Knight Inventory Systems, Inc., has announced a rights offer. The company has announced that it will take three rights to buy a new share in the offering at a subscription price of $53. At the close of business the day before the ex-rights day, the company’s stock sells for $80 per share. The next morning, you notice that the stock sells for $65 per share and the rights sell for $2 each.

Required:
a. Are the stock and the rights correctly priced on the ex-rights day?
b. Describe a transaction in which you could use these prices to create an immediate profit.

Answer:

d. $36

Explanation:

The Contribution margin is the net of selling price and variable cost of a product. It is calculated by deducting the variable cost from the selling price of a product.

                                          Cake   Pie    Cookies

Current selling price          $30    $18    $5

Variable cost                      $12     $7      $1

Contribution margin           $18     $11     $3

Production hours                2        1.5     0.25

Contribution margin/hr.     $9     $7.33  $12

Required Contribution margin per hour of cake = $12

Required Contribution margin = $12 x 2 = $24

Required Selling Price = Contribution margin + variable cost = $24 + $12 = $36

Note there is a mistake in the calculation of Contribution margin of Cookies as it is given $3 but after deducting the variable cost from selling price is should be $4 ( $5 - $1 ), I used the given contribution margin for the calculation.

Answer:

The following costs are classified appropriately under the following heading:

Direct Material:

Food and water bowls

Dog grooming arm

12 kennels cost

Grooming table

Grooming tub 48"

Shampoo (Crystal Clear:  five-gallon pail)

Cage bank (set of five)

Salon Tuff Capri mobile carry cart

Towels

Scissors (7-inch straight,  ear & nose)

Toys (used in day care only)

Cleaning products (used  throughout)

Dryer

Direct Labour:

Groomer

Day care attendant

Receptionist

Kennel attendant

Rubberized flooring (day care)

Overhead:

Fencing for day care area

Installation of fencing

Utilties and insurance

Heating system

Draw

Period Cost:

Depreciation on kennels

Rent

Depreciation on heating system X

Clippers

Loan

Explanation:

Answer: False

Explanation:

Licensing involves a company giving another company in another country/market permission to produce its products or use its likeness. The company that gets the license will then pay the parent company specified amounts for being able to do so.

This method of international business is cheap as the company licensing will see its brand spread to other countries without actually having to worry about set-up costs in the other country which can be very high. It is therefore one of the easiest methods of expanding to international markets there is.

Answer:

$32,264.07

Explanation:

The computation of the Break-even EBIT  is shown below:

(EBIT ÷ Number of shares) = (EBIT - Interest) ÷ Number of shares  

(EBIT ÷ 10,900) = (EBIT - $66,000 × 0.08) ÷ (10,900 - (66,000 ÷ $37))

(EBIT ÷ 10,900) = (EBIT - $5,280) ÷ (10,900 - 1,783.78)

(EBIT ÷ 10,900) = (EBIT - $5,280) ÷ (9116.22)

After solving this, the value of break-even EBIT is $32,264.07

Answer:

$237,120

Explanation:

year     depreciation %            depreciation expense         book value

1                   33.33%                    $1,066,560                        $2,133,440

2                  44.45%                    $1,422,400                        $711,040

3                  14.81%                      $473,920                           $237,120

the book value at the end of the project's life = $237,120, which is equivalent to 7.41% (the fourth year according to MACRS depreciation)

Answer:

18%

Explanation:

Myers's stock has a beta of 2

The annual risk free rate is 2%

The annual market premium is 8%

Therefore, the expected return for Myers's stock can be calculated as follows

= 2% + (2×8%)

= 2% + 16%

= 18%

Hence the expected return for Myers's stock is 18%

Answer:

WACC = 8.97%

Explanation:

total value of equity = $70 x 4,000,000 = $280,000,000

cost of equity:

$70 = $4.4935 / (Re - 4.5%)

Re - 4.5% = 6.42%

Re = 10.92%

total value of debt:

$75 million x 0.95 = $71,250,000

YTM = {70 + [(1,000 - 950)/25]} / [(1,000 + 950)/2] = 72 / 975 = 7.3846%

$60 million x 1.07 = $64,200,000

YTM = {60 + [(1,000 - 1,070)/8]} / [(1,000 + 1,070)/2] = 51.25 / 1,035 = 4.9517%

weighted cost of debt = ($71,250,000 / $135,450,000 x 7.3846%) + ($64,200,000 / $135,450,000 x 4.9517%) = 3.8845% + 2.347% = 6.2315%

total value of the firm = $280,000,000 + $135,450,000 = $415,450,000

equity weight = $280,000,000 / $415,450,000 = 0.674

debt weight = 1 - 0.674 =  0.326

WACC = (0.674 x 10.92%) + (0.326 x 6.2315% x 0.79) = 7.36% + 1.605% = 8.965% = 8.97%

Answer:

The company's WACC is 9.71%.

Explanation:

Note: See the attached excel file for the computation of company's Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC).

The weighted average cost of capital (WACC) can be described as the rate that is expected to be paid on average by a company to all holders of its securities to finance the assets of the company.

The following formula are used in the excel file to compute the WACC of the company.

Cost of debt = Type this function that is used in the excel sheet “=Rate(Number of years * 2,((Coupon rate/2)*Par value),-Selling price),Par value)*2*(1 -  Tax rate)”. That is, type “=RATE(27*2,((6.5%/2)*1000),-1080,1000)*2*(1-21%)” in the excel file and press enter. This gives 4.83420280657156%

Note: Make sure you note all the commas and signs in the cost of debt function.

Cost of Common stock/equity using CAMP = Risk-free rate + (Beta * Market risk premium) = 5.4% + (1.18 * 6%) = 12.48%

Cost of preferred stock = (Par value * Dividend rate) / Current price = ($100 * 4.3%) / 88 = 0.0488636363636364’ or 4.88636363636364%

Answer: b. select appropriate corporate-level strategies

Explanation:

Prior to setting pricing options for its products to maximize profit, a company must select appropriate corporate-level strategies.

This is necessary in order to ensure that the strategies aligns with what the organization is willing to do in order to achieve its profit maximization goal.

Answer:

Portfolio return = 0.127744 or 12.7744% rounded off to 12.77%

Explanation:

The portfolio return is a function of the weighted average of the individual stocks returns' that form up the portfolio. The formula for portfolio return is,

Portfolio return = wA * rA  +  wB * rB  +  ...  +  wN * rN

Where,

To calculate the expected return of portfolio, we first need to calculate the individual stock returns.

The expected rate of return of individual stocks can be calculated as follows,

r = pA * rA  +  pB * rB + ... + pN * rN

Where,

For Stock A

rA = 0.17 * -0.188  +  0.45 * 0.102  +  0.38 * 0.286

rA  = 0.12262 or 12.262%

For Stock B

rB = 0.17 * -0.039  +  0.45 * 0.085  +  0.38 * 0.158

rB  = 0.09166 or 9.166%

For Stock C

rC = 0.17 * -0.228  +  0.45 * 0.171  +  0.38 * 0.317

rC  = 0.15865 or 15.865%

Portfolio return = 0.3 * 0.12262  +  0.3 * 0.09166  +  0.4 * 0.15865

Portfolio return = 0.127744 or 12.7744% rounded off to 12.77%

Answer:

the "substantial user" of the facility built with the proceeds of the issue.

Explanation:

An Industrial revenue bond (IRB) can be defined as any municipal debt security issued by a local or state government agency with respect to a private firm which intend to undergo a particular project such as building facilities,  purchasing heavy machinery or equipments.

The interest income received from older Industrial revenue bonds (IRB) may be taxable to the holder at regular income tax rates if the holder is the "substantial user" of the facility built with the proceeds of the issue because in the true sense it is only beneficial to the holder and not the larger community.

Answer: B.  $1,050  more than expected.

Explanation:

The company originally planned to have revenue resulting from 30 customers and charging $30 for an estimated 33 hours.

Estimated revenue was;

= 30 * 30 * 3

= $2,700

However, in actuality, they sold to 20 more customers than estimated but only spent 2.5 hours each.

Number of customers = 30 + 20

= 50 customers

Actual revenue

= 50 * 30 * 2.5

= $3,750

Difference is;

= 3,750 - 2,700

= $1,050 more

Answer:

Option D

Hubris hypothesis

Explanation:

The hubris hypothesis attempts to explain the effect of overconfidence at a managerial level, and how it affects business practices negatively. It can lead to several actions like rash decisions, expensive company acquisitions, and buy-outs e.t.c.

In summary, it tries to explain the effect of pride on clear reasoning and progress at a managerial level in companies.

Therefore, it fits perfectly into the sentence in the question above, as the question is explaining the effect of pride on the performance of newly promoted managers.

Option D is the correct answer

Answer:

Break-even point in units= 6,547 units

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Selling price per unit $160

Variable expense per unit $91.50

Fixed expense per month $429,490

Desired profit= $19,000

To calculate the number of units to be sold, we need to use the break-even point formula:

Break-even point in units= (fixed costs + desired profit) / contribution margin per unit

Break-even point in units= (429,490 + 19,000) / (160 - 91.5)

Break-even point in units= 6,547 units

Answer:

Interest per six months =$64,750 .

Explanation:

Bonds are instruments used by companies, governments and other entries to borrow from the public.

They represent a contractual agreement where  the borrower commits to pay a percentage of the principal amount borrowed plus the principal amount to the lender or investor.

The proportion of the amount borrowed which is paid as interest is called coupon. The interest payment is computed as the the coupon rate in percentage multiplied by the amount borrowed.

Interest payment = Coupon rate (%) × Nominal Value

 Annual interest payment    = 7%  × 1,850,000 =$129,500

Semi-annual interest payment = Annual interest payment/2

Semi-annual interest payment =129,500 /2 =64,750 .

Interest per six months =$64,750 .

Note we had to divide by 2 because they are two six months in a year.

Answer:

$9,250

Explanation:

Calculation for the net differential income from the lease alternative

Lease amount=$45,000

Estimated expenses=$12,000

Net sale of equipment=Sale of equipment through broker $25,000 less 5% commission

Using this formula

Net differential income = Lease amount - estimated expenses - Net sale of equipment

Let plug in the formula

Net differential income= $45,000-$12,000-($25,000-($25,000*5%)

Net differential income=$45,000-$12,000-($25,000-$1,250)

Net differential income=$45,000-$12,000-$23,750

Net differential income=$45,000-$35,750

Net differential income=$9,250

Therefore net differential income from the lease alternative is $9,250

Answer:

The Company should undertake project A.

Explanation:

The finance of projects is usually done through pooling of funds, that is using various sources of finance. The WACC represents the return required by providers of this finance and also shows the risk of the company.

A company will always accept projects that provide a return higher that their weighted average cost of capital (risk) and reject any project offering a return below the WACC.

Conclusion :

The Company should undertake project A as this gives a return higher than the WACC of 8.5%.

Answer:

1. $2,800

2. $40,000

Explanation:

1. The computation of cash dividends is paid during 2015 is shown below:-

                                      Retained earnings

Dividend paid               $2,800         Beginning balance   $8,400

($8,400 + $30,000

- $35,600)                                          Net income                $30,000

Total                              $2,800                                            $38,400

                                                          Ending balance         $35,600

Therefore cash dividends is paid during 2015 is 2,800

2. The computation of cash amount is paid to reduce the notes payable balance in 2015 is shown below:-

                                      Notes payable

Cash paid                        $40,000   Beginning balance   $69,000

($69,000 - $29,000)

Total                                 $40,000                                   $69,000

                                                         Ending balance       $29,000

Therefore cash amount is paid to reduce the notes payable balance

in 2015  is $40,000

Answer:

a) $158.41

Explanation:

Unit product cost under absorption costing = Direct materials + Direct labor + Variable manufacturing overhead + Fixed manufacturing overhead / Total manufactured units

= (214,674 + 121,842 + 243,684 + 319,110) /29,010

= $899,310 / 29,010 unit

= $31 per unit

Ending inventory = $29,010 - $23,900 / $31

= $5110 * 31 per unit  

= $158,410

Answer:

e banking

Explanation:

it is called  e banking ( electronic), because Midhun is using both deposit and withdraw money through internet

Answer:

Hello attached below is the complete question

D1 represents the demand curve reflecting private benefits  ( c )

Explanation:

The effects of an externality is positive( shift of the demand curve to the right ) when  the production of goods and service has a positive effect on the consumers ( people that are not involved in the production process ). this positive effect will lead to an increase in quantity demanded as well from consumers.

The curve ( D1 ) does not represent the social benefits for the consumers but represents the demand curve reflecting private benefits,

Answer:

this bond will trade at $912.05.

Explanation:

There is an Inverse relationship between the yield and the price of bond.

The Bond investment in Sisyphean Company is trading at a discount.

The Price of the Bond, PV can be determined as follows..

PV = ?

FV = $1,000

PMT = ($1,000 × 8​%) ÷ 2 = $40

P/yr = 2

YTM = 9.6​%

n = 8 × 2 = 16

Using a Financial Calculator, the Price of the Bond, PV  is $912.05.

Answer:

9.7%

Explanation:

(1 + nominal interest rate) = (1 + real rate) x (1 + inflation rate)

1.07 = 0.975 x (1 + inflation rate)

(1 + inflation rate) = 1.07 / 0.975

(1 + inflation rate) = 1.097

Inflation rate = 1.097 - 1 = 0.097 = 9.7%

Answer: 1.2

Explanation:

The Coefficient of Variation tells the accuracy of the mean. If it is high then there is a large dispersion around the mean. A smaller figure indicates that the mean is more accurate/ precise.

Coefficient of Variation = Standard Deviation / Expected Return

Coefficient of Variation = 30%/25%

Coefficient of Variation = 1.2

Answer:

a. Determine the predetermined overhead rate.

the predetermined overhead rate = total budgeted overheard costs / total budgeted direct materials used = $840,000 / $400,000 = 2.1 = 210%

b. Write the overhead costs incurred and the amounts applied to jobs during the year using the predetermined overhead rate and determine whether overhead is overapplied or underapplied.

applied overhead costs = actual direct materials x overhead rate = $528,000 x 210% = $1,108,800

over applied overhead = actual overhead - standard overhead = $1,041,000 - $1,108,800 = -$67,800 favorable variance

c. Prepare the adjusting entry to allocate any over- or underapplied overhead to Cost of Goods Sold.

Dr Manufacturing overhead 67,800

    Cr Cost of goods sold 67,800

Explanation:

budget:

overhead costs, $840,000

direct materials costs, $400,000

actual:

overhead costs, $1,041,000

direct materials costs, $528,000

Answer:

Fixed Cost Function = Average Cost - Average Variable cost

Explanation:

A fixed cost is the one which does not changes with the level of production. These cost are irrelevant to number of units production. It is not affected by the units produced and sold. The change in fixed cost does not affect the marginal cost. The marginal cost is the variable cost that is incurred by producing one more unit. These costs are affected by the level of production.

Answer:

Dividend = $2.34

Explanation:

Purchase Price = $55.20

Loss on stock = 18.63% of $55.20 = $10.28

Capital Loss = $12.62

Dividend = Capital Loss - Total Loss

Dividend = $12.62 - $10.28

Dividend = $2.34

Answer:

Cost of equity = 14.74%

Explanation:

The capital asset pricing model is a risk-based model for estimating the return on a stock..

Here, the return on equity is dependent on the level of reaction of the the equity to changes in the return on a market portfolio. These changes are captured as systematic risk.

Systematic risks are those which affect all economic actors in the market, they include factors like changes in interest rate, inflation, etc. The magnitude by which a stock is affected by systematic risk is measured by beta.  

Under CAPM,  

E(r)= Rf + β(Rm-Rf)  

E(r)- cost of equity , Rf-risk-free rate , β= Beta, Rm= Return on market.  

Using this model, we can work out the value of beta as follows:  

β-1.2 Rf- 4.3%, Rm = 13%  

E(r) = 4.3% + 1.2 × (13 - 4.3)%=14.74 %

Expected return = 14.74 %

Cost of equity = 14.74%

Pfd Company has debt with a yield to maturity of 7.5%, a cost of equity of 13.5%, and a cost of preferred stock of 9.5%. The market values of its debt, preferred stock, and equity are $10.5 million, $3.5 million, and $24.5 million, respectively, and its tax rate is 40%. What is this firm's weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?

Answer:

10.68%

Explanation:

As we know that:

WACC = Ke * Ve / (Ve + Vpref + Vd (1-Tax))

+   Kd * Vd*(1-tax) / (Ve + Vpref + Vd*(1-Tax))

  +   Kpref * Vpref / (Ve + Vpref + Vd (1-Tax))

Here

Ke is 13.5%

Pre tax Kd is 7.5%

Kpref is 9.5%

Ve is value of equity and is $24.5 million

Vpref is value of equity $3.5 million

Vd is $10.5 million

Tax rate is 40%

By putting the values, we have:

WACC =       13.5% *$24.5 / ($24.5m + $3.5m + $10.5m (1-40%))

                   + 7.5% * (1-40%) * $45m / ($24.5m + $3.5m + $10.5m (1-40%))

                   + 9.5% * $3.5m / ($24.5m + $3.5m + $10.5m (1-40%))

WACC = 0.045 * 0.273   +   0.095 * 0.091  +  0.135 * 0.636

= 10.68%