Audited financial statements are the least likely to be confidential because they are intended to be accessed by a wide range of stakeholders and thus rarely remain confidential.
All other options may be kept private by an organization.
Data, objects, and resources are protected from unauthorized viewing and access when they are kept confidential.
Data integrity means that it is protected from unauthorized changes in order to be reliable and correct.
A person's phone number and address, medical records, and social security number are all examples of confidential information.
Financial records, trade secrets, customer information, and marketing strategies are all examples of confidential information held by businesses.
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which of the following is the aim of an action and serves as the primary driver of the intensity and persistence of effort for the action?
a) goal
b) need
c) value
d) valence
The answer is a) goal. A goal is the desired outcome or objective that an individual strives to achieve through their actions or behaviors.
It provides a sense of direction and purpose, and serves as a source of motivation and effort for the individual. Goals can be short-term or long-term, and can be related to various domains of life, such as work, education, relationships, health, and personal growth. The clarity, specificity, and relevance of a goal can impact the intensity and persistence of effort that an individual puts towards it. In addition, the feedback and progress towards the goal can also influence the individual's motivation and commitment to achieving it.
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true/false. successful rapport building begins with the salesperson first sharing personal information about themselves before asking questions of the prospect.
The following statement is incorrect. While sharing personal information can be an important part of developing rapport with a prospect, it is not always necessary.
Successful rapport building entails connecting with the prospect on the basis of mutual understanding, respect, and trust.
Sharing personal information can help to build trust and demonstrate authenticity, but it must be done strategically and appropriately.
Before sharing personal information, consider the context of the sales interaction and the prospect's level of familiarity.
Finally, effective rapport building necessitates active listening, empathy, and an emphasis on the prospect's needs and interests.
A salesperson can build trust and lay the groundwork for a successful business relationship by understanding the prospect's point of view and demonstrating a genuine interest in their success.
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true/false. Active listeners are considered by others to be more competent communicators overall
True. Active listeners are generally considered by others to be more competent communicators overall.
Active listening is a communication skill that involves giving one's full attention to the speaker and demonstrating an understanding of their message. It involves not only hearing the words but also understanding the speaker's perspective, emotions, and intentions. Active listeners ask clarifying questions, summarize the speaker's message, and provide feedback to show that they have understood the message. Such skills are highly valued in the workplace and in personal relationships, as they help to build trust and promote effective communication. Therefore, individuals who are skilled in active listening are generally perceived as more competent communicators, as they are able to establish rapport, avoid misunderstandings, and foster productive relationships.
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Although older adults experience cognitive decline, they perform just as well as younger adults on tasks that require expert knowledge because:a. their experience and knowledge compensates for slower processing speed.b. they have practiced the tasksc. memory does not decline with aged. inhibitory functioning
Despite cognitive decline, older persons perform equally well on activities requiring expert knowledge as younger adults because their life experience makes up for their slower processing speed.
What alterations in cognition do older persons experience with ageing?Humans develop a variety of cognitive skills that seem to reach their optimum around the age of 30, then on average, very modestly deteriorate with age. Most frequently, these aging-related cognitive deficits include generalised slowness of thinking as well as challenges with maintaining attention, multitasking, holding information in mind, and word searching.
Why do older people's cognitive abilities deteriorate?There are many other potential reasons of cognitive impairment in older persons, including drug side effects, metabolic and/or endocrine abnormalities, delirium brought on by illness (such a urinary tract or COVID-19 infection), and depression.
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Which of the following identifies the three different types of intelligence in Sternberg's triarchic theory?
verbal, nonverbal, and practical
analytical, creative, and practical
emotional, cognitive, and linguistic
verbal, mathematical, and interpersonal
The correct answer is: analytical, creative, and practical. Sternberg's triarchic theory proposes that there are three types of intelligence, each of which involves different cognitive processes and abilities.
The three types of intelligence are:
Analytical intelligence: This type of intelligence involves the ability to analyze and solve problems logically and systematically. It includes skills such as abstract reasoning, critical thinking, and logical reasoning.
Creative intelligence: This type of intelligence involves the ability to think creatively and come up with new and innovative ideas. It includes skills such as divergent thinking, insight, and creativity.
Practical intelligence: This type of intelligence involves the ability to adapt to and solve real-world problems. It includes skills such as common sense, street smarts, and the ability to navigate social situations.
Sternberg's theory suggests that these three types of intelligence are interrelated and work together to determine a person's overall intellectual ability.
By understanding these different types of intelligence, educators and psychologists can design programs and interventions that help individuals develop their strengths and overcome their weaknesses in different areas of intellectual functioning.
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fill in the blank. between order qualifiers and order winners, superior performance on an order___will not, by itself, give a company a competitive advantage.
Between order qualifiers and order winners, superior performance on an order qualifier will not, by itself, give a company a competitive advantage.
Order qualifiers are the basic criteria that a company must meet to be considered by a customer. These criteria are the minimum level of performance that a customer expects from a product or service. On the other hand, order winners are the factors that differentiate a company's product or service from its competitors and enable it to win business.
While superior performance on an order qualifier is necessary to be considered as a viable option by customers, it does not necessarily give a company a competitive advantage. Customers may simply expect that level of performance and it may not be enough to differentiate a company's product or service from competitors. In order to achieve a competitive advantage, a company must excel in order winners, which are the unique features and benefits that customers value and are willing to pay for.
Therefore, while order qualifiers are necessary for a company to be considered by customers, they are not sufficient to achieve a competitive advantage. A company must also excel in order winners to differentiate itself from competitors and win business.
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based on the information in the lesson on prayer and fasting, which of the following are reasons for praying? luoa
The reasons listed below for prayer are based on the material in today's lesson: to put God first for guidance and perspective for salvation to worship God for forgiveness for healing for provision for protection and deliverance to put God first
Fasting and prayer may fortify our family and ourselves. Fasting highlights the sincerity of our prayers, which gives our requests for guidance greater strength. In addition, when we fast and pray, we put the things of this world aside and acknowledge our utter dependence on the Lord.
Self-mastery, discernment, sacrifice, and becoming a co-redeemer with Jesus are all aspects of fasting. To assist you get the most out of your fasting this Lenten season, Fr. Mike delves further into these four reasons in this lesson.
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Why might DNA replication in eukaryotes require more enzymes than DNA replication in prokaryotes?
Answer:
DNA replication is a complex process that involves many enzymes and proteins working together to ensure that the DNA sequence is accurately and faithfully copied. Eukaryotic cells are generally more complex than prokaryotic cells, which means that their DNA replication process is also more complex. Here are some possible reasons why DNA replication in eukaryotes might require more enzymes than in prokaryotes:
Eukaryotic DNA is packaged into chromatin: In eukaryotes, DNA is packaged into chromatin, which makes it more compact and organized. Chromatin contains histone proteins, which help to organize the DNA and regulate gene expression. The process of replicating DNA in chromatin requires additional enzymes and proteins to help unwind the DNA and remove the histones.
Eukaryotic cells have more DNA: Eukaryotic cells typically have more DNA than prokaryotic cells, which means that there is more DNA to replicate. This requires additional enzymes to ensure that the DNA is replicated accurately and efficiently.
Eukaryotic cells have multiple origins of replication: Eukaryotic cells have multiple origins of replication along their chromosomes, which means that DNA replication can occur at multiple locations simultaneously. This requires additional enzymes to initiate and coordinate the replication process at each origin.
Eukaryotic cells have more complex DNA repair mechanisms: Eukaryotic cells have more complex DNA repair mechanisms than prokaryotic cells, which allows them to fix DNA damage more efficiently. However, these repair mechanisms also require additional enzymes and proteins to carry out the repairs.
Overall, the additional complexity of eukaryotic cells and their DNA requires a larger and more complex set of enzymes to ensure that DNA replication occurs accurately and efficiently.
Explanation:
based on occupation, which of the following would have the lowest rates of ptsd following rescue work during a major disaster?
Police officers would have the lowest rates of ptsd following rescue work during a major disaster . The correct option is A.
It is difficult to determine definitively which occupation would have the lowest rates of PTSD following rescue work during a major disaster as rates can be influenced by many factors beyond just occupation. However, some studies suggest that firefighters may have lower rates of PTSD compared to police officers and emergency medical technicians.
This could be due in part to the fact that firefighters are often able to provide immediate physical assistance during a disaster, which may help them feel more in control and less helpless. Additionally, firefighters typically work in close-knit teams with strong bonds, which can serve as a protective factor against PTSD. Nevertheless, it is important to note that rates of PTSD can vary widely within any given occupation and individual resilience and available support systems also play a significant role.
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Full Question :
Based on occupation, which of the following would have the lowest rates of ptsd following rescue work during a major disaster?
a. Police officers
b. Firefighters
c. Emergency medical technicians (EMTs)
d. Construction workers
TRUE/FALSE. When in a 'telic state' one is more focussed and serious, and so sitting on a beach reading would quickly become boring.
"When in a 'telic state' one is more focussed and serious, and so sitting on a beach reading would quickly become boring.The given statement is False.
A person who is intensely concentrated on reaching a certain end or goal is said to be in a telic state of mind. It's possible that someone in a telic mood will be more serious and goal-oriented, but it doesn't mean they'd find reading on the beach uninteresting.
In fact, it is conceivable for someone to deliberately establish the objective of unwinding on the beach with a nice book and to concentrate on that goal while in a telic state.
It is crucial to emphasize that persons in a telic state can choose their goals and what they want to focus on, and these goals do not always have to be job or task-oriented.
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low context, individualistic, low on power distance, low distance from english, m-time, objective, competitive, etc.
It seems like you are describing cultural dimensions based on the framework developed by Geert Hofstede, which are used to analyze and compare cultural differences between countries and groups.
Here's what each of the dimensions you mentioned generally represents:
Low context: This refers to a communication style that relies heavily on explicit language and directness, with less emphasis on nonverbal cues or shared context.
Individualistic: This dimension reflects the degree to which people prioritize individual goals and needs over group goals and identity.
Low power distance: This dimension relates to attitudes towards hierarchy and authority, with lower power distance cultures valuing equality and minimizing social distance between people of different status.
Low distance from English: This refers to the level of familiarity and fluency with the English language, which is often used as a lingua franca in international contexts.
M-time: This refers to the way time is perceived and valued in a culture, with M-time (or "monochronic") cultures emphasizing punctuality and scheduling over flexibility and fluidity.
Objective: This dimension reflects a preference for rationality, facts, and directness in communication, rather than relying on personal feelings or subjective interpretations.
Competitive: This dimension reflects a focus on individual achievement and success, with a willingness to compete and strive for personal advancement.
Overall, these dimensions provide a useful framework for understanding some of the broad cultural differences that can impact communication, business practices, and social norms in different parts of the world.
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Critically discuss ONE strategy how school leavers who do not meet the admission requirements to their chosen course could still pursue their specific career goals
Answer:
One strategy that school leavers who do not meet the admission requirements to their chosen course could use to pursue their specific career goals is to enroll in a related course or program that has a lower entry requirement. This strategy would involve identifying a course or program that is closely related to their desired course and career path and has lower entry requirements, and then pursuing that course or program.
For example, if a student's desired career path is to become a doctor but they did not meet the entry requirements for a medical degree, they could consider enrolling in a related course such as biomedical science or health science, which may have lower entry requirements. By studying in these fields, the student can gain foundational knowledge and skills that are relevant to the medical field and may even have opportunities to engage with or work alongside medical professionals, building networks and experience that can be helpful in future medical studies.
While this strategy can be an effective way for school leavers to pursue their career goals, there are some potential drawbacks to consider. Firstly, students may need to invest additional time and money into pursuing a related course or program, potentially extending the overall time it takes to achieve their career goals. Secondly, students may need to carefully research the related courses or programs they are considering to ensure that they are indeed relevant to their desired career path and provide a suitable foundation for further study or career development. Finally, students may need to work harder to demonstrate their commitment and motivation to their desired career path, given that they did not meet the admission requirements for their first choice course.
Overall, pursuing a related course or program with lower entry requirements can be a viable strategy for school leavers to pursue their specific career goals, but it is important to weigh the potential benefits and drawbacks before making a decision.
Robert Smalls, Abolitionist (and probably a Pirate)
Robert Smalls was born a slave on April 5, 1839 in Beaufort, South Carolina. When he was 12 years old, his master took him to Charleston, South Carolina, to work as a hotel waiter and taxi driver. At the beginning of the Civil War, he was hired to work on a Confederate steamship that carried guns and ammunition for Confederate soldiers.
On May 13, 1862, he led a rebellion on the ship and took all of the supplies to the North to give to the Union. The Union Army hired him to captain an ironclad ship. He was the first African American to captain a ship in the U.S. navy.
After the war, Smalls was elected to the South Carolina House of Representatives where he fought to create equality for newly freed slaves. In 1875, he was elected to the US House of Representatives, making him one of the first African American men elected to federal office.
This is a SUMMARY. Do NOT research this topic on the internet, you are to look at the article posted and summarize that; nothing else. The CRQ is a paragraph with at least 4 sentences.
Example: In the article, "Robert Smalls, Abolitionist", the author discusses Robert Smalls. First.....
In the article "Rοbert Smalls, Abοlitiοnist", the authοr highlights the life and accοmplishments οf Rοbert Smalls. Bοrn a slave, Smalls led a rebelliοn during the Civil War and delivered Cοnfederate supplies tο the Uniοn Army. He later became the first African American tο captain a ship in the U.S. navy.
What are twο interesting facts abοut Rοbert Smalls?In the US Navy, Smalls became the first man οf cοlοr tο hοld the pοsitiοn οf pilοt. Smalls participated in 17 fights as the USS Planter's cοmmander during the American Civil War. Sοuth Carοlinians in and arοund Beaufοrt elected Smalls tο the Hοuse οf Representatives during the rebuilding.
What happened at Fοrt Sumter?On April 12, 1861, fοrces frοm the Cοnfederate States οf America attacked the United States military garrisοn at Fοrt Sumter, Sοuth Carοlina. Less than twο days later, the fοrt surrendered. Nο οne was killed. The battle started the civil war, the blοοdiest cοnflict in American histοry.
In the article "Rοbert Smalls, Abοlitiοnist", the authοr highlights the life and accοmplishments οf Rοbert Smalls. Bοrn a slave, Smalls led a rebelliοn during the Civil War and delivered Cοnfederate supplies tο the Uniοn Army. He later became the first African American tο captain a ship in the U.S. navy. After the war, he fοught fοr equality as a member οf the Sοuth Carοlina Hοuse οf Representatives and was elected tο the US Hοuse οf Representatives in 1875, becοming οne οf the first African American men tο hοld federal οffice.
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identify a material that was used for all exposed parts of athena's body in the statue housed in the cella of the parthenon.
The statue of Athena housed in the cella of the Parthenon in ancient Greece was made of chryselephantine, which means it was made of a combination of gold and ivory.
The ivory was used for the flesh and drapery, while the gold was used for the statue's armor, helmet, and other accessories.
The use of chryselephantine was a highly prized technique in ancient Greek art and was reserved for the most important and monumental sculptures. The use of these materials gave the statue a lifelike quality and shimmering appearance in the temple's dim light. Unfortunately, the original statue has not survived, but we can get an idea of its grandeur and beauty through descriptions and surviving fragments.
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when athletes move from one country to another, it raises important issues. which of the following is not one of those issues?
Option B, When athletes migrate from one nation to another, the following issue is NOT one of them: inadequate medical attention given to wounded athletes.
Athletes moving to another nation raise significant citizenship, eligibility for competition, and influence on national identity problems. When athletes leave their native country in pursuit of better chances or training facilities, this phenomenon is known as a "sports talent drain" and may deprive such nations of outstanding athletes.
Another concern is how athlete migration affects the development of national identities since athletes may feel conflicted between their allegiance to their home country and the chances that may be available to them elsewhere.
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The question is -
When athletes move from one country to another, it raises important issues. Which of the following is NOT one of those issues?
A. A "sports talent drain" in certain countries.
B. A lack of appropriate medical care when athletes are injured.
C. The impact of athlete migration on national identity formation.
D. The rights of athletes as workers.
Define the term discrimination and mention three negative psychological consequences which discrimination based on HIV status could have on young learners?
A person or group is said to be discriminated against when they are treated unfairly or unjustly because of one or more characteristics, such as race, gender, sexual orientation, religion, or in this case, HIV status.
What does the term "unjust discrimination" mean?Activities that are prejudicial or encourage prejudice against people because of their culture, nationality, ethnicity, colour, race, religion, sex, gender, marital status, sexual orientation, physical or mental abilities, age, or socioeconomic status are considered unfair discrimination or "unjustly discriminatory."
What is discrimination defined as?Treating certain people differently than others is discrimination. When people receive various wages based on their rank and abilities, it isn't always illegal. But, there are several situations in which it is illegal for your employer to treat you unfairly.
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the concluding lines of the play state a major theme in this play. identify these lines, state what they mean and how they reflect the theme
In many plays, the concluding lines often reflect a major theme of the play and leave a lasting impression on the audience. These lines may summarize the play's main message or provide a final thought on the story's significance.
For example, in the play "Hamlet" by William Shakespeare, the concluding lines reflect a major theme of the play, which is the inevitability of death and the fleeting nature of life. The final lines, spoken by Prince Hamlet, are: "The rest is silence." This line refers to the fact that death is the ultimate end and that everything else in life is transitory and insignificant. This final thought reinforces the theme that life is fleeting and that death is the great equalizer that awaits us all.
Overall, the concluding lines of a play are often a significant element in conveying the play's themes and leaving a lasting impression on the audience.
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true/false. a study of adoptees whose biological mothers were diagnosed with schizophrenia found that the adoptees were most likely to develop schizophrenia
True. Research has shown that adoptees whose biological mothers were diagnosed with schizophrenia are at higher risk for developing schizophrenia themselves compared to adoptees whose biological mothers did not have schizophrenia.
This suggests that genetics plays a role in the development of schizophrenia. However, it is important to note that environmental factors also play a significant role in the onset and course of schizophrenia. Additionally, having a genetic predisposition for schizophrenia does not necessarily mean that an individual will develop the disorder, as environmental factors and life experiences also play a significant role.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. When parallel parking, you should begin with your ________ even with the rear bumper of vehicle you want to park behind.
The situation has a real bumper response which is most suitable.
What does a car's bumper do?A bumper is a structure that is affixed to or integrated with the front and back ends of a car in order to lessen damage from small collisions. In 1904, the first cars with rigid metal bumpers appeared; their main function was adornment. Over time, bumpers have changed due to a variety of advancements, better materials and technologies, as well as a greater emphasis on functionality to safeguard car parts and increase safety.
The ideal bumper minimises the height discrepancies between vehicles and protects pedestrians. To decrease the negative effects on pedestrians and, more recently, the cost of motor repairs, regulations have been put in place.
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T/F. When speaking persuasively, it is ethical to omit relevant facts that support alternative viewpoints in an effort to bolster one's argument
When speaking persuasively, it is ethical to omit relevant facts that support alternative viewpoints in an effort to bolster one's argument. The given statement is false.
Doing so would be seen as cherry-picking or selectively providing information to alter the audience's perspective and influence their decision-making.
Presenting a fair and honest viewpoint while giving all pertinent data and taking into account any potential objections is crucial for ethical communicators. Instead of being duped or subjected to manipulation, this enables the audience to make an educated decision based on all the information provided.
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Which of the following types of bias is most likely to affect research on cultural relativism and ethnocentrism? A. Social desirability bias
B. Test-retest bias
C. Researcher bias
D. Attrition bias
Answer:
Which of the following types of bias is most likely to affect research on cultural relativism and ethnocentrism?
A. Social desirability biasB. Test-retest bias
C. Researcher bias
D. Attrition bias
Explanation:
You're welcome.
Which of the following are circumstances when people use the central route to persuasion and which are not?
Circumstance:
when they have high motivation to focus on the persuasive message
when they attend carefully to the message
when they consider the underlying logic of the message in detail
when they are sensitive to the quality of the arguments
Not circumstance:
when the message is presented by a cherished celebrity spokesperson
when they are heavily influenced by the attractiveness of the message source
when they are exposed to information indicating consensus among experts
An person should have both motivation and the capacity to pay attention, which leads to the central route to persuasion. If one does now not have either motivation or the potential to pay interest (it does not have to be both), the peripheral route to persuasion will be used.
Which of the following is characteristic of the central route to persuasion?The central route to persuasion works great when the target of persuasion, or the audience, is analytical and willing to interact in processing of the information.
The central route to persuasion is a persuasion strategy that relies on information and details to convince someone. For example, a car advertisement emphasizes the car's towing capability is the usage of the central route to persuasion.
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https://brainly.com/question/7142547#SPJ1fill in the blank. the ___presentation format assumes information must be provided in an accurate, thorough, and step-by-step manner to inform the prospect.
The presentation format that assumes information must be provided in an accurate, thorough, and step-by-step manner to inform the prospect is the "systematic" presentation format.
In a systematic presentation, the salesperson presents information in a logical order, typically beginning with an introduction, followed by a detailed explanation of the product or service, and concluding with a summary or conclusion. This approach is often used when the salesperson is selling complex products or services that require a more detailed explanation.
The systematic approach assumes that the prospect is primarily interested in the details of the product or service and wants to be provided with accurate and complete information to make an informed decision. This approach can be effective when the prospect is analytical and detail-oriented, but it may not be as effective with prospects who are more interested in the overall benefits of the product or service.
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which of the following statements correctly identify ways that archeologists and geologists use relative dating principle to study early human sites
examination of bones from early humans and associated with small mammal fossils found in the same layer
examination of the ages of ruins with the oldest generally being found on the bottom and covered by younger habitations
The correct answer is c) Both a) and b) are correct. Archaeologists and geologists use relative dating principles to determine the age of early human sites.
Relative dating involves placing objects or events in a sequential order based on their position or location in the ground. Archaeologists and geologists use a variety of techniques to accomplish this, including examination of bones from early humans and associated small mammal fossils found in the same layer, and examination of the ages of ruins with the oldest generally being found on the bottom and covered by younger habitations.
By analyzing the different layers of soil and rock that make up an archaeological site, researchers can determine which objects or events are older or younger relative to each other. This allows them to reconstruct the sequence of events that took place at the site over time and gain insights into the lives and behaviors of early humans.
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Correct question:
Which of the following statements correctly identify ways that archaeologists and geologists use the relative dating principle to study early human sites?
a) Examination of bones from early humans and associated with small mammal fossils found in the same layer.
b) Examination of the ages of ruins with the oldest generally being found on the bottom and covered by younger habitations.
c) Both a) and b) are correct.
d) Neither a) nor b) are correct.
in the context of adolescent sexuality, identify a true statement about developing a sexual identity.
A true statement about developing a sexual identity in the context of adolescent sexuality is a complex and ongoing process that involves exploring and understanding one's sexual feelings, attractions, and behaviors. It can be influenced by cultural, familial, and personal factors.
What is sexual identity?
Sexual identity refers to an individual's sense of their own sexual preferences, attractions, behaviors, and orientation, which can be influenced by a range of biological, psychological, and social factors. It is an important aspect of a person's overall identity and can continue to develop and evolve throughout their life.
What are the social fectors?
Social factors that can influence an individual's sexual identity may include cultural and religious beliefs, family values and attitudes towards sexuality, peer pressure and norms, media representations of sexuality, and societal expectations around gender and sexual behavior. Other social factors may include access to sexual health education, resources and services, and discrimination or stigmatization based on sexual orientation or gender identity.
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if you identify a possible surveillance attempt you should try to handle the situation yourself. (antiterrorism scenario training, page 2)
If you identify a possible surveillance attempt, you should try to handle the situation yourself. This means that you should observe the person or persons who are attempting to surveil you, and if necessary, take steps to evade their attempts to gather information.
Changing your course or taking precautions to guarantee that you are not being followed are examples of this.
It is crucial to get in touch with law police right away if the surveillance attempt seems serious or if you feel frightened.
It is crucial to enroll in these courses so that you are ready in the event that you are ever the target of surveillance since antiterrorism scenario training is intended to assist people to notice and react appropriately to prospective surveillance attempts.
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Select the description of sensitivity analysis and how the advent of electronic spreadsheets has affected its use.
A) Sensitivity analysis is the "what-if " techniques that managers use to examine how an outcome will change if the original predicted data are not achieved or if an underlying assumption changes. The advent of the electronic spreadsheets has greatly increased the ability to explore the effect of alternative assumptions but come at a much higher cost to companies.
B) sensitivity analysis is the difference between the selling price and variable cost per unit. The advent of the electronic spreadsheet has greatly increased the ability to explore the effect of alternative assumptions at minimal cost.
C) Sensitivity analysis measures how much a company can change for its products over and above the cost of acquiring or producing them. The assumptions and is more expensive than previous.
D) Sensitivity analysis is the "what-if" technique that managers use to examine how an outcome will change if the original predicted data are not achieved or if an underlying assumption changes. The advent of the electronic spreadsheet has greatly increased the ability to explore the effect of alternative assumptions at minimal cost.
The answer to the given question about description of sensitivity analysis is option D.
Sensitivity analysis is the "what-if" technique that managers use to examine how an outcome will change if the original predicted data are not achieved or if an underlying assumption changes. The advent of the electronic spreadsheet has greatly increased the ability to explore the effect of alternative assumptions at minimal cost. Sensitivity analysis is a method of examining how sensitive an outcome is to changes in assumptions or data inputs. The use of electronic spreadsheets has greatly facilitated this process, as managers can easily make changes to the input data and see the resulting impact on the outcome. This has made sensitivity analysis more accessible and less expensive, as the costs associated with manual calculation and analysis have been significantly reduced. The use of electronic spreadsheets has also made it easier to explore the effect of alternative assumptions, allowing managers to make more informed decisions and mitigate risks.
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in experiments, people have been found to conform more when they must ___ than when they must ___.
In experiments, people have been found to conform more when they must respond publicly than when they must respond privately.
Public conformity refers to conforming to a group norm when one's behavior is observable by others. This type of conformity is driven by a desire to be accepted and approved of by others and to avoid social rejection or disapproval. When individuals are required to respond publicly, they may feel more pressure to conform to the group norm in order to be seen as cooperative and likable by others.
Private conformity, on the other hand, refers to conforming to a group norm when one's behavior is not observable by others. This type of conformity is driven by a desire to be accurate and to make the right decision. When individuals are required to respond privately, they may feel less pressure to conform to the group norm as they can express their true beliefs and opinions without fear of social disapproval.
Overall, public conformity tends to be stronger than private conformity as people are more likely to conform to social norms when their behavior is observable by others. However, the extent of conformity may also depend on various individual and situational factors, such as the perceived importance of the group, the level of ambiguity in the task or situation, and the perceived expertise or credibility of the group members.
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In the context of marital styles and sexual behavior, which of the following statements is a salient feature of best-friend couples?
They validate each other's worth and value the marital bond.
Sex is often passionate, exciting, fun, and playful.
It is a difficult style to maintain and has a high rate of divorce.
Sex is very predictable and is rarely discussed.
The statement "They validate each other's worth and value the marital bond" is a salient feature of best-friend couples in the context of marital styles and sexual behavior. Option a)
The salient feature of best-friend couples is that they validate each other's worth and value the marital bond. These couples prioritize emotional intimacy and closeness, and they view their partner as a close friend and confidant. While sexual attraction is still present, sex is not necessarily the main focus of the relationship.
However, when they do engage in sexual behavior, it tends to be based on emotional closeness and trust, leading to more passionate, exciting, fun, and playful experiences. This style can be difficult to maintain, as couples may struggle to balance emotional intimacy with sexual desire, but it does not necessarily have a higher rate of divorce than other styles.
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TRUE/FALSE. during the renaissance and the enlightenment period a shift was seen which focused on assessment of actions rather than character
The statement during the renaissance and the enlightenment period a shift was seen which focused on assessment of actions rather than character is true as During the Renaissance and Enlightenment periods, there was a shift in ethical thinking that placed greater emphasis on the assessment of actions rather than character.
This shift was reflected in the development of new ethical theories, such as consequentialism and utilitarianism, which emphasized the importance of the outcomes or consequences of actions rather than the intentions or virtues of the actor.
This approach to ethics has continued to be influential in modern philosophical and ethical thinking.
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