Please consider what you have learned about foodborne illness from the text, and choose the correct description of the term below that is best associated with foodborne illness.
1. Common source epidemic
2. Microorganisms
3. Food intoxication
4. Food infection, microorganisms
5. Symptoms, microorganisms

Answers

Answer 1

The term below that is best associated with foodborne illness is Food infection, microorganisms.

Option 4 is correct.

What are foodborne illness?

foodborne illness are describe das those illness caused by food contaminated with bacteria, viruses, parasites or toxins.

The causes of foodborne illness can be categorized into three and they include:

Biological hazards which includes bacteria, viruses, and parasites.Chemical hazards that include natural toxins and chemical contaminants. Physical hazards which can include metal shavings from cans and plastic pieces or broken glass and many other things.

The treatment of foodborne illness is not that difficult.

Foodborne illness is mild and can be resolved without treatment. One major step towards its treatment is ensuring adequate hydration is the most important aspect of treatment.

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Related Questions

6. What are nails and hair made of? a. Keratin b. Follicles c. Skin d. Parasites​

Answers

The nails are made of keratin same as the hair
The Answer is A. Keratin That’s what both are made of

he bolivian program, in which a new variety of maize was introduced to improve people's diet, failed to help give the population better nutrition because the

Answers

Failed to help give the population better nutrition because the people discovered that it made excellent corn whiskey.

The types of Bolivian maize are the result of hundreds of years of selective breeding for advanced agronomic and cooking trends.

weather and soil range is a key feature of the landscape of Bolivia, a country extending between to 22° South and 57° to 69° West. The indigenous cultures that played a key function inside the differentiation of the local Bolivian maize races have been the Aymara inside the north, the Sauces in relevant Bolivia, and the Yampara inside the south. particularly, the Aymara tailored maize crop increase to the Lake Titicaca plateau, approximately 3,500-3,800 meters above sea stage, a harsh surroundings, bloodless, arid, and windy.

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Two populations of lobsters do not mate because one population lives in the Atlantic Ocean and the other lives in the Pacific Ocean.
Temporal isolation
Habitat isolation
Gametic isolation
Mechanical isolation

Answers

Due to the fact that one population of lobsters lives in the Atlantic Ocean and the other in the Pacific Ocean, the two populations cannot marry. Habitat isolation is the result of the two distinct lobster populations' preference for various locations, which reduces the likelihood of them marrying. Option (2) is correct.

In a population, it acts as a barrier to gene flow. Because one population of flowers blooms in the early spring and the other in the late spring, there are no offspring between the two groups. Temporal isolation is a type of biological isolation that happens when the breeding seasons of two members of the same species diverge. Reproductive isolation is the name given to this sort of isolation since it is connected to the emergence of new species.

The position of the various types of shells in a male and female snail of different species prohibits mating from taking place, Mechanical isolation is present here. This is a form of isolation where the capacity to reproduce is hampered by variations in specific physical structures between either of the two species of organisms. The snails were therefore unable to mate because of their shell's orientation. Only the sperm and eggs are released by numerous populations of clams into the same lake area.

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Correct Question:

Two populations of lobsters do not mate because one population lives in the Atlantic Ocean and the other lives in the Pacific Ocean.

1. Temporal isolation

2. Habitat isolation

3. Gametic isolation

4. Mechanical isolation

the hierarchy of animal (or plant) taxa, from the most general characteristics to the most specific, is:

Answers

The levels of classification, from broadest to most specific, include: kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species.


The a lot of classification levels Associate in Nursing organism shares with another, the a lot of characteristics they need in common.


Kingdom

whereas scientists presently disagree on what numberkingdoms there area unit, several support a 5 kingdom (Plants, Animals, Fungi, Protists, Monerans) system.Organisms area unit placed into kingdoms supported their ability to create food and therefore the range of cells in their body.


Phylum (pl. phyla) the primary major division for every kingdom within the kingdom Plantae, phyla area unit typicallyobserved as divisions.

● Plants area unit unremarkably divided into 2 groups: tube and nonvascular.


● within the Animalia, there area unit thirty five completely different phyla. These phyla will be divided into 2 groups: vertebrates and invertebrates.


Class, Order, Family


● These levels become even a lot of specific and can embrace fewer  organisms that have a lot of in common with one another as they move down the amount.


Genus (pl. Genera)


● Contains closely connected organisms.


● The genus is employed because the initial word in Associate in Nursing organism’s scientific name.


Species Consists of all the organisms of constant kind that area unitready to breed and turn out young of constant kind.


● The species is employed because the second word in Associate in Nursing organism’s scientific name.


Scientific name


● The scientific name of Associate in Nursing organism is formed from its genus and species.


● it's written in italics (Genus species) with the genus capitalized.


● for instance, gray wolf is that the scientific name for the wolf and pine tree is that the scientific name for a frankincense pine


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FILL IN THE BLANK the first gap in the cell cycle (g1) corresponds to ________. the phase between dna replication and the m phase the phase in which dna is being replicated normal growth and cell function the beginning of mitosis

Answers

The first cell cycle pause (G1) corresponds to typical cell growth and function.

The G1 phase is the initial gap phase. It is the interphase stage just before DNA replication. In the S phase, which follows the G1 phase, the cell replicates its DNA.

The cell physically expands during the G 1 start subscript 1, end subscript phase, also known as the first gap phase, duplicates organelles and produces the molecular building blocks required for subsequent processes.

The G in G1 stands for the gap while it would sound right for it to stand for growth. The cell comes to an end at a checkpoint after G1. This checkpoint confirms that the cell has made each required protein.

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The question is -

The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to _____.

A) normal growth and cell function

B) the phase in which DNA is replicated

C) the beginning of mitosis

D) the phase between DNA replication and the M phase

embryonic development gives us insights into evolutionary relationships not obvious in adults. t / f

Answers

True. Embryonic development gives us insights into evolutionary relationships that may not be immediately obvious in adults.

Through the study of embryonic development, scientists can trace the evolutionary history of various species and determine how certain characteristics have evolved over time. Through the use of genetic sequencing, scientists can trace the evolutionary relationships of species, and even determine how far back certain species have been separated from their common ancestor.

Through the study of embryonic development, scientists can also gain insight into how certain species have adapted to their environment over time and how certain characteristics have become more pronounced. Finally, the study of embryonic development can provide insights into how certain species have interacted with each other and how they are related to each other through shared evolutionary traits. By studying embryonic development, scientists can gain a better understanding of the evolutionary history of life on Earth.

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In the early 1600s, a scientist planted a willow tree that weighed 5 pounds in 200 pounds of dry soil. He placed it outside and watered it for 5 years. At the end of that time, he observed that the tree had gained 164 pounds 3 ounces, while the soil had
lost just 2 ounces.

Answers

a. careful observation, measurements, and inferences from his data.

Which of the following best captures the main worry that the proposed pipeline would undoubtedly raise for many people?

Oil from this pipeline might harm the earth, water, and wildlife if it were to leak.

What was the pipeline's true purpose, anyway?

830,000 barrels in Alberta tar sands crude oil were planned to be transported daily to refineries along the Texas Gulf Coast.From the refineries, oil oil would primarily be shipped abroad rather than to American petrol stations.

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this is because on ________ alleles, the allele is only carried on the _________ chromosome and not the _________ chromosome.

Answers

This is because on the X-linked alleles, the allele was only carried on the X chromosome and not on the Y chromosome.

X-linked alleles are genes that are located on the X chromosome. Men have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, while women have two X chromosomes. This means that men can only inherit X-linked alleles from their mothers, while women can inherit X-linked alleles from both parents. X-linked alleles are responsible for traits such as hair and eye color, which are passed down from the mother to the son. X-linked traits can also be passed from father to daughter, but this is less common since the father only has one X chromosome. X-linked alleles are also responsible for certain genetic disorders, such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which are more likely to affect males than females because males only have one X chromosome.

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TRUE/FALSE. a researcher placed a culture of cyanobactgeria under green lights. whithin a few weeks, teh appearence of the cyanobactiers changed from green to red. the reaseracher claimed the color change on the culture was the resilt of an adaptation allowing greater photosyntehsis

Answers

A cyanobacteria culture was exposed to green light by the researcher. The cyanobacteria went from having a green look to having a red appearance after a few weeks. According to the researcher, the culture's change in color resulted from an adaptation that allowed for more photosynthesis. So, it's true.

The vibrant process of complementary chromatic adaptation may provide as the best illustration of how photosynthetic organisms adjust to variations in light hue (CCA). Depending on their surrounding light color, cyanobacterial cells undergo CCA and transform from brick red to dazzling blue green.

The complexity of the cellular reaction to variations in light color is concealed by the seeming simplicity of this remarkable, photo reversible occurrence. According to recent findings, at least three pathways are involved in the regulation of CCA, which is similarly a complex process. One is regulated by a sophisticated two-component signal transduction system and a phytochrome-class photoreceptor that responds to both green and red light.

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Correct Question:

TRUE/FALSE.

A researcher placed a culture of cyanobacteria under green lights. Within a few weeks, the appearance of the cyanobacteria changed from green to red. The researcher claimed the color change on the culture was the result of an adaptation allowing greater photosynthesis.

The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that _____.
A) fat absorption primarily occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine
B) carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not
C) most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood
D) fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by bacteria before absorption

Answers

The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates because most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood.

The lymphatic system is a network of small tubes and lymph nodes located throughout the body. These tubes are known as lymphatic vessels or lymph vessels. The lymphatic system is an essential component of our immune system.

Water-soluble nutrients, such as proteins, carbohydrates as well as certain vitamins and minerals, enter the bloodstream via capillaries and are transferred directly to the liver, where they are then transported to whichever organs and the body's tissues necessitate them.

Fats are absorbed through the villi and attempt to enter the lacteal, small lymph vessels known as lymph capillaries, where they become part of chyle, a milky fluid composed of lymph, fats, and free fatty acids. These fats are then transported into the bloodstream by lymphatic vessels.

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Module 05 What is the definition of metabolism? The breaking down of body compounds is known as what? True or False: Amino acids becoming protein is an anabolic reaction. What is the sugar that helps make up ATP? From which B vitamin is CoA, or coenzyme A, derived? What are the features/characteristics of aerobic metabolism? For short, intense exercise, which energy-producing pathway does the body rely on most? Anaerobic means ________. When a person performing intense physical exercise begins to feel fatigue and a burning pain in the muscles, the muscles respond by synthesizing more of what substance? (Lactate vs. glucose vs. fatty acids?) True or False: Low carbohydrate diets induce ketosis An individual is described as ________ when they have the endurance to engage in daily activities, as well enough reserve energy to handle added challenges. A minimum of ______ minutes at a time of aerobic physical activity is recommended per activity session. ________ refers to an increase to the size and strength of muscles in response to use. True or False: Putting a demand on muscles repeatedly by making them work harder is the most effective, safe way for athletes to add muscle tissue. According to ACSM guidelines, resistance or strength exercise should be incorporated on ________ per week. An athlete getting ready to compete in the 100-meter dash will rely primarily on what substance for quick energy in this event? (Fats vs. lactate vs. creatine phosphate?) The body’s primary source of glucose during physical activity is ________. True or False: With regards to the energy systems and fuels used by the body, all energy systems are used at all times, but one system which dominates depending on intensity and conditioning of athlete. What type of diet does research suggest can provide endurance athletes with ability to go longer without fatigue? ________ are the dietary nutrients most effective at raising muscle glycogen concentrations. Activities lasting longer than 20 minutes will gradually start using more ________ for fuel and less ________. True or False: Consuming a sports beverage to obtain carbohydrates is recommended during exhausting endurance activities lasting more than 1 hour. The phenomenon known as "hitting the wall" occurs in athletes when ________ is depleted. It’s recommended that an athlete

Answers

The definition of metabolism is option A: breaking down of body compounds is known as catabolism

Amino acids becoming protein is an anabolic reaction is true

The sugar that helps make up ATP from which B vitamin is CoA, or coenzyme A, derived is Pantothenic acid.

Is the breakdown of protein anabolic?

In the ribosomes of a cell, amino acids, smaller molecules, are converted into proteins. Each protein is made up of a chain with a unique arrangement of amino acids. Protein synthesis is anabolic because proteins are constructed from smaller molecules to create larger ones.

Anabolic processes are used to assemble amino acids into proteins. Molecules are broken down into smaller pieces or converted into energy through catabolic processes. Since amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, the process of turning amino acids into proteins is known as anabolism.

Therefore, Another water-soluble vitamin called pantothenic acid creates coenzyme A, the primary transporter of carbon molecules inside of cells. For glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids to enter the citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA serves as the carbon carrier.

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What are the different biotic and abiotic factors in the environment?

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Biotic factors are living things within an ecosystem; such as plants, animals, and bacteria, while abiotic are non-living components; such as water, soil and atmosphere.

The two primary forces influencing the ecosystem are biotic and abiotic. As opposed to the non-living elements like physical conditions (temperature, pH, humidity, salinity, sunlight, etc.) and chemical agents (different gases and mineral nutrients present in the air, water, soil, etc.) in an ecosystem, biotic factors refer to all the living things that are present in an ecosystem. As a result, both biotic and abiotic resources have an impact on how an organism survives and reproduces.

Abiotic factors are non-living components of an ecosystem that influence their surroundings. Temperature, light, and water are all components of the terrestrial environment. Abiotic elements in a marine ecosystem would be salinity and ocean currents. A particular ecosystem is produced by the interaction of biotic and abiotic elements. Abiotic elements are found in all the ecosystem's non-living parts. They often include both chemical and physical elements. Abiotic factors are ecosystem components that are not living and have an impact on the environment. Examples include things like water, light, and temperature. Abiotic elements in a marine ecosystem would be salinity and ocean currents.

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Please select the conclusions of studies comparing the health of germ-free animals to the health of animals with a normal complement of microbiota. Check All That Apply A.Normal microbiota are a source of some vitamins.Normal microbiota are a source of some vitamins. B.Normal microbiota contribute to dental caries and periodontal disease.Normal microbiota contribute to dental caries and periodontal disease. C.Normal microbiota contribute significantly to infertility in women.Normal microbiota contribute significantly to infertility in women. D.The presence of normal microbiota can prevent some pathogens from becoming well-established.The presence of normal microbiota can prevent some pathogens from becoming well-established. E.Normal microbiota are necessary for development and maturation of the nervous system.Normal microbiota are necessary for development and maturation of the nervous system. F.Normal microbiota contribute to the development and maturation of the immune system. 2.Please select the correct statements regarding the tracking of infections and diseases. Check All That Apply A.Some diseases are considered "reportable" and reporting to health departments is mandatory. B.Some diseases are considered "reportable" and reporting to health departments is mandatory. C.Disease tracking involves compiling lists of names of individuals with certain diseases and publishing these so they can be consulted by the general public. D.Disease tracking involves compiling lists of names of individuals with certain diseases and publishing these so they can be consulted by the general public. E.Disease statistics are maintained at the local, state, and national levels.Disease statistics are maintained at the local, state, and national levels. F.The national repository of disease statistics in the U.S. is the Center for Disease Control and Prevention.The national repository of disease statistics in the U.S. is the Center for Disease Control and Prevention. G.Disease statistics are published in the Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report(MMWR) which can only be accessed by health care professionals.

Answers

the grouping of all the microbes and viruses found in a certain habitat, which may include the human body or a specific organ like the digestive system. The health of an individual may be influenced by their microbiome.

According to studies, the "normal microbiota" aids in digestion, aids in the breakdown of toxins, and helps the immune system mature. It also acts as a first line of defence against microbial infections. By activating immune responses, metabolically keeping pathogens out of their favoured habitats, and directly combating microbes, the microbiota defends against infection. A significant risk factor for bacterial pathogen colonisation is the disruption of the microbiota, particularly by antibiotics. The gut microbiome is crucial to the health of both humans and animals, who serve as its hosts. Its primary roles are on metabolism, immune system development and control, and defence against pathogen invasion.

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select all of the following processes that can cause changes in allele or genotype frequencies in populations.

Answers

A gene variant's incidence in a population is represented by the allele frequency. Alleles are different versions of a gene that share a chromosomal location, or genetic locus.

An allele frequency is computed by dividing the total number of copies of all the alleles at that specific genetic locus in the population by the number of times the allele of interest is observed in a population. The decimal, percentage, or fractional forms of allele frequencies are all acceptable. The genetic variety of a population is reflected in the allele frequencies. Allele frequency variations over time can be a sign of genetic drift or the introduction of novel mutations into the population.

MutationsNonrandom MatingGenetic driftGene flowNatural selection

The complete question is:

Select all of the following processes that can cause changes in allele or genotype frequencies in populations.

Mutations

Genetic drift

Nonrandom Mating

Random Mating

Natural selection

Gene flow

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organism a has a linker dna length of 100 base pairs; organism b has a linker dna length of 60 base pairs. which of the statements about their 10 nm fibers will be true? group of answer choicesO Organism A will have larger "beads" than organism B O Organism A will have smaller "beads" than organism B O Organism A will have longer "strings" than organism O Organism A will have shorter "strings" than organism B O Their 10 nm fibers will look the same

Answers

The statement about their 10-nm-fibres will be true if organism A will have shorter "strings" than organism B.

Thus, the correct answer is D.

How to determine the 10-nm-fibres based on a linker DNA length?

The human genome contains 3.42 × 10^9 base pairs. Eаch nucleosome is wound by аbout 146 bp of DNА. This nucleosome consists of а histone core consisting of four different histone proteins such аs H2А, H2B, H3 аnd H4.

Hence totаl stretch of DNА between 2 nucleosomes would be totаl DNА wound on а nucleosome + linker DNА which would be

Organism A: 146 + 100 = 246 bp.

Eаch such 246 bp would hаve а single nucleosome, hence the totаl number of nucleosomes would be

= 3.42/246 x 10^9 bp = 1.4*10^7

Organism B: 146 + 60 = 206 bp.

= 3.42/206 x 10^9 bp = 1.6*10^7

Thus, organism A has 1.4*10^7 shorter than organism B has 1.6*10^7.

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Meiotic drive is a phenomenon observed occasionally in which a heterozygous genotype does not produce a 1: 1 proportion of functional gametes, usually because one of the gametic types is not formed or fails to function. Suppose that an allele D shows meiotic drive such that heterozygous Dd genotypes form 3/4 D-bearing and 1/4 d-bearing functional gametes. What is the expected ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross under the assumptions stipulated below? (Hint: Use Punnett squares.)

(a) The meiotic drive occurs equally in both sexes.

(b) The meiotic drive occurs only in females.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

To find the expected ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross, you can use Punnett squares.

(a) If the meiotic drive occurs equally in both sexes, you can represent the cross as follows:

F1 generation:

DD x Dd

F2 generation:

DD Dd dd

DD Dd dd

In this case, the expected ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation is 1:2:1, which means that there is a 1/4 chance of producing a DD genotype, a 1/2 chance of producing a Dd genotype, and a 1/4 chance of producing a dd genotype.

(b) If the meiotic drive occurs only in females, you can represent the cross as follows:

F1 generation:

DD x dd

F2 generation:

DD Dd dd

DD Dd dd

In this case, the expected ratio of genotypes in the F2 generation is 3:1, which means that there is a 3/4 chance of producing a DD or Dd genotype and a 1/4 chance of producing a dd genotype.

what is the most likely distance from the nucleus for an electron in orbital c? note: your answer must be within 50 pm of the exact answer to be graded correct.

Answers

The most likely distance from the nucleus for an electron in orbital c is  630 p.m.

An electron's location and wave-like behavior in an atom are described by a function known as an atomic orbital in atomic theory and quantum mechanics. The probability of finding an atom's electron anywhere in the vicinity of its nucleus can be calculated using this function.

Atomic orbitals come in four distinct varieties: specifically s (sharp), p (principle), d (diffuse), and f Additionally, each atom-shell contains a few orbital combinations. There are s orbitals in the n=1 shell, p orbitals in the n=2 shell, and s and p orbitals in the n=3 shell.

In order to determine the orbital distance from the nucleus, we first draw a perpendicular to the blue line's highest peak. Also, it's about 630 p.m.

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(complete question)

what is the most likely distance from the nucleus for an electron in orbital c? note: your answer must be within 50 pm of the exact answer to be graded correctly

Here is a sketch of the radial probability distribution of three orbitals:

Flowering plants and bees have influenced each other’s evolution, providing an example of _______. The idea that life can develop from non-living things, _______, has been postulated in the Oparin-Haldane hypothesis and demonstrated to be possible in the Miller-Urey experiment. The idea that eukaryotes developed when prokaryotes were engulfed by other cells, called the _______, is supported by the fact that mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA.

Answers

1. Coevolution.

2. Abiogenesis.

3. Endosymbiont Theory.

What do you mean by abiogenesis and coevolution?

When two or more species' evolutions are mutually influenced by natural selection, this is known as coevolution. The phrase is occasionally used to refer to gene-culture coevolution as well as two features within the same species influencing one another during evolution. The natural process through which life has developed from non-living matter, such as straightforward organic compounds, is known as abiogenesis or the origin of life.

What does the endosymbiotic theory of eukaryotic cell genesis entail?

According to the dominant explanation, known as the endosymbiotic theory, eukaryotes developed when an ancient Archaean cell fused with an aerobic, ancient bacterial cell (without actually eating it).

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T/F: Both Klebsiella pneumoniae and Streptococcus pneumoniae avoid phagocytosis by releasing A-B toxins that kill leukocytes.

Answers

The answer of this question is false.

What are phagocytosis?

When a cell engages in phagocytosis, it uses its plasma membrane to engulf a big particle, creating the phagosome, an internal compartment.

It is a specific kind of endocytosis. Phagocytes are cells that carry out phagocytosis. the act of a phagocyte absorbing a pathogen.

Phagocytosis is a key mechanism employed by the immune system of a multicellular organism to eliminate infections and cell debris.

The phagosome then digests the inhaled substance. One of the primary processes of the innate immune defense is phagocytosis.

It is one of the initial reactions to an infection. Phagocytosis is a process that most cells are capable of, and some cell types use it as part of their primary function. We refer to them as "professional phagocytes."

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Which of the following is NOT an Ecological Role of Marsh Grasses?
a. Clean up detritus
b. Prevent shoreline erosion
c. Serve as refuge and nurser
d. Stabilize coastal sediments
e. Remove excess nutrients from runoff

Answers

Marshes are wetlands that are frequently or continuously inundated with water and are distinguished by emergent soft-stemmed flora that is adapted to soggy soil conditions.  Thus, option E is correct.

What an ecological role of Marsh Grasses?

Water quality is maintained by wetlands, and sediments can settle out of suspension because marsh grasses impede run-off. Excess nutrients are removed from the soil by marsh plants, while heavy metals can be removed from water by marsh mud. Wetlands aid in flood management and lessen storm-related erosion.

There are many distinct types of marshes, including freshwater and saltwater ones, coastal and inland, coastal and inland, from prairie potholes to the Everglades.

Therefore, to remove excess nutrients from run-off is not an Ecological Role of Marsh Grasses.

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i need help with all of these please help!!!!! please do not comment something if its not going to help very desperate for help this is science by the way

Answers

A. The special Juice is not helping group A
B. Belinda is lying
C. Elisa Family is brave to willing to do it

Given year is positive, which expressions for XXX, YYY, and ZZZ will output the correct range? Choices are in the form XXX / YYY / ZZZ.
If XXX: Output "1-100"
Else If YYY: Output "101-200"
Else If ZZZ: Output "201-300"
Else: Output "Other"
a. year > 0 / year > 99 / year > 199
b. year > 0 / year > 100 / year > 200
c. year < 100 / year < 200 / year < 300
d. year < 101 / year < 201 / year < 301

Answers

Note that the given year is positive, the expressions for XXX, YYY, and ZZZ that will output the correct range is: "year > 0 / year > 100 / year > 200." (Option B). This is a Range Output exercise in programming.

What is range output?

In the context of the above exercise, range output is a string that specifies a range of values for the variable "year". The output would depend on the value of "year", and there are four possible outputs: "1-100", "101-200", "201-300", or "Other".

The above option is correct because the first condition, year > 0, will cover all positive values of the year.

The second condition, year > 100, will cover all values between 101 and 200.

The third condition, year > 200, will cover all values between 201 and 300.

If the year is not within any of these ranges, the final Else condition will output "Other".

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if tyrosine levels in a cns neuron were reduced, the synthesis of which of the following molecules might also be reduced

Answers

If tyrosine levels in a CNS neuron were reduced, the synthesis of dopamine molecules might also be reduced.

Dopamine is a chemical ejected in the brain that causes euphoria. Having the appropriate amount of dopamine is essential both for your body and your brain. Dopamine assists nerve cells in communicating with one another.

Tyrosine is a nonessential amino acid the body produces from another amino acid called phenylalanine. It is an essential element for the production of many crucial brain chemicals known as neurotransmitters, which would include epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine.

Because tyrosine aids in the production of the mood-altering chemical dopamine, and because individuals who are depressed frequently have low tyrosine levels, tyrosine can be given to treat depression

Tyrosine is thought to boost levels of the neurotransmitters dopamine, adrenaline, and norepinephrine. It may actually boost memory and effectiveness in stressful conditions by enhancing these neurotransmitters 

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Complete question :

If tyrosine levels in a CNS neuron were reduced, the synthesis of which of the following molecules might also be reduced?

A: beta-endorphins

B: acetylcholine

C: GABA

D: dopamine

A. public demand C. decreased public awareness Which of the following is the reason for the growing availability of free- range meats? B. cheaper prices for meat D. higher disease rates in try COWS​

Answers

Answer:

Increasing Demand

Explanation:

Answer: public demand

Explanation:

Name all 4 of Earth’s sphere and describe what they include.

Answers

Answer:

1. The lithosphere: The lithosphere is the outermost solid part of Earth and is made up of the crust and the upper mantle. It is broken up into plates that move around, causing earthquakes and volcanic activity.

2. The hydrosphere: The hydrosphere is composed of all the water on and around Earth. This includes the oceans, rivers, lakes, groundwater, and the water vapor in the atmosphere.

3. The atmosphere: The atmosphere is the layer of gases that surrounds Earth, made up mostly of nitrogen and oxygen. It helps to regulate temperatures and climate, and also protects us from harmful radiation from the sun.

4. The biosphere: The biosphere is the part of Earth where life is found. It includes all the living organisms, from tiny bacteria to large animals, as well as their habitats.

Explanation:

A biologist plans to spend a year investigating the mating behavior of a certain species of
frog. To make meaningful observations, the biologist should observe
A) several groups of frogs maintained in different temperatures in the laboratory
B)several groups of frogs maintained on different diets in the laboratory
C)a large number of frogs in their natural habitat
D)a small number of frogs in their natural habitat

Answers

C - the more subjects are observed, the more accurate the results are, and the most accurate observations of animals should be done in a natural habitat. Thus the answer is c.

the squirting cucumber is diecious. the sexes are determined, not by heteromorphic sex chromosome, but by allele of two genes. the alleles at the two loci govern sexual phenotype as follow: M determines male fertility; m determine female sterility and f determines female fertility. in population of this plant, individual can be made male (approximately 50%) or female (approximately 50%). in addition, a hermaphrodite type is found, but only at very low frequency, the hermaphrodite has male and female organs on the same plant: (i) what must be full genotype of the male plant (ii) what must be the full genotype of the male plant (ii) what is the origin of the rare hermaphrodite?

Answers

Answer: The full genotype of a male plant in this population is MMFF. This genotype is determined by the alleles at the two loci that govern sexual phenotype: M (male fertility) and F (female fertility).

The full genotype of a female plant in this population is mmFF. This genotype is determined by the alleles at the two loci that govern sexual phenotype: m (female sterility) and F (female fertility).

The rare hermaphrodite plants in this population are most likely the result of mutations that occurred at one or both of the two loci that govern sexual phenotype. These mutations could have resulted in the expression of both male and female characteristics on the same plant.

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Insert the correct terms or phrases into the following sentences that compare DNA replication with transcription. Use this word bank: 3'-hydroxyl group, 5'-Phosphate group, DNA, DNA polymerase, DNA replication, Ligase, RNA, RNA polymerase, tRNA, transcription.
• In transcription, the goal is synthesis of _________________________
• In DNA replication, the goal is synthesis of _______________________
• RNA polymerase and primase both add nucleotides to a _____________________
• During ______________________, both strands of the DNA will function as a template.
• During ______________________, only one strand of the DNA will function as a template.

Answers

• In transcription, the goal is synthesis of RNA

• In DNA replication, the goal is synthesis of DNA

• RNA polymerase and primase both add nucleotides to a 3'-hydroxyl group.

• During DNA replication, both strands of the DNA will function as a template.

• During transcription, only one strand of the DNA will function as a template.

The biological process whereby a cell makes an RNA copy of certain DNA. The messenger RNA (mRNA) copy of this RNA carries the genetic material required for protein synthesis in a cell. It transports data from the DNA in the cell's nucleus to the cytoplasm, where proteins are produced.

Through the process of DNA replication, a double-stranded DNA molecule is copied to produce two identical DNA molecules. Because every time a cell splits, the two new daughter cells must have the same genetic material, or DNA, as the parent cell, replication is a crucial process.

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Which part of Pakicetus anatomy most suggests that it is an ancestor of whales?

OPTIONS

It had eyes near the top of the head.

It had a tail fluke.


It had teeth consistent with a carnivorous diet.


It had four legs.

Answers

It had teeth consistent with a carnivorous diet is part of Pakicetus anatomy most suggests that it is an ancestor of whales.

What is Pakicetus anatomy?

Pakicetus resembled land-dwelling, hoofed animals more than contemporary cetaceans in appearance and body shape.

It had four completely developed, lengthy legs, unlike all contemporary cetaceans and presumably all other fossil cetaceans. The characteristics of Pakicetus were a large snout, incisors, canines, premolars, and molar teeth, a distinct and flexible neck, and a very long and powerful tail.

The nose was located near the end of the snout, as it is in the majority of land animals. Pakicetids were frequently shown as having fur in reconstructions made after composite skeletons were discovered, but given their close ties to hippos, it is more likely that they had sparse body hair.

Therefore, It had teeth consistent with a carnivorous diet is part of Pakicetus anatomy most suggests that it is an ancestor of whales.

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What is most responsible for the presence of groundwater in an area?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

b

Answer:

Rainfall that has seeped through the soil's surface is what creates the groundwater that is found below the water table. Where the water table naturally meets the land surface, springs are created, enabling groundwater to rise to the surface and eventually flow into a river, lake, or stream.

Explanation:

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