Regarding penalties for research misconduct which of the following is CORRECT:

A. Research institutions may penalize researchers found to have committed research misconduct.

B. The Office of Research Integrity (ORI) may impose penalties of its own on researchers or institutions.

C. Researcher's employment termination is one possible penalty.

D. Supervision of future research activities may be imposed to the

researcher as a penalty.

E. All of the above.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Regarding penalties for research misconduct which of the following is CORRECT:

A. Research institutions may penalize researchers found to have committed research misconduct.

B. The Office of Research Integrity (ORI) may impose penalties of its own on researchers or institutions.

C. Researcher's employment termination is one possible penalty.

D. Supervision of future research activities may be imposed to the

researcher as a penalty.

E. All of the above.

Explanation:

E. All of the above are correct. Research institutions may impose penalties on researchers found to have committed research misconduct, and the Office of Research Integrity (ORI) may also impose its own penalties on researchers or institutions. Penalties for research misconduct can include employment termination, supervision of future research activities, and other sanctions deemed appropriate by the institution or ORI. The specific penalties imposed may vary depending on the nature and severity of the misconduct.


Related Questions

Which of the following statements related to critical or semi-critical, or non-critical patient-care items is correct?A. Heat tolerant critical and semi-critical items must be sterilized by steam, unsaturated chemical vapor, or dry heat.B. Heat-sensitive critical items can be sterilized by ethylene oxide or by immersing them in liquid chemical germicides registered by the FDA as chemical sterilants.C. Non-critical items, when visibly soiled, must be disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital level intermediate-level disinfectant.D. All of the above are correct.

Answers

The correct statement among the following statements related to critical, or semi-critical, or non-critical patient-care items is: (A) heat tolerant critical and semi-critical items must be sterilized by steam, unsaturated chemical vapor, or dry heat.

Sterilization is a method used to destroy and remove all microbial life including highly resistant bacterial endospores. It is used in hospitals and other medical facilities to avoid the spread of dangerous diseases and infections. Among the given options, the correct statement related to critical or semi-critical, or non-critical patient-care items is that (A) heat-tolerant critical and semi-critical items must be sterilized by steam, unsaturated chemical vapor, or dry heat.

Option B is incorrect because heat-sensitive critical items cannot be sterilized by ethylene oxide or by immersing them in liquid chemical germicides registered by the FDA as chemical sterilants. They are sterilized by low-temperature hydrogen peroxide gas plasma, vaporized hydrogen peroxide, or ozone.

Option C is also incorrect because non-critical items, when visibly soiled, must be disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-level low-level disinfectant but not an intermediate-level disinfectant. Disinfection is the process of killing harmful microorganisms using chemicals or physical agents.

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A nurse is planning care for a client who has experienced excessive fluid loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Answers

A nurse is preparing care for a client who has lost a lot of fluids. The following interventions should be included in the nurse's care plan:

Administer IV fluids to the client evenly over 24 hrEncourage the client to rise slowly when standing upWeigh the client every 8 hr. Options 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Excessive fluid loss can lead to dehydration, which can cause serious complications if not managed appropriately. Administering IV fluids is an important intervention for managing fluid loss and restoring hydration to the client. However, the other interventions listed in the question may not be appropriate or sufficient for managing fluid loss.

Encouraging the client to rise slowly when standing up is a general intervention for preventing orthostatic hypotension, which may not be directly related to managing fluid loss. Weighing the client every 8 hours may be useful for monitoring fluid status, but it is not necessarily an intervention for managing fluid loss.

Overall, the nurse should develop a comprehensive plan of care for the client that addresses the underlying cause of fluid loss and manages the resulting dehydration. This may include interventions such as administering IV fluids, monitoring vital signs and fluid status, assessing electrolyte levels, and addressing the underlying condition that led to fluid loss. Options 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

The complete question is

A nurse is planning care for a client who has experienced excessive fluid loss. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Administer IV fluids to the client evenly over 24 hrMove the patient to ICUEncourage the client to rise slowly when standing upWeigh the client every 8 hrNone of these

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where the location where auditory vibrations are transduced into neural activity.

Answers

Answer: Inner ear

Explanation: A place in the brain where vibrations in the auditory system are converted into neural activity.

the ability of a joint and muscle group to move through a range of motion is called

Answers

Flexibility is the ability of a joint or series of joints to move through an unrestricted, pain free range of motion.

according to the pre-1967 media stories, which of the following were the major dangers posed by the use of lysergic acid diethylamide (lsd)?

Answers

These dangers included the risk of psychotic reactions, including delusions and hallucinations, as well as the possibility of long-term psychological damage.

Prior to the 1967, media stories regarding the use of lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) focused on the potential dangers of the drug. Some media outlets also highlighted the potential for LSD to trigger , and there were reports of accidents and injuries resulting from LSD induced impairment.

Additionally, there were concerns about the potential for LSD to be used as a tool for mind control or brainwashing, particularly in the context of Cold War era anxieties about Soviet mind control techniques. Overall media coverage of LSD in the pre 1967 era tended to emphasize the risks associated with the drug, rather than any potential benefits or positive aspects.

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Needles have two parts, the _______________________ that attaches to the vacuum tube needle holder
or _______________________. The second part of the needle is the _______________________, which is
the part that penetrates the skin during a venipuncture. The sharp, angled end of the shaft is called the
_______________________.

Answers

Needles have two parts, the hub that attaches to the vacuum tube needle holder or syringe. The second part of the needle is the shaft, which is the part that penetrates the skin during a venipuncture. The sharp, angled end of the shaft is called the bevel.

How does a needle syringe work?

A needle syringe is a device used to inject medication or withdraw fluids from the body. The syringe consists of a barrel or cylinder and a plunger. The barrel is the cylindrical part that holds the medication, and the plunger is the long, thin rod that slides inside the barrel.

The needle is attached to the end of the barrel and is used to penetrate the skin or other tissue. When the plunger is pushed, it creates a vacuum inside the barrel, which causes the medication or fluid to be drawn up into the syringe.

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if speakers send nonverbal signals that contradict their verbal message, listeners will typically accept the nonverbal behavior as the true message.

Answers

It is true that nonverbal signals can sometimes contradict the verbal message being conveyed by a speaker.

What is nonverbal message?

In some cases, listeners may be more likely to rely on nonverbal behavior if they perceive the speaker to be more credible or trustworthy based on their nonverbal cues. However, in other cases, listeners may be more likely to trust the verbal message if they perceive the speaker to be more knowledgeable or authoritative.

Overall, it is important to consider both verbal and nonverbal communication when trying to understand someone's message, as they both play an important role in conveying meaning.

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1. Patrick is a 15-year-old male whose mother brought him to the clinic because he "just hasn't

been feeling well. " Vital signs: T-100. 2°F (tympanic) P-82 bpm R-16 BP-138/90 Analysis:

Answers

The analysis of Patrick's condition suggests that he is suffering from moderate fever and his pulse rate and blood pressure are also higher than normal.

The temperature of the body remains such that it resists any infections from microbes and the temperature increases in case the microbes enter the body. This condition of rising temperature is called as fever. In cases of fever, the person suffers from shivering, high blood pressure etc. These changes are indicative of differences happening inside the body.

To control the fever, rising pulse rate and blood pressure, essential antibiotics, paracetamol and probiotics are given to the person to heal them. These symptoms are usual in common cold, flu or some other disease as well.

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the five major categories of infectious agents include bacteria, protozoans, multicellular parasites, viruses, and

Answers

Answer:

fungi

Explanation:

Five major types of pathogens are bacteria, protozoans, multicellular parasites, viruses, and fungi.

Select the one response below that would NOT result from a drug that blocks histamine receptors in the cells lining the stomach
a. It would raise the pH of the stomach
b. It would cause the release of secretin and cholecystokinin
c. It would lower the activity of parietal cells
d. It would reduce the symptoms of heartburn

Answers

A drug that blocks histamine receptors in the cells lining the stomach would cause the release of secretin and cholecystokinin. Thus, the correct option will be B.

What are histamine receptors?

Histamine receptors are cell surface receptors that bind to histamine, a type of protein. Histamine is a neurotransmitter and paracrine messenger that stimulates gastric acid secretion from parietal cells and enhances immune cell activation in inflammation.

Histamine blockers, or H2 receptor antagonists, are the medications that block the action of histamine on parietal cells in the stomach, which reduces acid production. Heartburn and other symptoms of acid reflux can be relieved by using medications.

Because of the drug activity, they are effective at lowering the stomach acid production and also reducing heartburn and other acid reflux symptoms. Therefore, the response that would not result from a drug that blocks the histamine receptors in the cells lining the stomach is that it would cause the release of secretin and cholecystokinin.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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according to the optimum performance training (opt) model, which of the following is a goal of the maximal strength phase of training?

Answers

According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, the goal of the Maximal Strength phase of training is to develop maximal strength and power through the application of progressive overload.

The goal of the maximal strength phase of training according to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model is to develop a maximal amount of force that can be produced by a muscle or muscle group in a single voluntary contraction.

It's also known as the maximal strength phase, as this phase focuses on the development of maximum power. Therefore, we can say that the goal of the maximal strength phase of training is to develop the maximal amount of force that can be produced by a muscle or muscle group in a single voluntary contraction.

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polysaccharides are complex carbohydrates and consist of long chains of glucose molecules. which of the following is a polysaccharide?

Answers

Starch is an example of a polysaccharide.

Polysaccharides are carbohydrate molecules that are made up of long chains of monosaccharide molecules. They are made up of many repeating monosaccharide units bonded together by glycosidic bonds. Glycogen, cellulose, and starch are the three most important natural polysaccharides.Therefore, it can be concluded that Starch is a polysaccharide.

Starch is a polysaccharide composed of glucose monomers that are stored by plants as a source of energy. Starch is a complex carbohydrate that is stored in a plant's energy storage cells. Amylose and amylopectin are two types of starch that differ in the way they are arranged.

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What are common complications of mal nutrition except
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hypothermia
c. Cardiac failure
d. Liver failure

Answers

Option C, Cardiac failure is not a symptom of malnutrition but, . Hypoglycemia, Hypothermia and Liver failure are.

Malnutrition is characterized by an insufficient or excessive intake of nutrients, an imbalanced intake of important nutrients, or poor utilization of nutrients. Undernutrition, overweight and obesity are all part of the double burden of malnutrition and diet-related non-communicable diseases.

Option C, however, heart failure is not a sign of starvation. Liver failure, hypothermia and hypoglycemia.

Heart failure occurs when the heart muscle cannot pump blood efficiently. The blood often clots, causing fluid to build up in the legs and lungs. Shortness of breath and swollen legs and feet can be the result of fluid buildup. If there is insufficient blood flow, the skin may appear blue or gray.

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The posterior tracheal wall contacts the ______. a. carina b. primary bronchus c. esophagus d. thyroid gland.

Answers

Answer: C

Explanation: The answer is = Esophagus

Which of the following is a direct command that requires an individual or a representative of an organization to appear in court or to present an object to the court?
a. Judicial decision
b. Subpoena
c. Credential
d. Regulation

Answers

Answer:

b. Subpoena

Explanation:

A subpoena is a direct command that requires an individual or representative of an organization to appear in court or to present an object to the court.

On hand is 17.5mg/6ml of heparin. The physician orders 35mg how many mL with the MA administer

Answers

The medical assistant should administer 12 ml of the heparin solution to deliver 35 mg of heparin.

To administer 35mg of heparin using the concentration of 17.5mg/6ml, we can use a simple proportion:

17.5mg/6ml = 35mg/x ml

Cross-multiplying, we get:

17.5mg * x ml = 35mg * 6ml

Simplifying, we get:

x ml = (35mg * 6ml) / 17.5mg

x ml = 12ml (rounded to the nearest tenth)

Therefore, the medical assistant should administer 12ml of the heparin solution to deliver 35mg of heparin.

What is heparin solution?

Heparin solution is a medication used to prevent and treat blood clots. It works by blocking the formation of blood clots and by preventing existing blood clots from growing larger. Heparin solution is usually administered by injection into a vein or under the skin. It is often used in hospital settings, such as during surgery or in patients who are immobilized for extended periods of time, to reduce the risk of blood clots forming. Heparin solution comes in various concentrations and is available by prescription only.

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the institute of medicine's (iom) Committee on Quality of Healthcare in America defines error as:
A) a preventable sentinel or adverse event.
B) a situation where the original intended action is not correct.
C) a process where the correct action does not proceed as intended.
D) the failure of a planned action to be completed as intended or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim.

Answers

Answer:

D) the failure of a planned action to be completed as intended or the use of a wrong plan to achieve an aim.

STEPS

even includes patient errors

failure of a planned action

wrong plan

chatgpt

Which of the following is often used to describe a nonprofit organization that solicits financial support ffrom government agencies and private donors in order to engage in charitable activities?
A) Grant
B) Remittance
C) Foundation
D) Endowment

Answers

Nonprofit organizations that solicit financial support from government agencies and private donors in order to engage in charitable activities are often referred to as "Grants".

"What are nonprofit organizations?

Nonprofit organizations are establishments that exist for purposes other than generating income for their owners, directors, or shareholders. They have tax-exempt status since they do not engage in a for-profit business. Nonprofit organizations provide services that benefit the community or a particular group of people rather than a single owner or shareholders.

Grants refer to financial aid, usually given by governments or charitable organizations, to help someone complete something or accomplish a goal. Grants are typically offered to nonprofits, educational institutions, and businesses with a social mission, and may be granted for various purposes.

Grants are often used by nonprofit organizations to solicit financial support from government agencies and private donors to fund their charitable activities. Grants, like all other types of financial aid, typically come with conditions and are given for a specified time. They must be used for the purposes outlined in the grant proposal, and their progress must be tracked and documented.

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After enjoying a cheeseburger and a glass of fat-free milk, where does the majority of the chemical digestion of the protein occur?a. Small intestineb Mouthc Stomachd Pancreas

Answers

After enjoying a cheeseburger and a glass of fat-free milk, the majority of the chemical digestion of the protein occurs in c. stomach.

Chemical digestion is the process by which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules by enzymes. This is in contrast to mechanical digestion, which involves the physical breakdown of food into smaller pieces.The stomach is a muscular sac-like organ that secretes gastric juice, which contains hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes like pepsin, lipase, and rennin.

Pepsin, an enzyme that is produced by cells in the stomach lining and is responsible for breaking down protein into smaller peptides, is the most important digestive enzyme found in the stomach.Therefore, the majority of the chemical digestion of protein occurs in the stomach after enjoying a cheeseburger and a glass of fat-free milk. As a result, option C is the correct answer.

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true/false. the primary reason that diabetes increases the risk for blindness is that high blood glucose blocks tiny ducts that cleanse and lubricate the eye.

Answers

False. The primary reason that diabetes increases the risk for blindness is due to damage to the blood vessels in the retina, which is known as diabetic retinopathy.

When blood sugar levels are consistently high, it can damage the small blood vessels in the retina, leading to leakage, swelling, and eventually the formation of scar tissue. This can cause changes in vision and, if left untreated, can lead to blindness.

Diabetes can also increase the risk of other eye conditions, such as cataracts and glaucoma, which can further contribute to vision problems.

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which of the following best describes why the secondary response to an antigen is faster than the primary response?

Answers

The secondary response to an antigen is faster than the primary response because the body has already encountered and developed memory cells for that antigen.

Memory cells recognize and respond more quickly to the antigen, allowing for a much quicker response than the primary response which must develop the memory cells. The secondary response to an antigen is faster than the primary response because there are more memory cells that can recognize the antigen immediately. This causes a faster and more robust immune response to the pathogen

Antigens are molecules that cause an immune response in the human body. They can be proteins, carbohydrates, or lipids that are found on the surface of bacteria, viruses, and other foreign substances.Antibodies are the proteins that the immune system produces to neutralize antigens, and they are critical for fighting off infections. The immune system generates memory cells in response to the presence of an antigen to remember how to quickly fight off a pathogen that it has previously encountered.

Primary responseThe primary immune response occurs when the immune system encounters an antigen for the first time. The immune system takes time to generate a specific response to the pathogen, during which time the individual may become sick.Secondary responseThe secondary immune response happens when the immune system encounters the same pathogen again.

Memory cells can recognize the antigen immediately and begin producing antibodies rapidly, leading to a faster and more effective immune response. The secondary response also produces more antibodies than the primary response, making it more effective than the primary response.

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which action should the nurse associate with outcome identification and planning in the nursing process?

Answers

The nurse should associate the following action with outcome identification and planning in the nursing process: establishing client-centered goals and expected outcomes.

The nursing process is a methodical and cyclic approach to providing nursing care. The nursing process is built on the foundation of a patient-centered philosophy that emphasizes the importance of the individual and their medical needs. It involves a series of interrelated stages that are followed in order and in a systematic manner.

The five stages of the nursing process include assessment, diagnosis, outcome identification and planning, implementation, and evaluation.

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the gradual increase of exercise or activity over a period of time is called

Answers

Answer: progression.

An in vivo study was conducted to determine if mice that were given probiotics had higher alcohol consumption levels as compared to mice that did not receive probiotics. An appropriate null hypothesis to test this association can be best stated as

Answers

The appropriate null hypothesis for this study would be:

"There is no significant difference in alcohol consumption levels between mice that were given probiotics and mice that were not given probiotics."

What is a null hypothesis?

This null hypothesis assumes that the probiotics have no effect on the alcohol consumption levels of the mice. The alternative hypothesis would be that there is a significant difference in alcohol consumption levels between the two groups, with the probiotics having an effect on the amount of alcohol consumed by the mice.

It is important to note that this null hypothesis is based on the assumption that the study was designed as a randomized controlled trial, with the mice randomly assigned to either the probiotics group or the control group.

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Which approach(es) would not decrease a lawyer's incentive to take on a malpractice case? Collateral offset rule Joint and several liability Special health courts No-fault malpractice system

Answers

The collateral offset rule, joint and several liability, and special health courts are all approaches that could decrease a lawyer's incentive to take on a malpractice case, while a no-fault malpractice system would not.

The collateral offset rule allows defendants in a malpractice case to reduce their liability by the amount of compensation the plaintiff received from other sources, such as insurance or a settlement with another defendant. Joint and several liability holds all defendants in a case liable for the full amount of damages, regardless of their individual level of fault.

Special health courts aim to streamline the malpractice litigation process and reduce the costs associated with it. In contrast, a no-fault malpractice system would eliminate the need for litigation altogether, as compensation would be provided without requiring proof of fault or negligence.

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You are given a novel drug that inhibits the activity of a GPCR kinase (GRK) specific for GPCR's that bind adrenaline (epinephrine). You know that adrenaline increases heart rate and activates adenylyl cyclase leading to breakdown of glycogen in muscle. You inject two rats. Rat #1 is given an injection of the novel drug followed by adrenaline, while rat #2 is injected with adrenaline only. Which of the following would you find when you analyze the rats 5 min after injection of adrenaline? Rat # 1 has increased glycogen and increased cAMP in muscle, and increased heart rate relative to Rat #2 O Rat # 1 has decreased glycogen and increased cAMP in muscle, and increased heart rate relative to Rat #2 O Rat # 1 has decreased glycogen and increased cAMP in muscle, and decreased heart rate relative to Rat #2 Rat # 1 has decreased glycogen and decreased cAMP in muscle, and decreased heart rate relative to Rat #2 O No difference in levels of glycogen and cAMP in muscle, and heart rate in rat #1 compared to rat #2

Answers

Rat # 1 has decreased glycogen and increased cAMP in muscle, and increased heart rate relative to Rat #2.

What is adrenaline?

Adrenaline is a hormone that increases heart rate and activates adenylyl cyclase resulting in the breakdown of glycogen in muscle. G protein-coupled receptor kinases (GRKs) phosphorylate and inactivate activated G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs).

GPCR kinase inhibitors have been identified and designed to selectively inhibit GRKs that regulate specific GPCRs. It has been discovered that GRK2 inhibition could be used to treat heart failure because it improved cardiac contractile function and reduced mortality. The drug used in the experiment inhibits the GPCR kinase (GRK) specific for GPCR's that bind adrenaline (epinephrine).

The inhibition of GRK prevents the deactivation of the receptor and thus increases the signal sent downstream. Rat #1 is given an injection of the novel drug followed by adrenaline, while rat #2 is injected with adrenaline only. In rat #1, the novel drug inhibits the activity of the GRK. As a result, adrenaline signaling will be amplified in the animal, which results in a decrease in glycogen levels. The rate of glycogenolysis is increased in rat #1 due to the inhibition of the GRK, this increases cAMP.

The increase in cAMP levels in rat #1 is due to the inhibition of the GRK. The increase in cAMP levels will increase the heart rate in rat #1 relative to rat #2.In rat #2, cAMP and glycogen levels increase after adrenaline is administered, and the heart rate increases as well. However, the increase in the rate of glycogenolysis and cAMP production will be less in rat #2 than in rat #1, resulting in a lower heart rate relative to rat #1.

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what condition carries the highest death rate of all psychiatric diagnoses?

Answers

Answer: anorexia nervosa

Explanation:

Overload means increased demands made on the body with a fitness component will cause improvement with that fitness component. True. True or false?

Answers

True. Overload is an important concept when it comes to fitness training. Overload is the idea that by increasing the demands of a fitness component, an individual will be able to improve their performance in that fitness component.

To do this, progressively increase the amount of labour performed, for example, by raising the weight or repetitions in weightlifting or the intensity of aerobic exercise.

Increased physical strength, endurance, and power may result from training the body to become used to higher levels of performance through overload.

To prevent the body from being overworked or harmed, overloading should be done safely and gradually.

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which of the following are characteristics of longer-acting benzodiazepine drugs, such as restoril and doral?

Answers

they decrease memory

D. Patient's wt: 64 lb. Medication order: 0.8 mg/
kg. Stock medication: 60 mg/2 mL. How many
mL will you give?

Answers

Answer:

0.77ml

Explanation:

64 lbs = 29 kg

Medication: 0.8 x 29 = 23.2 mg

ml = 23.2 mg / 60mg/2ml = (23.2 x 2)/60 = 0.77ml

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HELPPPP HURRY PLSS.. Q4 NEED HELP PLEASE HELP pls answert this within 1 hour or else i will be DOOMED which of the following is not one of the necessary factors that leads to a crime according to routine activities theory? a new project has an initial cost of $165,000. the equipment will be depreciated on a straight-line basis to a zero book value over the five-year life of the project. the projected net income each year is $12,400, $16,300, $18,200, $14,300, and $10,200, respectively. what is the average accounting return? Miller, Inc., analyzed its accounts receivable balances at December 31 and arrived at the aged balances listed below, along with the percentage that is estimated to be uncollectible:Age GroupBalanceProbability ofNoncollection030 days past due$180,0001%3160 days past due40,0003%61120 days past due22,0005%121180 days past due14,00010%Over 180 days past due8,00025%=$264,000The company handles credit losses using the allowance method. The credit balance of the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is $1,150 on December 31, before any adjustments.a. Prepare the adjusting entry for estimated credit losses on December 31.b. Prepare the journal entry to write off the Lyons Companys account on April 10 of the following year in the amount of $525. based on the information in the table, which of the following arranges the bonds in order of decreasing polarity Below is the company data for Apple Inc, currently being traded on the US markets. The measures are stated om millions of USD currency. Cash & marketable securities $165 Fixed assets $286 Net sales $1320 Earnings Before Interests and Taxes (EBIT) $143 Net Earnings After Taxes (NEAT ) $ 66 Quick Ratio ((CA-Inventory)/CL) 2.1 to 1 Current Ratio (CA/CL) 3.4 to 1 Average Collection Period (ACP) 45.60 days Return on Equity (ROE, NEAT/Net Common Equity) 13% Tax rate 25% For Apples Liabilities & Equity side, they only report common equity, debt and current operating liabilities.Based on the detailed information above, find the following calculations; (1) Accounts Receivables, (2) Current Operating Liabilities, (3) Current Assets, (4) Total Assets, (5) Net Common Equity, and (6) Debt. (10 marks) With the increase in online commerce, assume Apple has decreased its ACP by 15.60 days (i.e., totaling 30 days) while holding all other variables constant, how much cash could they generate? (10 marks). What is Apples ROIC (post-tax) ? (10 marks) what method of financing do entrepreneurs often use when they are first developing their business idea? Solve the inequality for u.48 what state of matter is rutherfordium in while at room temperature I need help! I need the graph drawn and the steps to how I got the answer but I dont know it! Please help me! assume you are preparing the customer satisfaction questionnaire. what types of questions would you include? prepare five questions that you would ask. Which of the following statements about demand is correct?a. A change in the price of bicycles will not lead to a shift of the demand curve for bicycles.b. A change in the price of automobiles will lead to a shift of the demand curve for motorcycles.c. A change in demand is equivalent to a movement along a given demand curve.d. When price falls, so does the quantity demanded.e. When the demand curve shifts to the right, so will the supply curve. Find the associated z-score or scores that represent the following standard normal areas(hint use the excel function =NORM.S.INV()A. Middle 50 percentB. Lowest 5 percent C. Middle 90% Answer all questions please(URGENT when communicating internal control matters noted in a nonissuer financial statement audit, an auditor's report should indicate that (a) how many kilometers does light traverse in 1 ly? km (b) what is the speed of light c in terms of ly per year. ly/y (c) express your answer from (b) in terms of feet per nanosecond. ft/ns I need help again lol Find the standard normal area for each of the following Round your answers to the 4 decimal places what three elements are considered part of the promotional mix?