Episodes of binge eating followed by efforts to make up for the excessive amounts of food consumed are characteristics of bulimia nervosa.
The two primary episodes of the eating disorder bulimia nervosa are compulsive eating (binge eating), in which the individual consumes a lot of food quickly, and compensatory behaviors, in which the person may vomit, overdo it physically, or use laxatives to reduce weight after binge eating.
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder in which a person consumes a lot of food, which causes them to lose weight. Anorexia nervosa is a syndrome of self-starvation that involves a weight loss of at least 15% of optimum body weight, whereas patients with bulimia nervosa are normal weight or above. These are the main differences between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.
It is unclear what specifically causes bulimia. Numerous factors, such as genetics, biology, emotional health, societal expectations, and others, might contribute to the development of eating disorders.
The complete question is:-
Is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by attempts to compensate for the excessive amount of food that was consumed.
Prader-Willi syndrome
morbid obesity
anorexia nervosa
bulimia nervosa
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A sudden decrease in oxygen to some of the brain cells when blood can't reach part of the brain. Symptoms include weakness or partial to complete paralysis of one side of the body and/or trouble speaking.
Stroke
Heart Attack
Hypertension
Answer:
Stroke.
Explanation:
The symptoms of a stroke include: Sudden numbness or weakness in the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body. Sudden confusion, trouble speaking, or difficulty understanding speech. Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes. Sudden trouble walking, dizziness, loss of balance, or lack of coordination.
the 4 components of health related fitness are muscular fitness, muscular flexibility, , and cardio respiratory endurance.
Body composition, muscular endurance, muscular strength, cardiovascular endurance, and flexibility are all aspects of health-related fitness.
Physical activity is any skeletal muscle-driven movement of the body that requires energy to complete. The improvement or maintenance of physical fitness is the ultimate or interim purpose of exercise, a type of physical activity. It is planned, systematic, and repetitive. A two-compartment model can be used to express body composition as the proportion of fat and fat-free tissue in total body mass. The capacity of a muscle to produce force at high intensities for brief periods of time is known as muscular strength. It is able to be evaluated statically or dynamically. The capacity of a muscle to carry out repetitive contractions over an extended period of time is known as muscular fitness.
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They works by entering a cell of the body, known as the host cell, and producing more. It kill the host cell and spread throughout the body. Antibiotics do not work against.
Bacteria
Viruses
Hypertension
a treatment aimed at alleviating the symptoms associated with early nslbp or preventing its progression is considered to be
Secondary prevention is the use of a treatment that aims to reduce the signs and symptoms of early NSLBP or stop it from progressing.
NSLBP is a catch-all name for a range of somatic conditions that generate pain in the lumbosacral region (musculoskeletal dysfunctions). It can be described as lumbosacral pain that doesn't have a significantly identified pathophysiology.
In order to stop or limit the progression of disease or injury, secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment, encouragement of self-care practices to avoid reinjury or recurrence, and the implementation of initiatives to restore people to their prior levels of health and function.
There are three categories of preventative strategies: primary, secondary, and tertiary. Primary prevention refers to actions taken before a disease or illness even manifests. The focus of secondary prevention is on identifying disease risks and putting in place the specific testing required for early disease identification. Patients who have been diagnosed with a chronic condition are the focus of tertiary prevention, which also includes suggestions and initiatives to enhance their quality of life.
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heritability enrichment of specifically expressed genes identifies disease-relevant tissues and cell types
Heritability is the extent to which a person's genetic variants may sufficiently account for the variances in their characteristics.
A complicated disease or trait's relevant tissues and cell types can be identified systematically using genetics. For the purpose of creating ex vivo models, tracking non-coding allelic function, and selecting therapeutic targets, it is essential to identify these tissues and cell types. A tool for examining the genetic architecture of complex phenotypes is genomic partitioning. In order to better understand how causal variations are distributed throughout the genome, it includes estimating heritability contributions from subsets of predictors. the percentage of variance in a population trait that is due to genetic inheritance. Estimates of heritability are frequently given in percentages and range from 0 to 1. The degree to which genetic variations among persons may adequately explain the variations in their attributes is known as heritability.
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which of the following is not a factor that contributes to high healthcare costs in the united states?
Decrease in drug prices is not a factor that contributes to high healthcare costs in the United States.
High healthcare costs inflate the earnings of the many suppliers and build the trade unnecessarily giant. the value of employer-provided insurance, mostly invisible to workers, not solely holds down wages however additionally destroys jobs, particularly for fewer delicate staff, and replaces sensible jobs with worse jobs at lower wages.
Higher drug price is typically the results of drug patents that pharmaceutical companies hold. Strategic drug patenting prevents companies that build generic medication from competitive . this could be as a results of their generic merchandise would be subject to court action.
The question is incomplete, find the complete question here
which of the following is not a factor that contributes to high healthcare costs in the united states?
Aging population
Chronic disease prevalence
Healthcare service costs
Decrease in drug prices
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Women who develop high glucose levels during pregnancy.
Type 2
Type 1
Gestational diabetes
most of those who commit violent crimes have autism spectrum disorder. posttraumatic stress disorder. antisocial personality disorder. no mental illness.
The majority of violent criminals suffer from antisocial personality disorder, often known as sociopathy.
A person who continuously disregards right and wrong and the rights and sentiments of others is said to have sociopathy, a mental disease. A personality illness known as antisocial personality disorder (ASPD or less often APD) is defined by a pattern of long-term disdain for or violation of the rights of others as well as trouble maintaining long-term relationships. Lack of empathy is frequently evident, along with a history of disobeying the law and other rules, a propensity for substance misuse, and impulsive and violent conduct. Antisocial personality disorder patients are unlikely to think they need assistance.
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A therapist takes a very directive role in challenging the client; she even assigns homework to confront those beliefs and modify the client's behavior. She is probably a ________ therapist.
Rational emotive behavioral
A therapist takes a very directive role in challenging the client; she even assigns homework to confront those beliefs and modify the client's behavior. She is probably a rational emotive behavioral therapist.
A therapist is someone who provides various types of therapy. Therapists are trained professionals who provide a variety of services, such as psychologists, social workers, counsellors, life coaches, and others. They are useful in counseling people with various mental and physical issues. A therapist or licensed counselor must pass a state licensure exam and should have a master's degree in addition to completing an internship with a practicing Supervisor.
Rational emotive behavior therapy (REBT) was developed by Albert Ellis in the 1950s. It's a method for identifying irrational beliefs and negative thought patterns that can lead to emotional or behavioral problems. REBT is based on the premise that most people want to succeed in life. For example, you most likely want to achieve your goals and be happy.
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according to the national federation of state high school associations (nfhs) athletic participation report for 2014-2015, which of the following statements is true?
Opportunities for students with disabilities to participate in adapted sports are increasing.
Option D
What is the High school?The high school is the level of education that lies between the middle school and the tertiary level. We know that at this level of schooling, there are a lot of sporting activities that the individual could be able to become involved in.
The body that is responsible for the coordination of the athletics events for all the students at the high school level is the National Federation of State High School Associations. It is the responsibility of the organization to supervise the development of the athletics competition in all the states that are known across the country at the high school level of education.
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Missing parts;
According to the National Federation of State High School Associations (NFHS) Athletic Participation report for 2014-2015, which of the following statements is true?
Student participation at the collegiate level declined significantly.
Girls' participation decreased in traditionally male sports such as wrestling and football.
The participation of female students in high school athletics reached an all-time low.
Opportunities for students with disabilities to participate in adapted sports are increasing.
According to the National Federation of State High School Associations (NFHS) Athletic Participation report for 2014-2015, which of the following statements is true?
Student participation at the collegiate level declined significantly.
Girls' participation decreased in traditionally male sports such as wrestling and football.
The participation of female students in high school athletics reached an all-time low.
Opportunities for students with disabilities to participate in adapted sports are increasing.
nutrients are group of answer choices units of measure that indicate the amount of energy in a particular food. the healthful compounds found in vitamins and minerals. made up of three basic food groups: proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. the constituents in food that the body requires to function properly.
The components of food known as nutrients are what the body needs to function effectively. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, vitamins, and minerals are just a few of the different types of nutrients found in food.
They are crucial for the structure, operation, control, and repair of the body's tissues and organs and carry out the majority of their job within cells. The body gets its energy from fats. Each gramme of fat has more than twice as many calories as a gramme of protein or carbohydrate (9 kcal per gram). Vitamins aid in the control of bodily chemical processes. They aid in warding off infections and keeping our bodies healthy. Minerals are nutritional ingredients that are essential to numerous bodily processes. They are crucial for maintaining optimum health and ensuring that the body develops properly.
Thus, it can be said that the nutrients found in food are what the body requires to function properly. Among the many different types of nutrients present in food are vitamins, minerals, lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and a host of other substances.
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administer a nitrate antihypertensive. assess the client for bladder distention. place the client in a high-fowler's position. obtain the client's heart rate.
the nurse should take Suction saliva from the client's mouth from the client who is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia and has quadriplegia from a spinal cord injury and reports having a severe headache.
Tetraplegia, commonly referred to as quadriplegia, is a type of paralysis that affects the torso as well as the four limbs . Many tetraplegics are fully immobile, and the majority of them have substantial paralysis below the neck.This type of paralysis is frequently the result of damage to the spinal cord at a high level, typically in the cervical spine between C1 and C7. The harm will be more severe the higher the injury. In fact, C1 and C2 spinal cord injuries frequently result in instant death because they impair the ability to control breathing and other vital processes.
A nurse is caring for a client who has quadriplegia from a spinal cord injury and reports having a severe headache. The nurse obtains a blood pressure reading of 210/108 mm Hg and suspects the client is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? 1.Administer a nitrate antihypertensive.2.Assess the client for bladder distention.3.Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.4.Obtain the client's heart rate.
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Which of the following best describes sanitizing?A.MAKING SOMETHING FREE FROM DIRT AND MESSB.WASHING WITH THE USE OF CHEMICALSC.REDUCING THE NUMBER OF HARMFUL GERMSD.REMOVING BACTERIA AND OTHER MICROGANISMS FROM SURFACE
Answer:
C. Reducing the number of harmful germs.
Explanation:
To sanatize means to make clean and hygienic; to disinfect.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is having modified radical mastectomy of the right breast. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Instruct the client that the drain will be removed when there is 25 mL of output or less over a 24-hr period.
B. Assist the client to start arm exercises 48 hr after surgery.
C. Maintain the right arm in an extended position at the client's side when in bed.
D. Place the client in a supine position for the first 24 hr after surgery.
The client should be told by the nurse that the drain will be taken out when there is 25 mL or less of output in a 24-hour period having radical mastectomy.
What's the difference between a mastectomy and a radical mastectomy?A basic mastectomy (left) just removes the skin, breast tissue, nipple, and areola; it leaves some lymph nodes behind. The entire breast, along with the breast tissue, skin, areola, and nipple, as well as the majority of the arm (axillary) lymph nodes, are removed during a modified radical mastectomy (right).
How long is the recovery from a radical mastectomy?Most patients who undergo a radical mastectomy spend 1-2 nights in the hospital. Recovery takes roughly 4 weeks when done at home.
Do nipples still get hard after mastectomy?After NSM, the nipple will always be upright. Sensitivity loss: The nerves that regulate feeling and sensation in the nipple/areola are lost along with the rest of the breast tissue, but the nipple/areola remains.
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1. A diet that's high in which of the following can contribute to the development of chronic diseases?
A. Saturated fat, potassium, and sugar
B. Saturated fat, sodium, and amino acids
C. Saturated fat, sodium, and sugar
D. Unsaturated fat, sodium, and sugar
is activating the body in times of emergency, for example, by increasing the heart rate, dilating the pupils of the eyes, or inhibiting digestion.
Heart rate increases as a result of sympathetic system nerve stimulation, as it does during the "fight-or-flight" reaction.
The autonomic nervous system regulates a variety of bodily functions, including the following: arterial pressure breathing and heart rates. The parasympathetic nerve system speeds up digestion while slowing down breathing and heart rate. The construction of pupils is the outcome of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. reduced blood pressure and heart rate. The spinal cord is the primary source of preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic pathway. A parasympathetic reaction is a slowing of the heartbeat. On the target organ, norepinephrine is released by parasympathetic neurons, whereas acetylcholine is released by sympathetic neurons.
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if someone routinely responds to stress with a learned helplessness response, their response will involve ___
If someone routinely reacts to stress with a learned helplessness reaction, that reaction is involved. a passive resignation or passivity in the face of adversity.
Resignation is a psychological phenomenon in which an individual resigns himself or herself to a situation, often without actively participating in it. This typically occurs in situations where an individual does not have the power to make a change, or when they feel that the effort to do so is not worth the reward. Passive resignation is often characterized by feelings of helplessness and resignation, and may result in apathy or lack of motivation. It can also be a sign of learned helplessness, in which an individual becomes so accustomed to not being able to change a situation that they stop even trying.
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True or False? The proliferation of health care delivery through managed care created a decreased demand for primary care physicians.
The need for primary care doctors has declined as managed care has become more prevalent in the delivery of healthcare. In the context of healthcare, the assertion is untrue.
One kind of health insurance program is a managed care plan. Healthcare organizations that specialize in managed care plans manage care for subscribers to control costs and maintain high standards of care. Medicaid, Medicare, and the private sectors all provide managed care programs. The names United HealthCare, Anthem, and Humana are well-known. A modification of James Reason's Swiss Cheese Model, the healthcare error proliferation model demonstrates the complexity of the modern healthcare delivery system and the role that human error plays in it.
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Consider a class in which your grade depends entirely on one difficult final exam with a teacher who grades harshly. According to the optimal arousal theory, you would likely feel too...stressed to do well because the class's arousal levels are too high.
Think about a class where the sole determinant of your grade is a challenging final test and a strict teacher. According to the optimum arousal theory, the arousal levels in the class are likely too high for you to perform successfully since you would feel too anxious. It is accurate.
don't have a lot or any influence over how something will turn out. have obligations that feel excessive. lack of employment, activity, or changes in your life. encounter abuse, hatred, or discrimination. Eat a balanced diet, get adequate sleep, and work out frequently. Relax by yourself.Would feel anxious,To relieve stress, try yoga, swimming, prayer, breathing exercises, or meditation. Spend time outdoors or in quiet music.
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The curriculum of physical education differs distinctly from those of other subjects in terms of space, activities, and relationships. true or false.
True that The physical education curriculum differs markedly from other subjects in terms of space, activities and relationships
Physical education is an important part of any school curriculum and is designed to provide students with the knowledge, skills and attitudes they need to lead healthy, active lifestyles. In a physical education curriculum, students learn about physical fitness, human anatomy, nutrition, sports and other recreational activities. Physical education classes typically include instruction in health and wellness, body development, motor skills, physical fitness and team sports.Physical education classes also include physical activities such as running, jumping, throwing, catching, and other activities. These activities help students to develop physical fitness and teach them about proper body mechanics and techniques. Students are also taught about the importance of teamwork, sportsmanship, and respect for their peers.
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Andy was recently diagnosed with schizophrenia. His family has learned the major symptoms of this disorder. Which of these is NOT one of those major symptoms?
Andy was just given a diagnosis of schizophrenia. His family is now aware of the key symptoms of this disorder and realizes that remorse is not one of them.
Typical symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations, strange physical behavior, disorganized thinking, and delusions, which are mistaken beliefs. People with schizophrenia frequently experience paranoid ideas or hear voices. It is unclear what specifically causes schizophrenia. According to research, a person's likelihood of developing the illness can be increased by a mix of physical, genetic, psychological, and environmental variables. A stressful or emotionally charged life experience may start a psychotic episode in some persons who are predisposed to schizophrenia. For a number of reasons, schizophrenia can be difficult to diagnose. The first is that those who suffer from the disease frequently aren't aware that they are ill and are therefore less inclined to seek medical attention.
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In developing a test of intellectual ability for Parisian schoolchildren, Binet and Simon assumed that
In developing a test of intellectual ability for Parisian schoolchildren, Binet and Simon assumed that a bright child would perform like a normal child of an older age. Thus, the correct option is C.
What are Intellectual abilities?
Intellectual ability is the exceptional capability or the potential of an individual which is recognized through cognitive processes such as, the memory, reasoning, rate of learning, ability to find and solve problems, and make connections with other people, etc.
Intellectual ability or Cognitive ability tests are used to assess the abilities involved in thinking such as reasoning, perception, memory, verbal and problem solving ability. These tests pose questions which are designed to estimate the applicants' potential to use mental processes to solve work-related problems or to acquire the knowledge about new job.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
In developing a test of intellectual ability for Parisian schoolchildren, Binet and Simon assumed that
a. the test would measure inherited, unchangeable abilities.
b. the test would yield an intelligence quotient consisting of chronological age divided by mental age multiplied by 100.
c. a bright child would perform like a normal child of an older age.
d. measures of physical and sensory skills would be good predictors of school achievement.
A case-control study was conducted with equal numbers of cases and controls. A history of dietary supplement with calcium was recorded among 5,000 women over the age of 50. Calcium supplementation was reported by 20% of women who experienced a hip fracture and by 42% of those without hip fracture.Keep 5 decimal places for intermediate steps.What is the number of women with a hip fracture who are not taking calcium supplements?What is the proper measure of association between calcium supplementation and hip fracture based on question 1?Exposure Odds RatioDisease Odds RatioRelative RiskAll of the above can be calculated.
Calcium supplementation raised the incidence of a hip fracture about 64%, according to the main analysis (four RCTs, n=6,504; pooled relative risk: 1.64; 95% CI: 1.02 to 2.64).
About 1200 grams of calcium are found in the human body, making it the fifth most prevalent element and making up 1-2% of the weight of an individual. The skeleton, which contains about 99% of the body's calcium (as opposed to 0.5% in teeth), adds hardness and acts as a storage area for calcium that is utilized physiologically.
A calcium phosphate substance that closely resembles hydroxyapatite (Ca10(OH)2(PO4)6) and is incorporated in a protein matrix, primarily collagen fibrils, gives vertebrate bones their hardness.
For older persons residing in institutions and those with poor vitamin D status, a daily supplementation regimen of 800 Micrograms of vitamin D as well as 1200 mg of calcium has also been suggested to prevent fractures.
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illnesses that are long term or lifelong and that develop gradually or are present from birth.group of answer choices O demographic diseases O chronic diseases O acute diseases O disabilities
Chronic diseases are long-term or lifelong disorders that appear gradually over time or are present at birth.
A long-lasting sickness that often cannot be healed is referred to as a chronic ailment. However, it is occasionally curable and controllable. This implies that you or a loved one can resume regular activities while having some chronic conditions. Other chronic illnesses may make it challenging to carry out daily tasks or they may be progressive, becoming worse over time. For a minimum of 90 days, they are unable to perform at least two of the four activities of daily life (bathing, eating, using the restroom, and dressing). They fit the aforementioned criteria in terms of their degree of handicap.
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A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Monitor the client's intake and output every 6 hr.
B. Offer the client 240 mL (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hr.
C. Check the client's IV infusion every 8 hr.
D. Administer furosemide to the client.
Offer the client 240 mL (8 oz) of oral fluids every 4 hr is the interventions the nurse should include in the plan of care.
Define Dehydration.
Dehydration a disorder that develops when the body loses excessive amounts of fluids, including water, that are necessary for normal function. Dehydration can also result from taking certain medications, not getting enough fluids in, excessive perspiration, a fever, excessive urination, or severe diarrhea and vomiting.
The overall amount of water in a patient's body and how it is distributed between intracellular and extracellular regions are factors in homeostasis. As a result of gradients produced by active and permissive transport across cell membranes, electrolytes are dispersed throughout the system and maintained at different concentrations.
Calculations of weight (30–40 ml/kg/day), body surface area (1.5 l/m2/day), and metabolic rate (100 ml/100 kcal) can be used to estimate the daily volume requirements in otherwise healthy individuals.
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In a study Gardner and Steinberg (2005) people were tested on a computer driving task in which they faced a decision about whether to stop or go through yellow lights and risk being hit by another car. Adolescents, college students and adults were tested. Each group tested with and without peers present in the room. when peers were present
Adults, college students, and adults underwent testing with and without their in-person colleagues. Adolescents took fewer risks when their peers were around than when they were alone themselves.
The logical basis for thinking about social problems is provided by the cognitive changes that occur during adolescence. They assist teenagers in creating a personal set of values. Teenagers' beliefs begin to revolve around their personal values. Middle adolescence, which lasts from ages fifteen to seventeen, and late adolescence, which lasts from ages eighteen to twenty-one, are the normal durations of early, middle, and late adolescence, can be roughly divided into three stages. Teenagers' emotional connections with their parents shift as a result of the physical changes associated with puberty. Adolescence brings about changes that affect how young people see and feel about themselves.
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the united states has a relatively small percentage of the world's population but uses one-fourth of the world's energy. T/F
While using one-fourth of the world's energy, it is true that the United States makes up a comparatively modest portion of the world's population. The most widely used fossil fuel is coal.
In 2007, China, which already has many of the world's most polluted cities, was building nearly two coal-fired power plants every week. Coal was the fuel that started the industrial revolution and its use has only increased. In 2021, the majority of the energy used in the United States came from fossil fuels, with petroleum accounting for 36%, natural gas for 32%, and coal for 11%. 8% came from nuclear energy, and 12% from renewable sources such hydroelectric dams, biomass, wind, geothermal, and solar.
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Blank —- includes the negative thoughts,
attitudes, beliefs, and stereotypes about a
group of people based upon specific
attributes or characteristics they have.
Answer: STIGMA
STIGMA includes the negative thoughts, attitudes, beliefs, and stereotypes about agroup of people based upon specificattributes or characteristics they have.
What is the leading cause of infant death in the United States?
The leading cause of infant death in the United States is prematurity/low birthweight.
Low birth weight is most frequently caused by being born too early (premature birth). which means before thirty seven weeks of gestation. A newborn infant has less time within the mother's female internal reproductive organ (uterus) to grow and gain weight. abundant of a baby's weight is gained throughout the last weeks of gestation.
Infant death are deaths happen throughout the primary 6 months of a baby's life. Infants born untimely or with a coffee birthweight ar at bigger risk. SIDS additionally tends to be slightly a lot of common in baby boys. SIDS typically happens once a baby is asleep, though it will often happen whereas they are awake.
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When you accept someone—faults and all—regardless of whether or not you like the individual or approve of his or her lifestyle, Rogers suggests that you are exhibiting ________.a. inventories are standardized
b. personality inventory
c. openness
d. unconditional positive regard
d. unconditional positive regard
When you accept someone—faults and all—regardless of whether or not you like the individual or approve of his or her lifestyle, Rogers suggests that you are exhibiting unconditional positive regard.
Humanist psychologist Carl Rogers coined the phrase "unconditional positive regard" to characterise a strategy he employed in his non-directive, client-centered treatment. 1
Unconditional positive regard, in Rogers' view, entails extending a person's full support and approval regardless of what they say or do. No matter what the client says or does, the therapist accepts them and is there to assist them. That implies that the therapist encourages the patient whether they are displaying "good" or "poor" behaviours and feelings.
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