In natural selection when more offspring is survived is a sign of higher fitness of the particular population, hence given statement is true.
What is natural selection?Most qualities are inherited, there are more children generated than can survive, and offspring with more advantageous features will survive and have more offspring than those with less advantageous traits leading to the inevitable process of natural selection.
Since there are only so many resources available, more creatures are born than can live those who are better at obtaining food.
Mating or evading predators will have a higher chance of thriving, procreating, and passing on their DNA.
Therefore an individual in the population has offspring to survive more in number.
Learn more about natural selection, here:
https://brainly.com/question/29219912
#SPJ5
TLRs are Group of answer choices the coatings of pathogens by complement. present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc. phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs. nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. molecules that damage cells, resulting in cell lysis.
Answer: Phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs
Explanation:
TLRs or Toll-like receptors, are a family of proteins that are part of the innate immune system. TLRs are transmembranous and recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), which are groups of chemical characteristics common to certain types of pathogens. Patterns detected by TLRs include lipopolysaccharide, a compound found on the surfaces of Gram-negative bacteria, and double-stranded RNA, which is an integral part of the life cycles of many viruses. These PAMPs are generally important for the survival of the pathogen, so they are well preserved. Activation of these receptors induces inflammatory responses in leukocytes of myeloid lineage, signaling via NF-κB, which is a transcription factor that activates pro-inflammatory genes. Activated TLRs also increase the production of co-stimulatory molecules such as CD80, CD86 and CD40. These proteins, expressed on the surface of antigen-presenting cells, are necessary for the activation of T-lymphocytes by dentritic cells and macrophages already showing antigens in their MHC type II molecules (Major Histocompatibility Complex, they participate in the presentation of antigens to T lymphocytes)
In addition, TLR-mediated signaling on antigen-presenting cells (APCs) plays an important role in linking the innate and adaptive immune responses.
What structure(s) in the cardiovascular system connect arteries to veins?
valves
heart
capillaries
lymph
Answer:
C. Capillaries
Explanation:
form the connection between the vessels that carry blood away from the heart (arteries) and the vessels that return blood to the heart (veins).
Do you think cystic fibrosis or muscular dystrophy, genetic disorder, would show up in a person's DNA fingerprint profile? Explain your Reason Please.
Answer:
we can find such type of genetic disorders through pedigree chart.
Explanation:
cystic fibrosis is a Autosomal recessive disease
Muscular dystrophy is a Autosomal dominant disease.we can see them by observing the next generations going on .we can't find them in person's DNA fingerprint profile.
Type your response in the box. Many countries have laws that regulate hunting, including restricting hunting to specific times of year. Why is this hunting restriction important for preserving certain animal populations?
Answer:
You can only hunt dear (example) for only sertin times of the year because when the doe's have their fans people want them to get big before they shoot them
Answer:
Animal populations can change from one season to another, so it’s important to restrict hunting to seasons when the population is high. Such a restriction helps prevent a severe drop in population, which could threaten the species. It’s also important to limit hunting during breeding seasons to increase the possibility of offspring reaching adulthood.
Explanation:
Plato.
List out the names of some
plants that grow in your village.
Which parts of it are used as
food?
Answer:
Explanation:
The plants grown in my place are - rice, groundnut, sugarcane, grapes, mulberry, castor, ragi etc.
Parts of it used as food
rice - seed
groundnut - seed
sugarcane - stem
grape - fruit
Mulberry - fruit
Castor - seed
ragi - filler millet
Hope this helps
plz mark as brainliest!!!!!!!
Lisa is working on a science project. Her task is to
answer the question: "Does fluoride (which is a
commercial hair product) prevent cavities?". Her
family is willing to volunteer for the experiment.
11. Describe how Lisa would perform this experiment. Identify the control group, and the independent variables in your description
Answer:
The fluoride is what helps you avoid cavities
Explanation:
water fluoridation as safe and effective in preventing tooth decay for both children and adults
The hydrosphere does not overlap with any other spheres true or false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
It overlaps with the lithosphere. Since some rocks produce water.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Bile juice dose not contain any digestive enzymes yet it is essential for digestion why so ?explain
Explanation:
Although bile juice does not contain any enzymes, it contains bilirubin and biliverdin. These help to break big fat globules into small globules which is taken to pancreatic juices to be further digested. This is known as emulsification of fat. It also helps in secretion of lipase. Thus it plays an important role because majority of the fat digestion process is carried out by it.
Don't forget to mark the answer as brainliest if it is truly the best! Thank you!
write five example of bodies which are at rest
Answer:
1. A person sitting on a chair.
2. Water in a bucket.
3. Bus without a driver.
4. Electric fan without electricity.
5.Car without engine.
At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism:
a. proteins are permanently denatured. membranes become too fluid for proper function.
b. hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken.
c. hydrogen bonds are broken and proteins are permanently denatured.
d. hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.
Answer:
The correct answer is option d, that is, hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.
Explanation:
The maximum growth temperature refers to the highest temperature at which growth can take place. Let us take an example of bacteria, it is found that each bacterial species possess a requirement of specific growth temperature, which is mainly determined by the requirement of the temperature of its enzymes. Each of the organism exhibits an optimum growth temperature, a minimum growth temperature, and a maximum growth temperature.
When for an organism, the temperature goes more than its maximum growth than it results in the dissociation of the hydrogen bonds, denaturation of the proteins, and even the membranes become too fluid. This can even result in the death of the species. However, there are some of the organisms, which can thrive high temperatures known as thermoduric organisms, but they fail to grow effectively at such temperatures.
Match the condition with its descriptor. a. acne vulgaris f. basal cell carcinoma b. athlete’s feet g. rosacea c. impetigo h. shingles (herpes zoster) d. psoriasis i. warts e. herpes j. boils ____ 1. contagious fungal infection ____ 2. also called carbuncles and are painful __A_ 3. common and chronic disorder of the sebaceous glands _P__ 4. chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by dry, reddish patches that are covered with silver-white scales _G__ 5. common inflammatory disorder characterized by chronic redness and irritation of the face __c_ 6. acute, inflammatory, and contagious skin disease seen in babies and young children ____ 7. viral infections that affect the skin surrounding the nail __ 8. most common and least malignant type of skin cancer __ 9. is caused by virus same as the one that causes chicken pox ____ 10. viral infection that is usually seen as a blister
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Which of the following choices correctly shows an example of the way energy flows in an ecosystem? A. Rattlesnake to Hawk to Kangaroo Rat to Fungus to Cactus B. Fungus to Hawk toRattlesnake to Kangaroo Rat to Cactus C. Cactus to Kangaroo Rat to Rattlesnake to Hawk to Fungus D. Cactus to Fungus to Kangaroo Rat to Hawk to Rattlesnake
ANSWER:
C. Cactus to Kangaroo Rat to Rattlesnake to Hawk to Fungus
EXPLANATION
Living organisms in an ecosystem obtain energy by feeding on one another. As one organisms feeds on the other, ENERGY FLOWS. However, the flow of energy is UNIDIRECTIONAL. The flow of energy is represented by a FOOD CHAIN where the arrow signals which organism is feeding on which.
According to this question, a typical example of energy flow in a terrestrial ecosystem is as follows:
Cactus → Kangaroo rat → Rattlesnake → Hawk → Fungus
In the above food chain, energy flows as cactus plant (producer) is fed on by kangaroo rat (primary consumer), which is fed on by rattlesnake (secondary consumer), which is fed on by hawk (tertiary consumer). Hawk is decomposed by fungi (decomposer) when it dies. Energy flows in this direction.
Hence, an example of the way energy flows in an ecosystem is represented by Cactus to Kangaroo Rat to Rattlesnake to Hawk to Fungus
Which of the following describes a positron emission tomography (PET) scanner? 1: A device that uses magnetic fields to produce images of brain structures 2: A device that uses magnetic fields to measure blood flow 3: A device that uses radioactive fluid to determine the active areas of the brain 4: An X-ray device that can create a 3D model of the brain
Answer:
3: A device that uses radioactive fluid to determine the active areas of the brain
Explanation:
A positron emission tomography (PET) scan is an imaging test that helps reveal how your tissues and organs are functioning. A PET scan uses a radioactive drug (tracer) to show this activity. This scan can sometimes detect disease before it shows up on other imaging tests.
Depending on the type of exam, the radiotracer is injected, swallowed or inhaled as a gas. It eventually accumulates in the area of the body under examination. A special camera or imaging device detects radioactive emissions from the radiotracer. The camera or device produces pictures and provides molecular information.
What do you mean by clean water?
Answer:
it means water not polluted, without dangerous bacteria, trash and something like this
In a cladogram (a type of phylogenetic tree), clades are groups of related organisms. In the past, phylogenetic lists built clades using the idea of parsimony, that the pattern that uses the fewest evolutionary changes is the most likely to be correct. Today, with the use of computers and DNA sequences, the explanation that is thought to be the best is ___________ .
Answer:
one with the fewest number of genetic differences in the nucleotide sequence.
Explanation:
A cladogram is a diagram capable of showing the relationships among different species and/or group of organisms. In a cladogram, the root indicates the common ancestor, while internal nodes represent the common ancestors of each group. In consequence, this diagram can be used to establish evolutionary relationships in which the start branch points represent common ancestors shared by the organisms found in the 'branches'. Nonetheless, the length of the branches in the cladogram does not represent evolutionary distances among groups. In recent years, cladograms based on DNA sequencing data have been combined with morphological data to establish evolutionary relationships among species.
Glaucoma is a leading cause of blindness. Studies have linked a common form of glaucoma to three genes and more than 20 genetic loci. Which best describes glaucoma? a recessive trait that requires multiple recessive alleles to be expressed a polygenic trait that is influenced by the alleles of several genes a codominant trait that is expressed more often when more dominant alleles are present a dominant trait that depends on the presence of only one of many dominant alleles
Answer:
Question
Glaucoma is a leading cause of blindness. Studies have linked a common form of glaucoma to three genes and more than 20 genetic loci. Which best describes glaucoma?
Answer
(A) - a recessive trait that requires multiple recessive alleles to be expressed
Explanation:
Glaucoma is a polygenic trait influenced by the alleles of several genes.
Polygenic phenotypic traits are those influenced by many genes, which interact to shape the phenotype. Polygenic traits exhibit a bell-shaped distribution in a population (i.e. they have a continuous distribution). Some examples of polygenic traits include, among others, height, body shape, skin color, weight, etc.A polygenic trait that is also affected by environmental factors is known as a multifactorial trait.In conclusion, glaucoma is a polygenic trait that is influenced by the alleles of several genes.
Learn more in:
https://brainly.com/question/1430191
A measure of the total amount of life
that is able to grow and exist in a
particular area is called
A. the climate.
B. species richness.
C. the altitude.
D. productivity.
Answer:
A the climate I know it is the answer
The poles experience 6 months of daylight and 6 month of darnos . The sun is never higher than 23.5 degrees above the horizon . Use one or both of these ideas as evidence to explain why the season are most extreme at the poles
Answer:
North and South pole are cold as they do not receive direct sunlight. South pole is much colder than North pole. The Sun is always low on the horizon, even during summer and winters.
The Sun only comes up for a few months, that is why both nights and days are dark and cold.
The average mean temperature in summers at North pole is 32 degrees Fahrenheit and in winters its minus 40 degrees. While at south pole it is minus 18 degrees Fahrenheit and in winters it is minus 76 degrees Fahrenheit.
Which form of hypoxia reflects poor O2 delivery resulting from too few RBCs or from RBCs that contain abnormal or too little hemoglobin?
a. hypoxemic hypoxia
b. ischemic (stagnant) hypoxia
c. anemic hypoxiad. histotoxic hypoxia
Answer:
c. Anemic hypoxia
Explanation:
Hypoxia is a health condition in which the body or a region of the body is not adequately supply with oxygen at the tissue level. Types of hypoxia include:
Hypoxemic hypoxia is a condition in which their is low level of oxygen in blood in the arteries due to the inability of the lungs to properly oxygenate blood.
Ischemic (stagnant) hypoxia is a type of hypoxia that occurs due to a decrease in blood flow preventing adequate blood supply to tissues.
Anemic hypoxia occurs when the ability of the blood to carry oxyegen is reduced due fewer red blood cells or red blood cells that contain little or abnormal hemoglobin molecules hemoglobin molecules.
Histotoxic hypoxia is hypoxia in which the cells are unable to use oxygen from the bloodstream, even though there is normal delivery of oxygen to such cells and tissues. This is due to the poisoning of the cells or tissues causing a disruption in their respiratory mechanism, for example in Cyanide poisoning.
Therefore, the correct answer is anemic hypoxia.
A surfactant is a chemical that disrupts hydrophilic/hydrophobic interactions, letting normally hydrophobic things dissolve in water (this is how soap cleans grease!). If I have a bunch of enzymes dissolved in water and I add a surfactant, what will happen to the enzyme structure
Explanation:
A good surfactant is going to have a hydrophilic head and a long hydrophobic tail. As a result, a surfactant molecule contains both an insoluble water (or an oil-soluble component) and a water-soluble component. Surfactant molecules will migrate to the surface of the water, where the insoluble hydrophobic group may extend out of the bulk phase of the water, either into the air or, if the water is mixed with oil, into the oil Phase, while the water-soluble head group remains in the water phase. This alignment and aggregation of surfactant molecules at the surface is intended to alter the surface properties of water at the water / air or water / oil interface.
You notice that your aunt, who has generalized anxiety disorder, is often restless and has trouble concentrating. Which area of her brain is most likely responsible for her responses to anxiety-provoking events? A. Amygdala B. Hypothalamus C. Anterior cingulate cortex D. Cingulate gyrus
Answer:
Amygdala
Explanation:
Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD occurs when an individual experiences excessive and continuous worry and anxiety about certain things ,It is caused by over activation of the region of the brain that mediate response to fight and flight stimulus and fear,the amygdala.
Its symptoms are difficulty with concentrations, overthinking ,indecision, irregular sleep patterns.
Two brain circuits transmitted sensory stimuli of fear or danger in the brain to two regions of the brain,
1. the peripheral cerebral cortex for voluntary decisions
2. the Amygdala for involuntary emotional decision.
The amygdala is concerned with how the body reacts to the effects of the stimuli in the immediate environments, the interactions of the stimuli with the emotions of the subject, and the involuntary response .
To respond to the stimuli of fear. The amygdala stimulates the hypothalamus.The latter activate the cardiovascular and breathing centre .Hence,adrenaline is released into the blood stream.The increases involuntary response to anxiety,which gives a fast response..The cerebral cortex response takes time to relay response.
Amygdala, stores memories of all emotions, fear, and anxiety. In patients with this disorder, the Amygdala is sensitive and had been adapted to the memory of fear and anxiety stored.Therefore, every slight normal event which should give any danger is over reacted to by the amygdala with fear or flight response, This triggers the two brain circuits to give anxiety-provoking events.
Intake of medication, Behavioural therapy are the mode of treatments.
The century cactus flowers every 100 years. A similar and nearby cactus flowers every 50 years. If the 50-year-cactus pollen has the correct characteristics to fertilize the century cactus, which reproductive barrier will most likely be working against that possibility
Answer:
Temporal isolation
Explanation:
Temporal isolation, a type of reproductive barrier caused by variations in the timing of mating receptivity, activity, or fertility, prohibits interbreeding between different but closely related species.
What is the temporal barrier in reproductive isolation?In biology, temporal isolation is a form of reproductive isolation mechanism that prevents members of closely related species from mating and creating hybrid offspring.
Temporal isolation refers to the situation where two or more species reproduce at various periods. For instance, three different types of orchids live in the same rain forest.
This mechanism arises from differences in the timing of crucial reproductive events.
Therefore, Temporal isolation reproductive barrier will most likely be working against that possibility.
Learn more about reproductive isolation here:
https://brainly.com/question/3089401
#SPJ6
Which receptor, when activated, most likely prompts the production of saliva?
A. auditory receptors
B. optic receptors
C. skin receptors
D. taste receptors
Answer:
[tex]\large \boxed{\sf D. \ taste \ receptors}[/tex]
Explanation:
When activated, the receptor most likely prompting the production of saliva is the taste receptor. When food enters the mouth, the salivary glands produce the saliva upon the sensation of taste.
Answer:
Taste receptors.
Explanation:
When activated, the receptor most likely prompting the production of saliva is the taste receptor. When food enters the mouth, the salivary glands produce the saliva upon the sensation of taste. The secretion of saliva (salivation) is mediated by parasympathetic stimulation; acetylcholine is the active neurotransmitter and binds to muscarinic receptors in the glands, leading to increased salivation.
If the number of cigarettes smoked increases, then the risk for lung cancer increases. Independent variable: _______ Dependent variable: _______ If the number of sharks swimming in a coastal region increases, then the number of shark attacks on humans will also increase. Independent variable: _______ Dependent variable: _______ If the amount of milk a person drinks increases, the strength of his or her bones will stay the same. Independent variable: _______ Dependent variable: _______
Complete Question:
Part A: Identifying Variables
Read the following hypotheses and identify the variables.
If the number of cigarettes smoked increases, then the risk for lung cancer increases.
Independent variable: _______
Dependent variable: _______
If the number of sharks swimming in a coastal region increases, then the number of shark attacks on humans will also increase.
Independent variable: _______
Dependent variable: _______
If the amount of milk a person drinks increases, the strength of his or her bones will stay the same.
Independent variable: _______
Dependent variable: _______
Answer/Explanation:
Dependent variables are variables that is dependent on the independent variables. That is, it is the variable that changes as the independent variable changes.
Depedent variable is the main interest if a researcher. It is the variable that is measured in a research work.
In the above given hypotheses, the dependent and independent variables are shown below:
1. "risk for lung cancer" is dependent on the "number of cigarettes smoked".
"Risk for lung cancer" => dependent variable
Number of cigarettes => independent variable
2. "number of shark attacks on humans" is dependent on "number of sharks swimming".
Dependent variable => number of shark attacks on humans
Independent variable => number of sharks swimming
3. Dependent variable => strength of bone
Independent variable => amount of milk a person drinks
Answer:
Lab: Heart Rate
Part A: Identifying Variables
The dependent variable happens as a result of values/changes associated with the independent variable.
Independent variable: number of cigarettes smoked
Dependent variable: risk for lung cancer
Independent variable: number of sharks swimming in a coastal region
Dependent variable: number of shark attacks on humans
Independent variable: amount of milk a person drinks
Dependent variable: the strength of his or her bones
Part B: Heart Rate
Hypothesis: If I hold my breath for 30 seconds, then my heart rate will
(choose 1) increase/decrease.
Independent variable: holding my breath
Dependent variable: heart rate
Part C:
The heart rate decreases because oxygen exchange in the lungs decreases.
This depends on what you chose for heart rate in the hypothesis. If you said the heart rate decreases after holding your breath, and the results showed the heart rate decreased, then the hypothesis is supported. If you said the heart rate decreases after holding your breath, and the results showed the heart rate increased, then you refuted the hypothesis.
Heart rate can change due to an increase or decrease in activity, moving positions such as sitting and standing, and emotions.
Example: Increase in activity—jumping jacks
Hypothesis: If I do five jumping jacks, then my heart rate will increase.
Test hypothesis. You can use the average resting heart rate from the previous experiment. If you do an experiment with an increase in physical activity like jumping jacks, then your data will reflect an increase in heart rate because the body requires more energy, which requires more oxygen, increasing the overall flow of blood in the body.
Support or refute the hypothesis based on the results. The hypothesis is supported if it aligns with the observed results. The hypothesis is refuted if the results don’t match the statement based on the variables.
Testing more than one variable at a time makes it difficult to interpret the results and support or refute the hypothesis. With one variable, the results can be associated with changes to that variable. To get the most reliable data to support or refute a hypothesis, an experiment should be completed several times to see if the results show the same trends.
Explanation:
Penn Foster
According to Piaget, children have acquired the cognitive skill of conservation when they're able to
Answer:
The question lacks options, the options are:
A. understand the viewpoint of other people.
B. realize that the term heavy describes an object one way and the term big describes it another way
C. understand that six ounces of liquid in a jar and six ounces in an elongated tube are equal.
The answer is C
Explanation:
Piaget proposed the theory of cognitive development, which talks about how human intelligence is developed. Piaget worked with Children because he believed they played a significant role in the development of cognitive intelligence. Based on his work, he proposed four stages of cognitive development viz: sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational and formal operational stages.
However, in the preoperational stage, Piaget described children between ages 2-7 as being in this stage of cognitive development where they are yet to comprehend mental logic. One characteristics of this stage is CONSERVATION, which is the ability to know that changing a substance's appearance doesn't change the properties of that substance. Piaget proposed that Children between the ages of 2-7 lacked this conservative characteristics.
He performed an experiment where he used two beakers with the same amount of liquid. He then emptied the contents of one of the previous beakers into a new beaker with different shape (longer). Piaget was able to notice that Children at the pre-operational stage were unable to understand that the contents of the two beakers (longer one and previous beaker) were still the same despite the beaker has been changed.
Hence, according to Piaget, a child has acquired the cognitive skill of conservation when he/she is able to understand that six ounces of liquid in a jar and six ounces in an elongated tube are equal.
About thirteen different species of finches inhabit the Galápagos Islands today, all descendants of a common ancestor from the South American mainland that arrived a few million years ago. Genetically, there are four distinct lineages, but the thirteen species are currently classified among three genera. The first lineage to diverge from the ancestral lineage was the warbler finch (genus Certhidea). Next to diverge was the vegetarian finch (genus Camarhynchus), followed by five tree finch species (also in genus Camarhynchus) and six ground finch species (genus Geospiza). If the six ground finch species have evolved most recently, then which of these is the most logical prediction?
Answer: Firstly it should be noted that, the chances of hybridization between two ground finch species should be less than the chances of hybridization between two tree finch species. On this wise, their genomes would be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species. Secondly, they should be limited to the six islands that most recently emerged from the sea.
Thirdly, they should share fewer anatomical homologies with each other than they have shared with the tree finches.
Fourtly, their genomes should be more similar to each other than are the genomes of the five tree finch species.
"When human settlers arrived on the island of Mauritus, they caused the Dodo bird species to become extinct within 50 years. What did the settlers do to cause their extinction?"
Answer:
It's commonly believed that the dodo went extinct because Dutch sailors ate the beast to extinction after finding that the bird was incredibly easy to catch due to the fact it had no fear of humans.
Explanation:
One reason cancer cells are easier to culture than normal cells extracted from an organism is that ________. Group of answer choices cancer cells grow in a more regulated fashion. cancer cells do not need to adhere to a substratum to grow. nutrient requirements for cancer cells are precisely defined. cancer cells are better models for demonstrating what happens in an intact organism.
Let's list the given options alphabetically to choose the appropriate answer.
One reason cancer cells are easier to culture than normal cells extracted from an organism is that ________. Group of answer choices
A. cancer cells grow in a more regulated fashion.
B. cancer cells do not need to adhere to a substratum to grow.
C. nutrient requirements for cancer cells are precisely defined.
D. cancer cells are better models for demonstrating what happens in an intact organism
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
Cancer cells are easier to culture in comparison to normal cells because cancer cells do not need to adhere to a substratum to grow.
As cancer cells are uncontrolled growth of cells and they do not require any substratum to grow and can easily grow to a culture while a normal cell require optimal conditions to grow in a culture.
Hence, the correct option is "B".
In an ________ solution, red blood cells ________. Group of answer choices hyposmotic, lose water and shrivel isomotic, have a normal shape isosmotic, swell and may burst hyperosmotic, have a normal shape isosmotic, lose water and shrivel
[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \bf{ \color{skyblue}{The \: correct \: question:}}}}[/tex]
Q. In an ________ solution, red blood cells ________. Group of answer choices:
Hyposmotic, lose water and shrivel Isomotic, have a normal shape ✔️Isosmotic, swell and may burst Hyperosmotic, have a normal shape Isosmotic, lose water and shrivel[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \bf{ \color{violet}{The \: correct \: answer:}}}}[/tex]
In an isosmotic solution, red blood cells have normal shape.
Option B
Explanation:-Osmosis : The movement of the solvent or water molecules from a solution of their higher concentration to a solution of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
❍ Depending upon the osmotic concentration, There are three types of solution and their result when cell is keot inside them:
Hyposmotic (Water enters, Swells up)Isosmotic(Equal flow, No change)Hyperosmotic(Water comes out, shrinkage)━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━
what cell structure helps the cell stay flexible and maintain homeostasis?
Answer:
The cell membrane.
Explanation
I hope this helps you.
