The bodily muscles these parts of the primary motor cortex regulate become paralyzed when these parts of the brain are damaged locally. The right side of the body will be weakened or paralyzed if the stroke occurs in the left hemisphere.
What does being patient actually mean?"Patience" is the ability to wait patiently, endure difficulties without becoming irritated or agitated, and do so for a protracted period of time. However, a person who receives medical care is referred to when the word "patient" is used in the plural.
How do patients characterize themselves?The word "patient" comes from the phrase "adult and pediatric patients," which denotes bearing or going through agony. In actuality, this language portrays the patient as being passive.
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The focus of________ prevention programs is avoiding additional medical problems; the focus of_______prevention programs is functioning.
The focus of tertiary prevention programs is avoiding additional medical problems; the focus of quaternary prevention programs is functioning.
It is used on patients who are exhibiting symptoms and tries to lessen the intensity of the illness as well as any potential aftereffects. Tertiary prevention aims to lessen the impact of the disease once it has been established in a person, whereas secondary prevention attempts to stop the beginning of illness. tertiary prevention involve efforts to reduce side effects, stop future disease or disorder-related consequences, stop relapse, and restore the best level of physical or psychological functioning possible. Interventions for rehabilitation following illness, injury, or disability are blood flow included in tertiary prevention as well as those for preventing more morbidity, limiting impairment, and avoiding mortality. Primary care is provided by the patients' primary healthcare providers, secondary care is provided by specialists, and tertiary care is more advanced specialised care provided within a hospital.
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a 31-year-old man has a large, yellow, soft mass deeply infiltrating the gluteus maximus muscle. microscopic examination of the excised mass shows irregular vacuolated cells and clear cells with frequent mitoses. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
If a microscopic examination of the excised mass shows irregular vacuolated cells and clear cells with frequent mitoses, then the most likely diagnosis of this person is Liposarcoma (option D).
What is Liposarcoma's medical condition?Liposarcoma is a medical condition associated with cancer sarcoma cells that propagate from adipose tissue which is a well known energy storage tissue that contains fats to be used as the source of energy.
Moreover, cancer is a group of different types of diseases characterized by the uncontrolled growth of cells in metastatic tissues due to faulty mechanisms that control the progression through the cell cycle.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that Liposarcoma's medical condition is based on a type of cancer in adipose tissues that leads to the proliferation of these cells.
Complete question:
A 31-year-old man has a large, yellow, soft mass deeply infiltrating the gluteus maximus muscle. Microscopic examination of the excised mass shows irregular vacuolated cells and clear cells with frequent mitoses. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fibroma
B. Fibrosarcoma
C. Lipoma
D. Liposarcoma
E. Rhabdomyoma
F. Rhabdomyosarcoma
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based on the report that the admitting nurse received and a diagnosis of gastroenteritis and dehydration, what is the priority nursing action in caring for matthew? provide a rationale for the priority action.
The priority nursing action is to initiate IV access. The main objective for a dehydrated client who is dehydrated is rehydration. Due to the client's vomiting, oral replacement is not an option.
What nursing issue is most important for a patient with gastroenteritis?The main nursing diagnoses are based on the assessment data, and they are Infection risks connected to poor secondary defenses or inadequate knowledge to prevent pathogen exposure. Constantly having diarrheal stools is associated with impaired skin integrity. inadequate fluid intake caused by diarrheal feces.
How can dehydration affect the body?Your cardiovascular system has to work harder to efficiently pump blood when you lose fluid because your blood is more concentrated. You urinate less as a result of a high blood concentration because it causes your kidneys to retain more water.
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A 20-year-old male (Ht.: 5'10" Wt.: 165 lbs.) is a college student who spent part of his summer semester in South America. He was volunteering with an organization that was helping to establish safe drinking water in an area of very poor resources. Residents in the area previous used the local river for all of their water needs (e.g., drinking, cooking, bathing, and washing clothes). During his journey home, he began to feel ill. He had little energy, no appetite, and severe headaches, and nothing he ate seemed to agree with him. He felt nauseated, he began to have diarrhea, and he soon developed a fever. He began to show evidence of jaundice.
The signs and symptoms related to hepatitis A are primary symptoms related to hepatitis include anorexia, jaundice, and malnutrition
Diarrhoea is a loose, watery, and perhaps more frequent form of constipation. It could coexist with other symptoms like weight loss, nausea, vomiting, or stomach pain or it might be the sole symptom present. Fortunately, diarrhoea typically lasts no longer than a few days.
Hepatitis A does not harm the liver permanently and does not develop into a persistent (chronic) infection, in contrast to other types of viral hepatitis. Rarely, especially in older adults or those with chronic liver problems, hepatitis A can result in an abrupt (acute) loss of liver function.
Inflammation of the liver is brought on by the hepatitis A virus, which causes hepatitis A. (HAV). When an uninfected (and unvaccinated) individual consumes food or water that has been tainted by an infected person's faeces, the virus is most commonly disseminated.
Complete question:
A 20-year-old male (Ht.: 5'10" Wt.: 165 lbs.) is a college student who spent part of his summer semester in South America. He was volunteering with an organization that was helping to establish safe drinking water in an area of very poor resources. Residents in the area previously used the local river for all of their water needs (e.g., drinking, cooking, bathing, and washing clothes). During his journey home, he began to feel ill. He had little energy, no appetite, and severe headaches, and nothing he ate seemed to agree with him. He felt nauseated, he began to have diarrhea, and he soon developed a fever. He began to show evidence of jaundice.What are the signs and symptoms related to hepatitis?
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according to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. in addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
The nurse should consider improving the staff's use of restraint procedures. That is option D.
Who is a restrained client?A restrained client is the client that is placed in a confined environment that limits their movement without being supervised. Some of the client's that may require being restrained include the following:
when the patient is exhibiting a harmful behaviourduring a surgical procedurewhen a patient is agitating beyond controla psychotic patient that is uncooperative.The long-term goal of the debriefing after restraining a client is to improve aggression management procedures so that prevention of aggression improves and the frequency of restraint use decreases.
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Complete question:
According to hospital protocol, after a client is restrained, the staff meet and discuss the restraint situation. In addition to sharing feelings and offering support, what should the nurse identify as the long-term goal for the debriefing?
a) deciding when to release the client from restraints
b) comparing the perceptions of the various staff members
c) providing feedback to each other on how procedures were handled
d) improving the staff's use of restraint procedures
a nurse is preparing to suction a patient. the pulse is 65 and pulse oximetry is 94%. which finding will cause the nurse to stop suctioning?
Pulse oximetry reads 94% and the pulse is 65. Which discovery will prompt the nurse to halt suctioning? When oxygen saturation reaches 88%, stop.
A technique called pulse oximetry is performed to determine the blood's oxygen saturation level. It is a simple, painless test to determine how well oxygen is being delivered to the body parts that are farthest from the heart, such the arms and legs.A typical oximetry reading is what?
95% or more oxygen is considered to be a normal level. 90% of patients with sleep apnea or chronic lung illness may have normal levels. The "SpO2" value on a pulse oximeter displays the blood's oxygen content as a percentage. Call your healthcare practitioner if the SpO2 level you take at home is less than 95%.
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A patient with BLANK a in place does not want any emergency procedure including BLANK
A patient with cardiac arrest, a in place does not want any emergency procedure including surgery.
What is emergency?Emergency is an unpredictable event that requires immediate action to protect lives or property. It can be a natural disaster such as an earthquake, flood, or tornado, or a man-made disaster such as a building fire or hazardous material accident. In an emergency, quick and effective response is essential. That's why it's important to have an emergency plan in place and to be aware of ways to protect yourself and your family. Emergency preparedness includes having a plan in place and the necessary supplies on hand to respond to and recover from an emergency. It also includes staying informed about potential dangers and knowing what to do when an emergency arises.
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Mandatory ethics is a higher level of ethical practice that addresses doing what is in the best interest of clients. FALSE
Mandatory ethics is a higher level of ethical practice that addresses doing what is in the best interest of clients. The given statement is false.
The study of ethics, often known as moral philosophy, "involves systematising, defending, and endorsing conceptions of good and bad action. Axiology is a subfield of philosophy that consists of the fields of ethics and aesthetics. These fields are concerned with issues of value.
Through the definition of terms like good and evil, right and wrong, virtue and vice, justice and crime, ethics aims to answer concerns about human morality. Moral philosophy has connections to value theory, descriptive ethics, and moral psychology as areas of academic study. In order to understand what is morally right or wrong, just or unjust, ethics explores the intellectual justifications for our electrolyte moral judgements. Ethics, in a broader sense, considers how people interact with one another and with the natural world.
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michael finds that getting away from the office at lunchtime to take a long walk helps him control his stress. michael is using as a stress management technique. a. time management b. nutrition c. exercise d. relaxation
Michael is using as a stress management technique Exercise is the correct option for the given question so option C is correct
Stress management technique Mindfulness Meditation. Mindfulness meditation is a form of meditation that teaches individuals to be mindful and aware of their thoughts, feelings, and physical sensations in the present moment. This technique is designed to help individuals learn to observe their thoughts and feelings without judgment and to cultivate a sense of acceptance and compassion for themselves. Mindfulness meditation can be practiced for just a few minutes at a time and can be done anywhere, such as at home or in the workplace. During a mindfulness meditation session, individuals can focus their attention on their breath or on an object or phrase. This can help them to become more aware of their thoughts and feelings while allowing them to practice being non-judgmental and accepting of their experiences. Additionally, mindfulness meditation can help individuals recognize and manage stress triggers, allowing them to respond to challenging situations with greater composure.
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barbara is 65 years of age, and her doctor finds her mental function is declining. which of the following may improve her mental status? group of answer choices taking protein supplements maintaining a sedentary lifestyle eating a primarily plant-based dietary pattern resting the brain and avoiding brain games
Barbara is 65 years of age, and her doctor finds her mental function is declining therefore the following which may improve her mental status is by taking protein supplements which is therefore denoted as option A.
What is a Protein?
This is referred to as a biomolecule which consists of amino acids and it is important in the growth and repair of wornout tissues in the body system of an organism.
Intake of protein by individuals raises the levels of another amino acid called tyrosine, which prompts the brain to manufacture norepinephrine and dopamine.
These are chemical messengers which are involved in the optimal functioning of the brain will improve her mental status which is therefore the reason why option A was chosen as the correct answer.
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sally has been smoking cigarettes for 10 years. she is now pregnant. her doctor explained that maternal smoking carries a greater risk of
Maternal smoking carries a greater risk of abnormal bleeding.
What is maternal?of, relating to, belonging to, the or characteristics of the mother : motherly. maternal and love. maternal instincts. : related through a mother. his maternal aunt
Smoking doubles your risk.
Maternal health refers to their Healthcare of the women during their pregnancy, childbirth and the postnatal period. Each of the stage should be the positive experience, ensuring women and their babies reach their full of potential for health and well-being.
of abnormal bleeding hemorrhoids during the pregnancy and the delivery of the women.This can put out both you and your baby and in dangerous. Smoking raised any onesbaby's risky for birth defects, including the cleft lip, cleft palate, or it can be both. A clefs is an openings to in your baby's lip and her or in the roof of her mouths (palate).
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Which of the following pathways would be activated in the liver? A) gluconeogenesis. B) TCA cycle. C) ketone body synthesis. D) Both A and C
Gluconeogenesis pathway would be activated in the liver. Non-carbohydrate substrates undergo a process called glucoseneogenesis, which results in the production of glucose.
Gluconeogenesis (GNG) is a metabolic process by which some carbon substrates that aren't carbohydrates are converted into glucose. In addition to bacteria, fungi, and other microbes, it occurs in all living things. In vertebrates, the liver and the cortex of the kidneys are the primary locations for gluconeogenesis to take place. One of the two main methods that humans and many other animals employ to regulate blood sugar levels and prevent low levels is the breakdown of glycogen. Gluconeogenesis happens in ruminants regardless of fasting, low-carb diets, exercise, etc. because dietary carbs frequently get digested chest tube by rumen microbes. During fasting, famine, low-carb diets, or periods of strenuous exercise, the procedure takes place in a lot of other animals.
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4700/87the health care provider orders the following interventions for a 67-kg patient who has septic shock with abp of 70/42 mm hg and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. in which order will the nurse implement theactions?
Eating a healthier diet with less salt, exercising regularly, and taking medications can help lower blood pressure.
Blood pressure is the force of your blood pushing against the walls of your arteries. Each time your heart beats, it pumps blood into the arteries. Your blood pressure is highest when your heart beats, pumping the blood. A condition in which the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high. Usually hypertension is defined as blood pressure above 140/90, and is considered severe if the pressure is above 180/120. High blood pressure often has no symptoms. Over time, if untreated, it can cause health conditions, such as heart disease and stroke.
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hank has alzheimer's disease and has recently become unresponsive, recognizing no one, and having no idea who he is. he is most likely in which stage of the disease?
Hank is in the third stage of Alzheimer's disease as he is having symptoms of recently becoming unresponsive, recognizing no one, and having no idea who he is.
Over 65-year-olds are primarily affected by Alzheimer's disease. It's normal to experience minor functional issues like forgetfulness at this age. However, this loss will occur more quickly in people with stage 2 Alzheimer's than it will in people of comparable age who do not have the disease. For instance, a person might forget well-known words, a relative's name, or where they put something.
Caregiver assistance: Stage 2 symptoms are not disruptive to work or social life. Memory issues are still extremely moderate, so friends and relatives might not notice them.
mild deterioration or impairment
In stage 3, the signs of Alzheimer's are less distinct.
The symptoms will gradually become better over the course of 2 to 4 years, although the full stage lasts roughly 7 years. The symptoms may only be noticeable to those close to the person in this stage. The standard of their work will drop, and they can struggle to pick up new abilities.
Finding it difficult to remember the appropriate words or names forgetting what you just read forgetting new names or individuals misplacing or losing a valuable object losing focus when taking a test are further instances of stage 3 symptoms and indicators.
To find cases of memory loss, a doctor or clinician may need to perform a more thorough interview than usual.
Support for the caregiver: At this point, someone with Alzheimer's may require counseling, particularly if they have demanding job duties. Denial and mild to moderate anxiety are possible.
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the term cerebral dominance designates the hemisphere that is dominant for language. t or f
The term cerebral dominance designates the hemisphere that is dominant for language. The given statement is true.
The ability of one cerebral hemisphere, sometimes known as the left or right side of the brain, to mainly control particular tasks is known as cerebral dominance. As a result, harm to a particular hemisphere may cause an impairment of some clearly defined functions.
The ability of one cerebral hemisphere, sometimes known as the left or right side of the brain, to mainly control particular tasks is known as cerebral dominance. As a result, harm to a particular hemisphere may cause an impairment of some clearly defined functions.
The possibility of using handedness as an auxiliary indicator of cerebral lateralization for language function has long piqued the interest of neuropsychologists.
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a parent reports that the 6-year-old daughter recently began wetting the bed and running a low-grade fever. a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (uti) was made following a urinalysis that came back positive for bacteria and protein. antibiotics have been prescribed for the child. what are appropriate nursing interventions? select all that apply.
A diagnosis of urinary tract infection (uti) was made following a urinalysis that came back positive for bacteria and protein and antibiotics have been prescribed for the child therefore the appropriate nursing interventions include the following below which is option A and B:
Assess the parent's understanding of UTI and its causes. Instruct the parent to administer the antibiotic as prescribed, even if the symptoms diminish.What is UTI?This is known as urinary tract infection and it is an infection of the urinary system which mostly affects the bladder and urethra. It is caused by bacteria and is treated using antibiotics in which the dosage must be completed even if symptoms diminish
The parent's understanding of UTI and its cause should also be assessed so as to prevent any form of reoccurrence.
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The options are:
Assess the parent's understanding of UTI and its causes. Instruct the parent to administer the antibiotic as prescribed, even if the symptoms diminish.Discontinue treatment as as soon as symptoms disappear.which of following process will reduce the fatigue effect on the life of a boat made of aluminum alloy to be used in the west coast if atlantic ocean? i. applying extra cold work on the alloy ii. heating the alloy to high temperature and quench it iii. drilling a hole to remove the water inside to boat iv. making all the outer surfaces shiny and smooth
ii. Heating the alloy to high temperature and quench it. This may reduce the fatigue effect of alloys. The alloys' fatigue impact might be lessened as a result.
Approximately one-third of an alloy's tensile strength is reserved for fatigue resistance. When employing high strength Al alloys in applications where fatigue is a limiting feature, engineers are required to create solutions that work around this restriction. The fatigue strength of aluminium alloys has improved, but not by nearly as much as it would for steel despite the materials scientists' best attempts to change their microstructure.
A specific fatigue limit exists for some metals, including ferrous and titanium alloys. The maximum amount of entirely reversed bending stress that a material can bear for a certain number of cycles without breaking is what is referred to as the fatigue strength in materials that do not have a clear limit.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who admits to having taken anabolic steroids to enhance his cycling ability. what schedule medication was this patient abusing?
Technically referred to as anabolic-androgenic steroids (AASs), steroids are a form of synthetic testosterone. The natural amounts of testosterone can be increased with them by taking as a supplement.
One hormone that is frequently connected to the male body is testosterone (T). In the body of the typical male, this hormone ranges from 300 to 1,000 nanograms per deciliter (ng/dL). The changes to the male body that occur during puberty, including the deeper voice and increased body hair, are primarily attributed to testosterone. Additionally, it boosts the testicles' capacity to produce sperm. Additionally, Trusted Source is produced by the female body. The use of steroids substance is to maintain healthy bones and sexual function, but it is typically found in lesser concentrations.
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a nurse is reviewing the electrocardiogram (ecg) results. which portion of the conduction system does the nurse consider when evaluating the p wave?
The P wave represents the electrical conduction through both atria the SA node initiates electrical conduction through the atria.
Ineffective airway clearance is characterized by the following signs and symptoms: Abnormal breath sounds Abnormal breathing rate rhythm and depth. Difficulty breathing. In clinical practice, the most sensitive measures of afterload are left ventricular systemic vascular resistance and right ventricular pulmonary vascular pressure.
Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by cardiac output, the mechanism by which blood flows throughout the body, providing blood flow to the brain and other vital organs, among others. Early signs of hypoxia include anxiety, confusion, and restlessness. As hypoxia worsens, the patient's state of consciousness and vital signs worsen.
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a disadvantage of using alfred binet’s concept of mental age in assessing intelligence is that
Adisadvantage of using alfred binet’s concept of mental age in assessing intelligence is that (A) it is inappropriate for adults.
What was Alfred Binet's theory?Alfred Binet's theory can be desceibed as the intelligence which can be defined by the comparison of the performance of children at the same idea however this concept stressed that there are certain tasks that most six-year-olds can complete however the Binet asserted that children who could not complete those tasks were below average.
It should be noted that this concept comes in term of intelligence in that focus on judgment, practical sense, initiative, as well as adaptability even though it is not appropriate for adults.
Therefore, option A is correct.
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missing options:
(A) it is inappropriate for adults
(B) it is based on a negatively skewed distribution
(C) its norms are no longer appropriate
(D) it has a gender bias
(E) it produces unreliable test results among rural children
under what circumstances, or in response to what input, a particular neuron fires. a technique well suited to this purpose is: group of answer choices neuropsychological testing single-cell recording electroencephalography (eeg) magnetic resonance imaging (mri)
Under what circumstances, or in response to what input, a particular neuron fires. a technique well suited to this purpose is single-cell recording.
A method called single-cell recording allows researchers to track changes in a single neuron's voltage or current. It is still conceivable to register a neuron in a living animal, despite the fact that this is a traditional in vitro procedure. Since many years ago, single-cell electrophysiology in vivo has been used.
The essential building blocks of the brain and nervous system are neurons (also known as neurones or nerve cells). The cells known as neurons are responsible for receiving sensory data from the outside world, sending motor instructions to our muscles, and transforming and relaying electrical signals at each point along the way.
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a patient remains in the labor and delivery unit after a forceps delivery of a 10-lb, 8-oz healthy newborn. thirty minutes after delivery, the patient is reporting severe perineal pain and pressure despite having an epidural. her vital signs are normal except for a heart rate of 122 bpm. what is the first thing the nurse should assess for?
The first thing the nurse should assess for is Hematoma.
Fundus assessment Approximately 1 hour after delivery the fundus is firm and at the navel level. The fundus continues to descend into the pelvis at a rate of about 1 cm or finger width per day and becomes impalpable at 14 days of age.
The most common cause of PPH is uterine atony. Patients at increased risk for uterine atony include patients with severe uterine dilation with prolonged or rapidly progressing labor use of oxytocin to induce or augment labor and use of magnesium sulfate. A complete assessment of neonatal care should include measurements such as weight length head circumference and vital signs.
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Digestive health is affected by age. Determine whether each of the digestive processes increases or decreases with age.- Hydrochloric acid production- Intrinsic factor production- Lactase production- Gallbladder function- Constipation
age-related declines : - The synthesis of hydrochloric acid - The creation of intrinsic factors - Lactase synthesis Function of the gallbladder Constipation
age-related increases : - transit period in the intestines
This review article attempts to close the information gap between the effects of malnutrition on senior patients' health condition and the functional deterioration of the aging gastrointestinal tract (GIT). The mechanical disintegration of food, gastrointestinal motor function, food transit, chemical food digestion, and intestinal wall functionality are all affected by aging in the GIT.
These changes gradually reduce the GIT's capacity to supply the aging organism with proper levels of nutrients, which aids in the emergence of malnutrition. The development of a variety of illnesses linked to most organ systems, in particular the neurological, muscoskeletal, cardiovascular, immunological, and skin systems, is increased by malnutrition as a result.
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on the first postoperative day. the nurse finds an older male client disoriented and trying to climb over the bed railing. previously he was oriented to person place and time on admission. which intervention should the nurse implement first? assess the client for pain.
The nurse should review with the client that he is in the hospital.
Postoperative care is the treatment you receive following a surgical procedure. The type of postoperative care you require is determined by the type of surgery you had as well as your medical history. Pain management and wound care are frequently included. Postoperative care begins immediately after surgery.
Postoperative fever, atelectasis, wound infection, embolism, and deep vein thrombosis are all common general postoperative complications (DVT). Postoperative complications are most common between one and three days after surgery. Proper hydration is crucial for adequate wound healing. Dehydration can contribute to poor oxygen perfusion and prevent necessary nutrients from reaching the wound. Furthermore, staying hydrated can help to prevent complications like deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
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after ocnducting a detailed study of a traumatic brain injury a researcher comes to the conclsuiont hat there are multiple areas in the brain responsible for automatic memories which of the following types of reserach was probably used to make this assessment?
after ocnducting a detailed study of a traumatic brain injury a researcher comes to the conclsuiont hat there are multiple areas in the brain responsible for automatic memories. Case study was used to make this assessment.
An in-depth analysis of a specific subject, such as a person, organisation, location, event, business, or phenomenon, is known as a case study. Case studies are extensively utilised in social, educational, clinical, and business research.
An abrupt trauma that damages the brain can result in traumatic brain injury (TBI), a type of acquired brain injury. TBI can occur when the brain is pierced by an object that pierces the skull or when the head strikes something abruptly and violently.
Complete question:
after ocnducting a detailed study of a traumatic brain injury a researcher comes to the conclsuiont hat there are multiple areas in the brain responsible for automatic memories which of the following types of reserach was probably used to make this assessment?
case study
c t scan
imaging diagnosis
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Decompression diving involves more risk than no-decompression diving, and without the proper precautions can become extremely hazardous.TRUE OR FALSE
at a very large incident, the ____ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls.
At a very large incident, the operations section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls.
Emergency Medical Service (EMS) is a branch of emergency services dedicated to providing out-of-hospital acute medical aid and/or transport to definitive care, to patients with diseases and injuries that the patient, or the caregiver, believes constitutes a medical emergency.
The purpose of the Operations Section is to hold out the response activities delineate within the Incident. Action arrange. Operations Section objectives include: to offer disease info to responders, clinicians, the public, and other. They support the event of the Incident Action decide to guarantee it accurately reflects current operations.
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three days after surgery to insert a mechanical mitral valve, the client asks what can be done to muffle the clicking sound since it is embarrassing and others will know an artificial valve is in the heart. the nurse's response should reflect the understanding that the client may be experiencing which concern?
Altered self photo anxiety The guy inquires about how to stop the clicking sound three days after having a robotic mitral valve inserted because it is unsightly and will let folks know a artificial valve exists in the heart.
How does a man-made valve operate?The valve is reached by inserting a tiny tube, typically through the groin or wrist, which then deploys a folding valve and unfolds and rests on atop of the native valve. Both the old valve and the heart don't need to be halted.
What does replacing a valve artificially entail?Surgery can be required to replace the aortic valve if it cannot be mended. In this treatment, the aortic valve is removed and replaced with a mechanical valve, a valve composed of cow, pig, or human heart tissue, or both (biological tissue valve).
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how to detect a fetus? the speed of ultrasound in human body is 1540 m/s. a procedure is performed with a frequency of 2 mhz is used. to monitor the heart rate of a fetus: the maximum speed of a beating heart is 10 cm/s. find the maximum frequency of doppler shift.
The maximum frequency of doppler shift is 4.0002078 Hz.
Frequency is the quantity of occurrences of a repeating event according to unit of time. it's also once in a while known as temporal frequency for clarity, and is wonderful from angular frequency. Frequency is measured in hertz which is identical to at least one occasion per second.
Frequency received by the person from fetus is
V' = (v + v')/(v + v') v
V = (v + 0) +0 (u – 0) 1
Frequency received is
v' = (1540+0.08)/(1540-0.08) 2 = 2.0002078 Hz
So beat frequency will be 4.0002078 Hz
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a client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (fosamax), and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. which morning schedule would indicate to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective?
A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (fosamax), and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. The indication that proves that the nurse that the client teaching has been effective is he takes medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast.
Because of osteoporosis, bones become weak and brittle, making fractures possible even from little pressures like coughing or bending over. The hip, wrist, and spine are the most typical sites for osteoporosis-related fractures. The living tissue that makes up bones is continually being destroyed and rebuilt.
Women who have experienced menopause may use alendronate to both prevent and treat osteoporosis (bone weakening). Additionally, this drug can be used to treat and prevent osteoporosis brought on by prolonged corticosteroid usage in both men and women, as well as to improve bone mass in men with osteoporosis (cortisone-like medicine).
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