Answer:
- Late Pleistocene hominins found only in Europe, Western Asia, and Central Asia; the Shanidar site belongs to this group: Neandertals
- Middle Pleistocene hominin; found in Africa, Asia, Europe; shows a mixture of features from previous and later hominins: Homo_heidelbergensis
Explanation:
Neandertals represent an extinct hominid lineage and the closest evolutionary relatives of humans. Neandertals lived in Europe, Central Asia, the Middle East and western Siberia. This group of extinct hominids appeared around 130,000 years ago until their extinction, approx. 40,000 years ago. On the other hand, Homo_heidelbergensis is an extinct group of Homo_Hominids who lived during the Middle Pleistocene, a time period spanning 780,000-120,000 years ago. Homo_heidelbergensis is considered the most recent common ancestor between H. sapiens (modern humans) and Neanderthals. This species (Homo_heidelbergensis) combined primitive features (e.g., a wide face, and thick arching brow ridges) with modern features (e.g., a large brain capacity).
Which of the following statements best explains the hypothesis that the development of sexual reproduction has resulted in acceleration of the rate of evolution?
(A) Mutations are more likely to occur in spermatogenesis and oogenesis than in mitotically dividing cells.
(B) Sexual reproduction results in more offspring than does asexual reproduction.
(C) Those members of a species that are best adapted to their environment are most likely to be successful in sexual reproduction.
(D) Mutations usually do not occur in the production of spores or in cells dividing by fission.
(E) Sexual reproduction is more likely to result in genetic recombination than is asexual reproduction.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
What protects the living organisms on the earth from extreme heat and extreme cold?
pa help naman po....
Answer:.
Explanation:
Answer:
planetrevolution year different Seaons ..( not sure bout this)Fat cells are expandable. How does this structure relate to a fat cell's function?
A) Fat cells store energy for the body to use later, so being
expandable would help with storage.
B) Fat cells burn energy quickly when other food source is available, so being expandable would help with the rapid burn.
C) Fall cells protect organs, so being expandable can help with cushioning.
D) Fat cells do not expand
Fat cells burn energy quickly when other food source is available, so being expandable would help with the rapid burn.
The relationship between the expandability of fat cells and a fat cell's function is ; ( A ) Fat cells store energy for the body to use later, so being expandable would help with storage.
Fat cells specialized for the storage of energy in human body is the Adipose tissue which can expand between 60 to 70% of the weight of the human body in response to changes in the energy balance of the body.
Adipose tissues store energy in form of triglycerides and in order to store more energy for later use the Adipose would need to be expandable to accommodate the required amount of energy.
Hence we can conclude that the relationship between the expandability of fat cells and a fat cells' function is Fat cells store energy for the body to use later, so being expandable would help with storage.
Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/18033399
how are seasons in the northern hemisphere related to seasons in the southern hemisphere?
Answer: In the Northern Hemisphere, the seasons are the polar opposite of those in the Southern Hemisphere.
Explanation: As a result, winter in Argentina and Australia begins around June. In the Southern Hemisphere, the winter solstice occurs on June 20 or 21, while the summer solstice, the longest day of the year, occurs on December 21 or 22.
hope this helps good luck mate! :)
Answer:
Reveresd.
Explanation:
Northern/Southern
Summer/Winter
Fall/Spring
When it is summer in the northern it is winter in southern. After that the northern goes into fall while the southern goes into spring.
In a changing environment, which of the following would be beneficial for the survival of a species?
O offspring with a variety of phenotypes
O offspring with little variation in phenotype
O offspring that closely resemble their parents
O offspring that are adapted to a specific environment
The last one
Explanation:
Offspring that are adapted to a specific environment is the beneficial for the survival of a species.
What is species?A species is an organism's fundamental unit of classification, taxonomic rank, and biodiversity. The biggest group of organisms in which any two individuals of the right sexes or mating types can conceive a fertile offspring, usually by sexual reproduction, is referred to as a species.
A species can also be identified by its karyotype, DNA sequence, anatomy, behavior, or ecological niche. In addition, since fossil reproduction cannot be studied, paleontologists use the chronospecies idea.
There are between 8 and 8.7 million different species of eukaryotes, according to the most recent accurate estimate.
All species are given a two-part name, or "binomial," with the exception of viruses.
Therefore, Offspring that are adapted to a specific environment is the beneficial for the survival of a species.
To learn more about species, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/13259455
#SPJ6
Gene regulation is a section of the DNA that contains the genes for the proteins needed for a
specific metabolic pathway.
A True
B False
Answer:
The correct answer is - B. false.
Explanation:
A section or segment of the DNA that contains the genes for the proteins needed for a specific metabolic pathway is called an operon. Gene regulation on other hand is the process of an organism to control which genes are transcribed.
Gene regulation is the ability of turning the genes on or off for transcription. It is regulated by various ways such as chemically modifying genes and using regulatory proteins.
Lactobacillus in yogurt, some Escherichia coli in the intestines of humans and animals, and Rhizobium that fixes atmosphere nitrogen are all considered beneficial bacteria. Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a True b False
Answer: a. True.
Explanation:
Lactobacillus is a genus of gram-positive, facultative or microaerophilic bacteria that produce lactic acid. They are normally found in different parts of the body such as the mouth, digestive tract and vagina. Lactobacilli usually do not cause disease, although they can cause dental caries. Some lactobacilli have a homofermentative metabolism, that is, they produce lactic acid from sugars, which makes their environment acidic and inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria. Some species of Lactobacillus are used in the industry for the production of yogurt, cheese and other fermented foods.
Escherichia coli is a bacterium that is part of the microbiota of the gastrointestinal tract of various animals. It is a gram-negative bacillus, facultative anaerobe, and the most abundant commensal of the microbiota of the gastrointestinal tract where, together with other microorganisms, it is essential for the correct functioning of the digestive process. It also participates in the production of B and K vitamins.
Rhizobium is a genus of gram-negative soil bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen and live in symbiosis with certain plants (such as leguminous plants) in their roots, after a process of infection induced by the plant itself through the secretion of lectin, to which they provide the nitrogen necessary for the plant to live and which in return gives it shelter. Fixation is the combination of molecular nitrogen (N2) with hydrogen or oxygen to give ammonium or oxides that are incorporated into the biosphere. Molecular nitrogen, which is the major component of the atmosphere, is inert and not directly usable by most living things. Therefore, it involves the incorporation of a significant amount of nitrogen into the biosphere.
Therefore, all three are considered beneficial.
Give three reasons why you might have a situation in which bacterial colonies were found on the first section of a streak plate, but not on sections two and three.
Hi. You have not shown the sections this question refers to, nor have you provided more information about those sections. This makes it difficult for your question to be answered. However, I will try to help you as best I can.
Generally speaking, we can consider that there was no growth of bacterial colonies in sections 2 and 3, because, for some reason, the bacteria was not inoculated in sections 2 and 3. What could also have happened, is that the bacteria in the sections 2 and 3 were eliminated, but the bacteria from section 1 managed to survive and form colonies.
Another possibility is that after inoculating the bacteria in section 1, you didn't handle the bacteria correctly in the other sections, leaving that bacteria to dry out and die.
Finally, the culture media in sections 2 and 3 could be inappropriate for bacteria to develop and form colonies.
Which statement describes a feedback mechanism involving the human pancreas?
1
The production of estrogen stimulates the formation of gametes for sexual reproduction.
2
The level of oxygen in the blood is related to heart rate
3
The level of sugar in the blood is affected by the amount of insulin in the blood
The production of urine allows for excretion of cell waste
The level of sugar in the blood is affected by the amount of insulin in the blood describes a feedback mechanism involving the human pancreas.
What is Pancreas?This acts as an organ and a gland and is involved in the production of insulin which regulates sugar level in the blood.
It decreases the sugar level which is why option 3 was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
Read more about Pancreas here https://brainly.com/question/401066
#SPJ1
Hownis the total magnification of a cell calculated
Answer:
The total magnification of a cell is calculated by multiplying the magnification of the ocular lens (also known as eyepiece lens) and the objective lens.
which of the following is not possible consequence of surface meaning?
Dichotomous key (PLZ HELPLPP)
Answer:
The answers are the following.
Explanation:
The candy no. 3 and 4 is hard whereas the candy no. 5 and 7 is not hard. The candy no. 3 is on the stick whereas the candy no. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 7 is not on the stick. The snicker and candy no. 7 are long and thin whereas the candy no. 1, 3, 4, 5 are not long and thin. The Snickers candy is made of chocolate whereas the candy no. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 7 are not made of chocolate, they are made of other substances. The candy no. 1 is triangle shaped whereas all the candies except candy no. 1 is not present in triangle shaped.
The average amino acid length of proteins in Escherichia coli is 235. Therefore, according to the video, the elongation time for an average E. coli protein would be about _______seconds.
How is the small ribosomal unit positioned to allow for translation to start at the proper start codon?Choose one:
A. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
B. The start codon sequence is specifically attracted to the P site.
C. Initiation factors position the mRNA accordingly.
D. The small ribosomal subunit starts at the far 5' end of mRNA where the start codon is located.
Answer:
approximately 15 seconds
A. Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Explanation:
In Escherichia coli, it has been shown that the translation elongation rate is approximately 16 amino acids per ribosome per second (16 x 15 = 240). On the other hand, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is a polypurine stretch of variable length present in prokaryotic cells and acts as a ribosomal binding site for the messenger RNA (mRNA). This sequence can base-pair to a complementary sequence known as the 'anti-Shine-Dalgarno sequence' at the 3' end of the bacterial 16S rRNA subunit and is required to initiate the process of translation by which a polypeptide chain is synthesized. Generally, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is located from 10 to 8 nucleotides upstream of the start codon (AUG codon). In E. coli, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is AGGAGGU.
A genetic trait might be caused by incomplete dominance if:
A. red-, white-, and pink-flowered plants grow from the seeds of a
blue-flowered plant.
B. pinks, white, and red-flowered plants grow from the seeds of a
pink-flowered plant.
C. two plants with red flowers are the parents of plants with either
red flowers or white flowers.
O D. two plants with red-and-white flowers are the parents of plants
with either white flowers or pink flowers.
who is the fathers of plants cell
Answer:
explain? are you looking for the male parts of a cell
which of the following hypotheses can be tested with experiments? select all that apply
1.) a diet low in sugar reduces the risk for heart disease
2.) coffee increases subject performance on intelligence tests
3.) people that brush their teeth live longer than those who don't brush their teeth
4.) scientists will find a cure for cancer before the year 2020
I know that 4 isn't the answer so I selected the other three and it said I was wrong. isn't a hypotheses something that can be experimented on so can't all of the three have experiments If I'm making sense
Options 1 and 2 can be tested through experimental procedures.
A hypothesis is an explanation for a given phenomenon from the real world.A testable hypothesis is a plausible explanation that can be proved (or rejected) by an experimental and/or observational procedure. A well-designed experiment should have into account the following characteristics: randomization, replication and local control.Manipulation indicates that one variable (dependent variable) is purposefully changed by the scientist in the environment.The controls must be used to prevent non-controlled factors which might be influencing the outcomes of the experiment.Option 3: it is not possible to carry out an experiment to test this hypothesis.Option 4: it is not a hypothesis and a false anachronic statement (cancer is a multifactorial disease that currently still has not been cured).In conclusion, only Options 1 and 2 can be tested through experimental procedures.
Learn more in:
https://brainly.com/question/17494171
WILL GIVE BRAINLIST TO CORRECT ANSWER
Two of the three points of the cell theory are listed below.
• All new cells come from preexisting ones.
• Cells are the basic units of life.
Which of the following is the third point of the cell theory?
O A. All living cells are surrounded by a rigid cell wall.
O B. All living things have many cells.
O C. All living cells have a nucleus.
D. All living things are made of at least one cell.
Answer:
All living things have a nucleus.
Explanation:
Answer:
All living things have a nucleus.
Explanation:
Ape-x
The middle portion of unspecialized mesoderm from which cartilage, bone, and blood develop is called . The mature cells that live in cartilage and maintain the matrix around them are . is a type of cartilage with a net of collagen fibers to help resist compression and tension. Any tissues that exist in layers and form linings or coverings fall into the category of . is the type of connective tissue that forms a structural net to support other cells. Submit Request Answer Provide Feedback Next
Answer:
The correct terms or tissues are :
mesenchyme
chondrocytes
fibrocartilage
stratified epithelia
reticular connective tissue
Explanation:
1. Mesenchyme is comprised of loose cells embedded in a mesh of proteins and fluid that makes the middle portion of the unspecialized mesoderm from which cartilage, bone, and blood develop.
2. The mature cells that live in cartilage and maintain the matrix around them are chondrocytes.
3. Fibrocartilage is a type of cartilage with a net of collagen fibers to help resist compression and tension.
4. Any tissues that exist in layers and form linings or coverings fall into the category of stratified epithelia.
5.. Reticular connective tissue is the type of connective tissue that is a supportive structural network fibre to support other cells.
Please Fill in the blanks (plato)
Immune responses can be either innate (nonspecific) or adaptive (specific). Suppose a person comes into contact with bacteria that cause a disease that the person has experienced previously. The production of antibodies to fight off the infection is considered an _____ response, while the development of a fever to inhibit bacterial growth is considered an _____ response. (the possible answers to the blanks are "Adaptive" and "Innate")
Answer:
adaptive; innate
Explanation:
The adaptive immune system refers to a specific type of immunity which is found only in vertebrates. Adaptive immunity is defined by the presence of specialized immune cells (i.e., lymphocytes such as T and B cells). The B cells produce molecules known as antibodies which destroy specific pathogenic microorganisms (e.g., bacteria, viruses) and thus prevent diseases in the future. On the other hand, the innate immune system is the first (and evolutionary more ancient) defense line against pathogenic infections or tissue injury. Innate immunity includes, among others, physical barriers, anatomical barriers, phagocytic enzymes (i.e., lysozymes), phagocytic cells (i.e., macrophages), inflammation, etc. Inflammation is defined as an innate immune response composed of complex biological processes that protect the body by eliminating harmful microorganisms and intracellular danger signals, thereby regulating signaling pathways of many diseases.
im desprate pleas help !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Answer:a,c,d,b
Explanation:room anatomy
Answer:
1. a
2. b
3. b
4. c
Explanation:
What is the average for the following set of measurements?
3.1 ml, 2.7 mL, 4.6 mL, 1.9 mL, 8.7 ml?
Answer:
The average is 4.2
Explanation:
What would most likely happen to a unicellular if it was exposed to a hypotonic solution for an extended period of time
what is it called when a seismic wave bends as it passed from liquid to solid
Answer:
Refraction
Explanation:
The bending of seismic waves is called refraction. The fact that S-waves do not travel through the outer core suggests that the latter is liquid.
The Nutrition Facts panel provides valuable nutrition information such as serving sizes, nutrient quantities, and Daily Values to assist individuals in making informed food choices. Use the Nutrition Facts panel from a container of cereal below to answer the following questions. Based on one serving, how many grams of total sugar do not come from an added sugar source?
Answer:
The right answer is "3 grams".
Explanation:
Yet another portion doesn't supply about 3 g of sugar from such an increased proportion.
That would be the reason why sugar has been biologically active throughout the cereal's static environment.All cereals that are given above 6 g of sugar for each serving are determined to be harmful as well as reacted by either a cereal that has very little sugar.What are some factors/processes that contribute to genetic Variation:
Meiosis
Crossing Over
Mitosis
Protein Synthesis
Target
37.16) A
is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction without being used up in the reaction.
reactant
lamino
product
catalyst
molecule
Answer:
catalyst
Explanation:
only one make sense
Brainliest pls pls pls
how does the kidney help with excretion
Answer:
kidneys filter about a half cup of blood every minute, removing wastes and extra water to make urine
hola como estan soy nueva
Answer:
Buena gracias
Explanation:
period between two periods of mitosis
Answer:
The period between mitosis divisions - that is , G1 , S and G2 - is known as interphase....