tex]v_a[/tex] = speed of sound in water = 344 m/s

t + 4 s = time taken by sound in water

Comparing eq (1) and eq (2),because distance remains constant:

[tex]v_wt=v_a(t+4\ s)\\\\(1440\ m/s)t = (344\ m/s)(t+4\ s)\\(1440\ m/s - 344\ m/s)t=1376\ m\\t = \frac{1376\ m}{1096\ m/s}[/tex]

t = 1.25 s

Now using this value in eq (1):

[tex]s = (1440\ m/s)(1.25\ s)[/tex]

s = 1800 m = 1.8 km

Answer:

A beam in bending experiences tensile stresses on one side and compressive stresses on the other side.

Explanation:

Answer:

(a) 1560 W

(b) 576 W

(c) 1.01

Explanation:

Voltage, V = 120 V

Current in dryer, I = 13 A

current in vacuum cleaner, i' = 4.8 A

(a) Power consumed by dryer,

P = V I = 120 x 13 = 1560 W

(b) Power consumed by vacuum cleaner

P' = V I' = 120 x 4.8 = 576 W

(c) Energy consumed by dryer

E = P x t = 1560 x 15 x 60 = 1404000 J

Energy consumed by the vacuum cleaner

E' = P' x t' = 576 x 40 x 60 = 1382400 J

the ratio of energies is

E : E' = 1404000 : 1382400 = 1.01

Answer:

The answer is "66.351 N/C"

Explanation:

Given:

[tex]a=1.5\ cm= 1.5 \times 10^{-2}\ m\\\\q_1=3.9\ pc\\\\b=3\ cm\\\\c= 4\ cm\\\\q_2=0 \ pc\\\\[/tex]

Using Gauss Law:

[tex]\oint \vec{E} \cdot \vex{dA}= \frac{Q_{enc}}{\varepsilon_0 }[/tex]

[tex]E \times 4 \pi\ r^2=\frac{Q_{enc}}{\varepsilon_0}\\\\E= \frac{Q_{enc}}{4 \pi\ r^2 \varepsilon_0}= \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \frac{Q_{enc}}{r^2}= \frac{k_e\ Q_{enc}}{r^2}\\\\[/tex]

                                      [tex]=\frac{9\times 10^{9} \times 3.9 \times 10^{-12}}{(2.3\times 10^{-2})^2}\\\\=\frac{35.1\times 10^{-3}\ }{(2.3\times 10^{-2})^2}\\\\=\frac{35.1\times 10^{-3}\ }{5.29 \times 10^{-4}}\\\\=\frac{35.1\times 10 }{5.29 }\\\\=\frac{351}{5.29 }\\\\=66.351\ \frac{N}{C}[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

increase while mechanical energy remains constant