If the capital stock is fixed and something happens to raise the marginal product of capital for any given quantity of capital, then the real rental price of capital will:

Explanation:

Primary market for securities is one that provides access to buy new new issues of stocks and bonds of a company. A good example of primary market is an Initial Public Offering (IPO), organized by a company that wants to sell it's shares for the first time to investors.

While Secondary market, are places to sell securities to a secondary (second) buyer from the current security owner who bought from the primary market.

The primary market is dependent on the secondary market since it is the demand from the secondary market that determines the asset valuation of the primary market.

Answer:

cognitions

Explanation:

The cognitions component of attitude refers to the opinion a person has about an object. According to this, the answer is that the statement "Automobiles manufactured by this brand are the safest" is an example of the cognitions component of attitude as the sentence shows the belief the person has about that brand.

Answer:

The Company WACC is 6.1%

Explanation:

WACC is the averge cost of capital that a company bears based on the weights of each financing option available to the company.

First we need to calculate the Market values

Debt = $50 M x $1,050 / $1,000 = $52.5 M

Common Equity = $30 M

Preferred equity = $20 M x $90 / $100 = $18 M

Total Capital = $52.5 M + $30 M + $18 M = $100.5

Now we need to calculte the Cost of each financing option

Cost of Debt

Price of Bond = C x ( 1 - ( 1 + YTM )^-n / r + Face value / ( 1 + YTM )^n

$1,050 = $60 x ( 1 - ( 1 + YTM )^-5 / YTM + $1,000 / ( 1 + YTM )^5

YTM = 4.85%

Cost of Common Equity = 12%

Cost of Preseferred Stock = $5 / $90 = 0.05556 = 5.56%

Now use following fomula to calculte the WACC

WACC = ( Common Equity weight x Cost of Common equity ) + ( Weight of Debt x Cost of Debt x ( 1 - Tax rate ) + ( Weight of Preferred Shares x Cost of Preferred Shares )

Now Place all the valus in the formula

WACC = ( $30 / $100.5 x 12% ) + ( $52.5 / $100.5 x ( 1 - 40% ) x 4.85% ) + ( $18 / $100.5 x 5.56% )

WACC = 3.58% + 1.52% + 1.00% = 6.1%

Answer: package mortgage

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Mr and Mrs. Haley are purchasing beachfront property in an upscale development and that the home comes equipped with all furnishings.

We are further told that the Haleys want to get a mortgage that will cover the purchase price plus all the furnishings. This shows that they are looking for package mortgage.

A package mortgage is a form of mortgage whereby the personal property and the furniture will have to be included when buying the house.

Answer:

a. Identification as direct, indirect, or semi-indirect organizational patterns:

Direct organizational pattern

b. Putting sentences in order for a paragraph using an indirect organizational pattern:

Due to projected second quarter revenue shortfalls, the CEO has decided to take precautionary measures to protect the long-term viability of the company.

A mandatory staff furlough will be instituted July 1–6 of this year.

After considering cost-saving proposals, such as eliminating the internal Parts Shipping division and tertiary quality control measures, the executive team determined that staff furloughs would have the least impact on company morale.

Explanation:

Organizational paragraph patterns refer to how paragraphs are organized in order to deliver intended messages.  The direct organizational pattern delivers the bad news first before giving reasons, and then closes on a positive note.  The indirect pattern starts with a buffer, the reasons, then delivers the bad news, before finally closing on a positive note.  The semi-indirect pattern is a mixture of the two.

Answer:

a. ROI = income / Assets      

                                      Book Value       Current Value    

Software Division              0.175              0.13    

Consulting Division           0.164              0.182    

Venture Capital Division   0.093            0.088

Workings:

i. Book value

Software Division = 12,250/70,000=0.175

Consulting Division = 16,400/100,000=0.164  

Venture Capital Division = 56,730/610,000 =0.093

ii. Current value

Software Division = 11,700/90,000=0.13

Consulting Division = 20,020/110,000=0.182

Venture Capital Division= 51,920/ 590,000=0.088

b. Residual income = Income - {Asset x Return on capital 12% }

                                      Book Value       Current Value    

Software Division              3850              900    

Consulting Division           4400              6820    

Venture Capital Division   -16470           -18880

Workings:

i. Book value

Software Division = 12,250-(70,000*12%)=3850

Consulting Division = 16,400-(100,000*12%)=4400  

Venture Capital Division = 56,730-(610,000*12%) =-16470

ii. Current value

Software Division = 11,700-(90,000*12%)=900

Consulting Division = 20,020-(110,000*12%)=6820

Venture Capital Division= 51,920-(590,000*12%)=-18880

c. Economic Value Added ( EVA ) = Net Income After Tax - ( Amount of Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital [WACC] )

C.                     Software Division  

                            (Value Base)  

                                    Book            Current

Sales                           100,000          100,000

Income                          12,250           11,700

Assets                           70,000          90,000

Liabilities                      10,000           10,000

Capital invested           60,000          80,000

(Asset - Liabilities)

Tax on Income(30%)     3675            3510

Income after Tax            8,575           8,190

(Income - Tax on

income) (A)

Capital invested             6,000           8,000

* WACC - 10% ) (B)

EVA (C)=(A)-(B)                2,575            190

                       Consulting Division

                            (Value Base)

                                     Book            Current

Sales                         200,000        200,000

Income                        16,400           20,020

Assets                         100,000        110,000

Liabilities                      14,000         14,000

Capital invested           86,000       96,000

(Asset - Liabilities)

Tax on Income(30%)     4920            6006

Income after Tax           11,480           14,014

(Income - Tax on

income) (A)

Capital invested           8,600            9,600

* WACC - 10% ) (B)

EVA (C)=(A)-(B)              2,880            4,414

                     Venture Capital Division

                           (Value Base)

                                   Book            Current

Sales                        800,000       800,000

Income                      56,730          51,920

Assets                       610,000        590,000

Liabilities                    40,000         40,000

Capital invested        570,000        550,000

(Asset - Liabilities)

Tax on Income(30%)    17019          15576

Income after Tax          39,711         36,344

(Income - Tax on

income) (A)

Capital invested           57,000       55,000

* WACC - 10% ) (B)

EVA (C)=(A)-(B)              -17,289       -18,656

Answer:

d.$4,662.40 unfavorable

Explanation:

Calculation for direct materials price variance

The first step is to find the Actual quantity variance using the formula

Actual quantity variance =Actual units produced* Actual yard used

Let plug in the formula

Actual quantity variance=9,400*4.96 yards

Actual quantity variance=$46,624

Second step is to calculate for the Direct material price variance using this formula

Direct material price variance= ( Standard price -Actual price)* Actual quantity used

Let plug in the formula

Direct material price variance=($1.93-$2.03)*$46,624

Direct material price variance=(-0.1*46,624)

Direct material price variance=-$4,662.40 Unfavorable

Therefore the Direct material price variance will be $4,662.40 Unfavorable

Answer:

$3,709,000

Explanation:

7/1 Time weighted amount = $3,114,000 * 6/12 = $1,557,000

9/1 Time weighted amount =  $6,456,000 * 4/12 = $2,152,000

12/31 Time weighted amount = $5,950,000 * 0/12 = $0

Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = 7/1 Time weighted amount + 9/1 Time weighted amount + 12/31 Time weighted amount

Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $1,557,000 + $2,152,000 + 0

Weighted-average accumulated expenditures = $3,709,000

Answer:

RM23,617.80

Explanation:

cost of the painting RM99,800

she has RM12,650 on her bank account and she will use 70% = RM8,855 as down payment. She will borrow the rest = RM99,800 - RM8,855 = RM90,945

interest charged on the loan 4.77% / 12 = 0.3975%

120 monthly periods (10 years)

using the present value formula to determine the monthly payment:

PV = monthly payment x annuity factor

monthly payment = PV / annuity factor

PV = 90,945

annuity factor (120 periods, 0.3975%) = 95.26168

monthly payment = 90,945 / 95.26168 = 954.69

total payments = 120 x 954.69 = RM114,562.80

interests paid = RM114,562.80 - RM90,945 = RM23,617.80

Answer:

165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)

42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)

total profit contribution = (165 x $15) + (42 x $10) = $2,895

Explanation:

                                         materials          machine hours      profit

standard size                    0.125 kg              1/6                        $10

oversize                             0.4 kg                 1/5                        $15

constraints 80 kilograms of materials

40 hours of manufacturing

profit per machine hour:

standard size  $10 x 6 = $60 x 40 hours = $2,400 (total possible production = 240 rackets)

oversize  $15 x 5 = $75 x 40 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)

profit per kilogram of alloy:

standard size  $10 / 0.125 = $80 x 80 kgs = $6,400 (total possible production = 480 rackets)

oversize  $15 / .4  = $37.50 x 80 hours = $3,000 (total possible production = 200 rackets)

since the most important constraint is the manufacturing hours available, the company should try to produce the products that yield the highest contribution margin per machine hour. In this case, at least 20% of total production must be standard size rackets, so the remaining 80% should be oversize rackets that yield a higher profit.

165 oversize rackets = 32 machine hours (79.71% of total production)

42 standard size rackets = 7 machine hours (20.29% of total production)

total manufacturing time = 40 hours

if we produce 166 oversize rackets and 41 standard size rackets, total manufacturing time will exceed 40 hours (40.03 hours exactly).

Answer:

a. Translation adjustment = $401,400

b. Remeasurement loss = –$131,400

Explanation:

a. Determine the translation adjustment to be reported on Stephanie’s December 31, 2017, consolidated balance sheet, assuming that the Swiss franc is the Swiss subsidiary’s functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this translation adjustment?

This can determined as follows:

Step 1: Calculation of beginning net asset in

Particular                                         Amount (CHF)    

Cash CHF                                             814,000

Inventory                                             1,314,000

Property, plant & equipment            4,014,000

Notes payable                                (2,128,000)  

Beginning net asset                        4,014,000  

Beginning net asset in USD = Beginning net asset in Swiss francs (CHF) * Beginning exchange rate = CHF4.014,000 * $1 = $4,014,000

Step 2: Calculation of ending net asset

Ending net asset in USD = Beginning net asset  in Swiss francs (CHF) * Ending exchange rate = CHF4.014,000 * $1.10 = $4,415,400

Step 3: Calculation translation adjustment

Translation adjustment = Ending net asset in USD - Beginning net asset in USD = $4,415,400 - $4,014,000 = $401,400

Economic relevance of this translation adjustment

The positive translation adjustment implies that the equity of stockholders has increased by $401,000.

We obtained a positive value because the net position of the subsidiary in Switzerland is CHF4,014,000 and there was a Swiss franc appreciation of $0.10 (i.e. $1.10 - $1.00 = $0.10).

The translation adjustment of $401,000 does not however implies that it was made as a dollar cash flow. The only condition that can make to turn to a profit is if this operation is sold at CHF4,014,000 on December 31 and the amount realized as a proceed is changed to dollars at ruling exchange rate of $1.10 to a Swiss franc on December 31, 2017.

b. Determine the remeasurement gain or loss to be reported in Stephanie’s 2017 consolidated net income, assuming that the U.S. dollar is the functional currency. What is the economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss?

This can be determined as follows:

Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc = Cash - Note payable = CHF814,000 - CHF2,128,000 = –CHF1,314,000

Beginning net liabilities in USD = Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc * Beginning exchange rate = –CHF1,314,000  * $1.00 = –$1,314,000

Ending net liabilities in USD = Beginning net liabilities in Swiss franc * Ending exchange rate = –CHF1,314,000  * $1.10 = –$1,445,400

Remeasurement loss = Ending net liabilities in USD – Beginning net liabilities in USD = [–$1,445,400] – [–$1,314,000] = –$131,400

Economic relevance of this remeasurement gain or loss

There is a negative remeasurement or remeasurement lost because the net monetary liability position of the Swiss subsidiary is CHF 1,314,000. The appreciation of the Swiss franc by $0.10 results in a loss of $131,400] that not is unrealized.

The readjustment loss of $131,400 does not however implies that it was a dollar cash outflow. The only condition that can make it to turn to a loss is if this operation is sold on December 31. This will lead to the realization of a transaction gain of $81,400 [i.e. CHF814,000 x ($1.10 - $1.00)].

Also, the Swiss franc note payable will be paid off by using the US dollar. This will bring about the realization of a truncation loss of $212,800 [i.e. CHF2,128,000 x ($1.10 - $1.00)].

Answer:

Consumer spending

Explanation:

Answer:

Variance of the returns of this stock is  0.01658177

Explanation:

Mean return = 0.7 * 16.5% + 0.3*-11.6%

Mean return =  0.1155 - 0.0348

Mean return = 0.0807

Mean return = 8.07%

Variance of the return = 0.7 * (16.5%-8.07%)^2 + 0.3 * (-11.6%-8.07%)^2

Variance of the return = 0.7 * (8.43%)^2 + 0.3 * (-19.67%)^2

Variance of the return = 0.7 * (0.0843)^2 + 0.3 * (-0.1967)^2

Variance of the return = 0.0049745 + 0.011607267

Variance of the return = 0.01658177

Answer:

Net value of the investment (margin) is $6,000

Explanation:

The initial margin = (100 shares * $80) * 50%

The initial margin = $4,000

Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares* ($100-$80)

Increase in the Margin value = 100 shares * $20

Increase in the Margin value =$2,000

Net value of the investment (margin) = $4,000 + $2,000

Net value of the investment (margin) = $6,000

Answer:

                Flexible budget performance report  for the year

                           Flexible budget  Actual     Variance   Fav/Unf

Sales                        631,200         587,200    44,000   UNF

Variable cost           (78,900)         (113,900)    35,000    F

Contribution            416,000         368,000   48,000   UNF

margin

Fixed cost               (142,000)        (137,000)    5000       UNF

Net operating          274,000        231,000    43,000    UNF

income

Working:

a. At flexible budget, selling price per unit = $508,800 / 21,200 = $24 per unit . Total sales =26,300 *24 = $631,200  

b. Variable cost per unit = $63,600 / 21,200 = $3 per unit . Total cost = 3 * 26,300 = 78,900

The question is incomplete as it is missing the figures. The complete question is,

Fremont Enterprises has an expected return of 15% and Laurelhurst News has an expected return of 20%.  If you put 70% of your portfolio in Laurelhurst and 30% in Fremont, what is the expected return of your portfolio?

Answer:

Portfolio return = 0.185 or 18.5%

Explanation:

The expected return of a portfolio is a function of the weighted average of the individual stocks returns' that form up the portfolio. The expected return of a portfolio can be calculated using the following formula,

Portfolio return = wA * rA  +  wB * rB  +  ...  +  wN * rN

Where,

Portfolio return = 0.3 * 0.15  +  0.7 * 0.2

Portfolio return = 0.185 or 18.5%

Answer:

The level of operating income (EBIT) where the firm will be indifferent between the two plans is $33 million.

Explanation:

Indifferent level of EBIT refers to the EBIT level where the he Earnings Per Share (EPS) two alternative financial plans are the same.

Indifferent level of EBIT can be calculated using the following formula:

[(EBIT - FB) * (1 - T)] / SA = [(EBIT - FB) * (1 - T)] / SB .................... (1)

Where:

EBIT = Indifference level of EBIT

FA = Fixed interest costs under plan B = Interest on existing debt = $150 * 8% = $12 million

FB = Fixed interest costs under plan A = Interest on existing debt + Interest on new debt = ($150 * 8%) + ($60 * 10%) = $18 million

T = Tax rate = 40%, or 0.40

SA = Number of equity shares outstanding under Plan B = Existing number of shares + New number of shares = 10 million + ($60 million / $15) = 10 million + 4 million = 14 million

SB = Number of equity shares outstanding under Plan A = Existing number of shares = 10 million

Substiuting the values into equation (1) and solve for EBIT, we have:

[(EBIT - 12) * (1 - 0.40)] / 14 = [(EBIT - 18) * (1 - 0.40)] / 10

[(EBIT - 12) * 0.60] / 14 = [(EBIT - 18) * 0.60] / 10

[EBIT0.60 - 7.20] / 14 = [(EBIT0.06 - 10.80] / 10

[EBIT0.60 - 7.20] * 10 = [(EBIT0.06 - 10.80] * 14

EBIT6 - 72 = EBIT8.40 - 151.20

-72 + 151.20 = EBIT8.40 - EBIT6

EBIT2.40 = 79.20

EBIT = 79.20 / 2.40

EBIT = $33 million

Therefore, the level of operating income (EBIT) where the firm will be indifferent between the two plans is $33 million.

Answer: value

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Gen-Fast Shoes wants to expand internationally and is deciding if its line of tennis shoes can be sold at a high price in Europe.

One way for Gen-Fast Shoes to assess this is to determine whether these types of shoes in the foreign market offer customers greater value.

Value simply means the worth of something. When people realize that the tennis shoes are worth it, it'll command a high value.

Answer:

Neelon Corporation

                                              Total Company   Southern   Northern

                                                                          Division      Division

Sales                                          $ 418,000    $ 193,000    $ 225,000

Variable expenses                    $ 130,880      $ 79,130        $ 51,750

Traceable fixed expenses       $ 186,000      $ 77,000     $ 109,000

Common fixed expense           $ 79,420      $ 36,670       $ 42,750

Net operating income               $ 21,700            $200         $21,500

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                             Total Company   Southern   Northern

                                                                          Division      Division

Sales                                          $ 418,000    $ 193,000    $ 225,000

Variable expenses                    $ 130,880      $ 79,130        $ 51,750

Traceable fixed expenses       $ 186,000      $ 77,000     $ 109,000

Common fixed expense           $ 79,420       $ 36,670      $ 42,750

Net operating income               $ 21,700             $200       $21,500

Neelon Corporation reaches break-even point when it will make no profit or loss.  This implies that its break-even point is reached when sales revenue equals both variable and fixed costs.  The excess that Neelon Corporation generates from sales revenue over total costs is regarded as operating income.

Answer: A) The Economic Order Quantity is 601 units.  

B)The Economic Order Quantity is 425 units.

C )The Economic Order Quantity is 849 units

Explanation:

EOQ, economic order​ quantity = [tex]\sqrt{ 2 x Dx S/ H}[/tex]

where D=  demand

S = Order cost

H= holding cost.

a)when  D​ = 8,200 per​ month, S​ = ​$44 per​ order, and H​ = ​$2.00

EOQ, economic order​ quantity = [tex]\sqrt{2x D x S /H}[/tex]

=  [tex]\sqrt{2 x 8,200 x 44 /2 }[/tex] =  [tex]\sqrt{360,800}[/tex] = 600.666= 601 units

b) if the holding cost​ doubles, holding cost = HX 2 = 2 X 2  = 4

EOQ, economic order​ quantity =[tex]\sqrt{ 2 x D xS /H }[/tex]

= [tex]\sqrt{2 X 8,200 X 44 / 2 X $2}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{180,400}[/tex] = 424.73 = 425units

C) if the holding cost drops in​ half, holding cost = H/2 = 2 X 1/2 = 1

EOQ, economic order​ quantity =[tex]\sqrt{ 2 x D xS /H }[/tex]

= [tex]\sqrt{2 X 8200 x 44/1}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{721,600}[/tex] = 849.47 = 849units

Answer:

$101,960,000

Explanation:

For the computation of operating cash flow first we need to follow some steps which are shown below:-

Step 1

EBIT = Sales - Cost of goods sold - Sales and administrative costs - Depreciation

= $302,100,000 - $135,900,000 - $39,600,000 - $65,000,000

= $61,600,000

Step 2

Net income = EBIT - Tax

= $61,600,000 - ($61,600,000 × 40%)

= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000

= $36,960,000

and finally

Operating cash flow = EBIT - Taxes + Depreciation

= $61,600,000 - $24,640,000 + $65,000,000

= $101,960,000

Answer:

$152,000

Explanation:

Calculation for the cost of the ending inventory

First step is to calculate the cost-to-retail percentage of the beginning inventory amount

Using this formula

Beginning Inventory =Cost-to-retail percentage*Beginning inventory at retail

Let plug in the formula

Beginning Inventory =60%*$200,000

Beginning Inventory =$120,000

Second step is to calculate current-period purchases percentage of the new layer amount

Using this formula

Current period purchases= Purchases percentage* New layer

Let plug in the formula

Current period purchases=64%*50,000

Current period purchases=$32,000

The last step is to find the cost of the ending inventory using this formula

Ending inventory cost=Beginning Inventory+Current period purchases

Let plug in the formula

Ending inventory cost=$120,000+$32,000

Ending inventory cost=$152,000

Therefore the cost of the ending inventory will be $152,000

Answer:

a. Merina's captal is $160,000. Half would be $80,000.

Entry;

DR Merina, Capital ..................................................................$80,000

CR Wayne, Capital ....................................................................................$80,000

(To record purchase of half of Merina Capital)

b.

DR Cash......................................................................$180,000

CR Wayne, Capital.........................................................................$180,000

(To record Wayne investment)

Working

The current Capital amount is;

= 200,000 +160,000

= $360,000

If Wayne joins and adds to this such that he owns 1/3 then;

2/3x = 360,000

x = 360,000/2/3

x = $540,000

Wayne's share would be;

= 1/3 * 540,000

= $180,000

The journal entries that would take place will take effect as A- A debit in Merina's capital amount and Cash account as $17000 and a credit effect in Wayne's capital account. The amount of debit and credit will be $97000.

And for B- There will be Debit in Cash account effecting a credit in The Wayne's capital account. The amount effecting the debit and credit side will be $180,000.

,[tex]\dfrac{2}{3}x\ = 360000[/tex]

[tex]x= \dfrac {360000}{\dfrac{2}{3}}[/tex]

Now the value of x will be calculated as

[tex]x= \dfrac{540000}{3}[/tex]

[tex]x=180000[/tex]

Hence, the correct statements for A will be that Wayne pays $97000 which will be divided in Merina's capital and cash accounts in the proportion of $80000 and $17000 respectively.

To know more about partnership firm, click the link below.

https://brainly.com/question/6346527

Answer:

1 a. Materials price and quantity variances.

Material price variance = (Actual price - Standard price) * Actual Quantity purchased

= ($2.45 - $2) * 15,800

= $0.45 * 15,800

= $7110 (Unfavorable)

Materials Quantity variance = (Actual Quantity used - Standard Quantity allowed) * Standard price  

(10600 - 3000 * 3.6) * $2

= (10,600 -  10,800) * $2

= 200 * $2

= 400 (Favorable)

b. Labor rate and efficiency variances.

Labor rate variance = (Actual rate - standard rate) * Actual hours

= (6.30 - 6.6) * 2,100

= 0.3 * 2,100

= 630 (Favorable)

Labor Efficiency variance  = (Actual hours - standard hours allowed) *  Standard rate  

= (2100 - 3000 * 0.5) * 6.6

= (2,100 - 1,500) * 6.6

= 600 * 6.6

= 3960 (Unfavorable)

c. Variable overhead rate and efficiency variances

Variable overhead rate variance  = (Actual rate - Standard rate * Actual machine hours)

= 3000 - (2.10 * 1200)

= 3,000 - 2,520

= 480 Unfavorable

Variable overhead Efficiency variance = (Actual hours - standard hours allowed)* Standard rate

= (1200 - 3000 * 0.3) * 2.10    

= (1200 - 900) * 2.10

= 300 * 2.10

= 630 (Unfavorable)

2.    Variances                                            Amount

Material price variance                             7,110 U

Material quantity variance                         400 F

Labor rate variance                                    630 F

Labor efficiency variance                           3,960 U

Variable overhead rate variance               480 U

Variable overhead efficiency variance      630 U

Net variance                                                11,150 U

The net variance of all the variance of the month is 11,150 (Unfavorable)

Answer: No

Explanation:

When computing a project analysis for a project, only relevant cash flow should be included in the Project's cash flow analysis. Relevant cash-flow are those that will only occur if the project was embarked on.

If the cash flow in question is still going to occur even if the project wasn't initiated as is the case with Project A, it is not a relevant cash-flow and should not be included in the cash-flow analysis.

Answer:

-$560

Explanation:

The computation of capital gain on this investment is shown below:-

Capital gain = (Stock price - Paid shares) × Sold shares

where,

The Stock price is $30.92

Paid shares is $32.04

And, the sold shares is 500 shares

Now placing these values to the above formula

So, the capital gain on this investment is

= ($30.92 - $32.04) × 500

= -$1.12 × 500

= -$560

Answer:

$31,430

Explanation:

A project will reduce costs by $38,500

The project will have an increased depreciation of $18,300

The tax rate is 35%

= 35/100

= 0.35

Therefore, the operating cash flow can be calculated as follows

Operating cash flow= reduction in project cost×(1-tax rate)+(increase in the depreciation amount ×tax rate)

= $38,500×(1-0.35)+($18,300×0.35)

= $38,500×0.65+6,405

= $25,025+$6,405

= $31,430

Hence the operating cash flow is $31,430

Answer: Specific identification

Hope it is correct

Answer: Leftward; upwards.

Explanation: A Supply shock is a term used to describe the sudden and unexpected change in the supply of a given product or commodity usually indicated by the leftward shift if the shock is negative in the aggregate supply curve and an upward change in direction in the Phillips curve both on the short run. Both curves are used to demonstrate graphically the impacts of shifts in supply for a given product or commodity.

Answer:

Curriculum based measurement

Answer:

a.  Curriculum-based measurement

It's correct