HIV infection leads to AIDS when ___ during viral replication lead to the production of viral particles that can infect ___ cells, allowing cancers and opportunistic infections to invade the body of the patient.

Answers

Answer 1

HIV infection leads to AIDS when errors during viral replication lead to the production of viral particles that can infect immune system cells allowing cancer and opportunistic infections to invade the patient's body.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a virus infection that damages the immune system over time, leading to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). As HIV infects and destroys white blood cells, the body becomes unable to protect itself against infection and disease, making it more susceptible to opportunistic infections.

AIDS reduces the number of CD4 T-cells in the body and when these fall below the normal level they make people vulnerable to infections and cancer.

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Related Questions

what habitat do parrots live in

Answers

Answer:rainforests, grasslands, savannas, islands

Explanation:

the industrial revolution has led to an increased reliance on fossil fuels to

Answers

electric farming equipment as well as the creation of pesticides and fertilisers. The industrial revolution resulted in a substantial change in energy sources by the middle of the 19th century with the use of coal.

Coal first powered the Industrial Revolution, which was afterwards fuelled by oil and gas. An enormous increase in the amount of useful energy available to humanity was made possible by the use of fossil fuels to power electrical and steam machines. Fossil fuels were the main source of energy during the first three industrial revolutions, but their consumption continued to fall as time went on. Secondly, following the third industrial revolution, economic expansion increasingly decoupled from the rise in fossil fuel use.

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which idea of evolution is supported by the existence of vestigial structures?

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The existence of vestigial structures, which are anatomical features that no longer serve their original purpose, supports the idea of evolution through the process of common descent.

What are vestigial structures?

Vestigial structures are remnants of structures that were once useful to an organism's ancestors but have lost their original function over time as the organism's environment and needs have changed. For example, the wings of flightless birds, such as ostriches, are vestigial structures that no longer serve their original purpose of flight. Similarly, the human appendix is a vestigial structure that no longer plays a significant role in the digestive system.

The existence of vestigial structures provides evidence for evolution through common descent because it suggests that organisms have changed over time, with some structures becoming unnecessary or even harmful as a result of changes in the environment and selective pressures. This supports the idea that all living organisms are related and have evolved from a common ancestor.

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plant parts that are involved in the reproductive process and contain seeds of some type are called .

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The plant parts that are involved in the reproductive process and contain seeds of some type are called fruits.

Fruit is the plant part that is the mature ovary of a flower. When a flower is fertilized, the ovary begins to expand and mature, eventually forming a fruit. The purpose of fruit is to protect the seeds within and help them disperse to new locations to grow into new plants via the reproductive process. The flesh of fruits is often edible and attractive to animals, who then disperse the seeds in their droppings.

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In the disphotic zone, there is some light but not enough to support photosynthesis. However, in the __________ zone, above there is enough light, and in the ____________ zone, below there is no light.

Answers

In the disphotic zone, there is some light but not enough to support photosynthesis. However, in the euphotic zone, above there is enough light, and in the aphotic zone, below there is no light. o the answer to filling in the first underscore is the euphotic zone and to fill in the second underscore is the aphotic zone.

The euphotic zone, disphotic zone, and aphotic zone are the three vertical habitats of the ocean. Each zone is characterized by distinct ecological characteristics and is dependent on depth and light intensity. The euphotic zone is where sunlight penetrates the ocean and photosynthesis occurs, it extends from the surface down to about 200 meters. The disphotic zone, sometimes referred to as the twilight zone, extends from the bottom of the euphotic zone down to about 1,000 meters. The aphotic zone is the deep ocean below 1,000 meters, It is the deepest, darkest part of the ocean, with no light at all.

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The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to...
a) provide nutrients to spores
b) make spores less dense and able to disperse more readily
c) reduce dehydration
d) repel toxic chemicals

Answers

The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to reduce dehydration. Therefore the correct option is option C.

Sporopollenin is a polymer substance that is composed of fatty acids, carotenoids, phenylpropanoids, and other compounds. This substance is found in the outer layer of the spore wall or pollen grain wall. It is not digestible by most organisms and is chemically stable.

Sporopollenin's properties: Sporopollenin is a substance that is durable, chemically stable, and insoluble in water. It is one of the most chemically resistant organic substances known. It is not degraded by digestive enzymes or strong acids and bases, making it an excellent preservation agent.

Sporopollenin's properties make it essential for plants' reproduction since spores and pollen grains need to survive in adverse environments, and sporopollenin is responsible for making them less susceptible to dehydration. Therefore, the correct option is c) reduce dehydration.

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The endocrine system regulates the release of hormones and enzymes
needed to digest food. The digestive system breaks down food into nutrients
that can be absorbed into the circulatory system. These functions are part of
which process?
O A. Reproduction
B. Nutrition
OC. Regulation
OD. Defense

Answers

The functions described in the question are part of the process of

B.nutrition.

Nutrition refers to the process by which organisms obtain and use nutrients from food to support growth, repair tissues, and maintain bodily functions. The endocrine system plays a crucial role in regulating the release of hormones and enzymes needed for digestion, while the digestive system breaks down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed into the circulatory system and transported to the body's cells for energy and other functions. Together, these systems work to ensure that the body receives the necessary nutrients for optimal health and functioning.

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at the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, its sodium-potassium exchange pump transports

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At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, the sodium-potassium exchange pump transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell.

The sodium-potassium exchange pump moves 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions in at the usual resting membrane potential of a typical neuron. The electrochemical gradient across the cell membrane, which is essential for appropriate neuronal function, must be maintained by this process. In order to operate, the exchange pump, an active transport system, needs ATP as fuel. The resting membrane potential, which is normally approximately -70 mV in neurons, is established with the aid of the electrochemical gradient produced by the exchange pump. It is crucial for neuronal excitability and signal transmission that this potential exists.

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The complete question is:

Fill in the blanks,

At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, the sodium-potassium exchange pump transports ____________.

what component/protein/subunit is present in the holoenzyme but is not present in the core enzyme in prokaryotes?

Answers

In prokaryotes, the holoenzyme of RNA polymerase includes a subunit called the sigma factor, which is not present in the core enzyme.

The sigma factor aids RNA polymerase in binding to particular DNA promoter sequences, which is necessary for the start of transcription.

Four subunits make up the core enzyme: two copies of the alpha, one copy of the beta, and one copy of the beta prime. The holoenzyme is created when the sigma factor is combined with the core enzyme. This holoenzyme can recognize and bind to particular DNA sequences and start transcription.

The RNA polymerase in order to start producing RNA requires this element, it helps in proper lengthening of the RNA chain as well.

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which activity negatively impacts biodiversity and the sustainability of an ecosystem?

Answers

Answers:

Introduction of invasive species

Explanation:

The invasive species makes competition for food much harder for the native species, which causes their numbers to decline. As a result, biodiversity and ability to sustain itself takes a sharp nosedive, even after a short amount of time after the invasive species is intoduced. An example of this is kudzu.

http://nc-ipc.weebly.com/pueraria-montana-kudzu.html

Answer:

The main direct cause of biodiversity loss is land use change (primarily for large-scale food production) which drives an estimated 30% of biodiversity decline globally. Second is overexploitation (overfishing, overhunting and overharvesting) for things like food, medicines and timber which drives around 20%.

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Through what body part do Chloe and Nurb enter to begin their respiratory system journey?

Answers

Chloe and Nurb enter their respiratory system journey through the nostrils located in the nose.

The respiratory system is responsible for the intake and outflow of air in the body. It helps in the exchange of gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide. The respiratory system comprises of the lungs, nasal passages, bronchi, trachea, and other respiratory muscles. It is the most critical system of the human body as it is responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, which is essential for survival. The process starts when the oxygen enters through the nasal passages, reaches the lungs where it is exchanged for carbon dioxide through the alveoli.The process of inhalation and exhalation takes place in the lungs. The oxygen enters the lungs through the nasal passage and the mouth. It then moves through the trachea and bronchi and enters the alveoli, which is responsible for the gas exchange. It is here that the oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged. Once the exchange takes place, the oxygen travels to the blood, and the carbon dioxide is exhaled out of the body.

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how might a scientist determine whether a trait is sex-linked by observing the offspring of several genetic crosses? 4. compare and contrast how is the expression of sex-linked genes both similar to and different from the expression of autosomal genes?

Answers

To determine whether a trait is sex-linked by observing the offspring of several genetic crosses, a scientist may examine the ratio of male and female offspring with and without the trait. If the trait is found to be inherited differently in males and females, then it may be sex-linked.Sex-linked genes differ from autosomal genes in their expression in various ways. Sex-linked genes are located on the sex chromosomes, X and Y. In contrast, autosomal genes are found on the non-sex chromosomes.

Autosomal traits are equally expressed in both males and females, while sex-linked traits are expressed differently in males and females. Males have only one X chromosome and no equivalent Y-linked genes to compensate for gene abnormalities, resulting in males expressing more sex-linked traits than females.

However, sex-linked traits are more likely to be recessive, meaning they will only be expressed if present on both the X chromosomes in females. As a result, males have a higher chance of inheriting and expressing a sex-linked recessive trait than females. Thus, the expression of sex-linked genes is similar to that of autosomal genes in some respects, while it differs in others.

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18. Which ypes of mutations positve, ngative or neutral,are mase lilely to sen i firing neutral, are most likely to be seen in offspring several generations after the mutation occurred? Explain your reasoning. 19. Consider the following scenarios. State whether the mutation is likely to be passed on to the offspring of the organism. Explain your reasoning. a. A single bacteria cell contains a positive mutation in its DNA b. A skin cell on a cat contains a positive mutation in its DNA. c. A sperm cell in a whale contains a positive mutation in its DNA.

Answers

The type of mutations, positive, negative or neutral, which are most likely to be seen in offspring several generations after the mutation occurred, are neutral mutations.

A neutral mutation is a type of genetic mutation that occurs when there is a slight alteration or shift in the genetic code of an organism that does not affect the phenotype or survival of that organism or its offspring. Neutral mutations can, however, accumulate over time, providing evolutionary raw material for later adaptation or speciation events. Neutral mutations are more likely to be passed down to the next generation because there is no selection pressure acting against them.

a. A single bacteria cell contains a positive mutation in its DNA: As bacteria reproduce by binary fission, the positive mutation is highly likely to be passed on to the offspring .b. A skin cell on a cat contains a positive mutation in its DNA: The positive mutation is unlikely to be passed on to the offspring because skin cells are not involved in reproduction. Only mutations that occur in cells that form eggs or sperm are likely to be passed down. c. A sperm cell in a whale contains a positive mutation in its DNA: As sperm cells are involved in reproduction, the positive mutation is highly likely to be passed on to the offspring.

However, Neutral mutations are more likely to be passed down to the next generation because there is no selection pressure acting against them.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal pancreatic cancer. is called

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A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal pancreatic cancer. is called palliative care who focuses on providing comfort and relief from pain and other symptoms of the disease.

A nurse who works in the palliative care unit is responsible for providing comfort and pain relief to patients who are in their last phase of life. Patients who have a terminal illness require palliative care because they cannot be cured.

Palliative care is an approach that involves a combination of medications, therapies, and emotional support. Its primary aim is to provide comfort, maintain the patient's dignity and relieve their symptoms.

The primary objective of the palliative care nurse is to assist the patient in having the highest quality of life possible while coping with a life-limiting condition.

They are also responsible for helping patients and their families in developing an end-of-life care plan. Palliative care nurses frequently collaborate with social workers, chaplains, and other healthcare professionals to create a holistic approach to care.

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Which type of bond occur between bases in a DNA base-pair?
a. covalent bonds
b. ionic bonds
c. hydrogen bonds

Answers

The type of bond that occurs between bases in a DNA base-pair is hydrogen bonds. Therefore the correct option is option C.

DNA is a double-stranded helix that is made up of nucleotides that are paired with complementary nucleotides via hydrogen bonds. The base pairs, adenine, and thymine or guanine and cytosine, are held together by hydrogen bonds.

Nucleotides are small molecules that function as the building blocks of DNA. The nucleotides found in DNA are comprised of three distinct components: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar called deoxyribose, and a phosphate group. The nitrogenous bases are compounds that contain nitrogen and other elements.

There are four different nitrogenous bases in DNA, each of which has a unique structure and chemical composition. Adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C) are the four nitrogenous bases that are present in DNA.

In DNA, the nucleotides are joined together by covalent bonds between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the next nucleotide. The base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds. Therefore the correct option is option C.

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Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?A. chymotrypsinB. lipaseC. amylaseD. pepsin

Answers

The enzyme responsible for splitting short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk in preparation for absorption is lipase. So the correct answer is option B.

Triglycerides are a type of fat found in your blood. When you consume more calories than you require, your body converts them to triglycerides and stores them in fat cells. High triglyceride levels in your blood can raise your chances of developing heart disease, high triglycerides are frequently caused by obesity and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. Lipase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fats. They play a critical role in digestion by breaking down dietary fats into smaller fatty acids that can be consumed and metabolized by the body.

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to produce a human gene in goat's milk, you would fuse: please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choicesA. the coding region of a human gene to the coding region of a goat gene. B. regulatory elements from a protein produced in goat's milk to the coding region of the human gene. C. regulatory elements from a human protein to the human coding region. D. regulatory elements from a human protein to the coding region of a protein produced in goat's milk. E. the regulatory elements from a goat-milk protein to the regulatory elements from a human protein.

Answers

Regulatory elements from a human protein to the coding region of a protein produced in goat's milk. The correct answer is D.

This process involves combining the regulatory elements from a human protein with the coding region of a protein that is produced in goat's milk. The combination of these elements results in a new gene which can be expressed in goat's milk.

To produce a human gene in goat's milk, you would fuse the coding region of a human gene to the coding region of a goat gene. Gene expression is the process by which genetic instructions are transformed into a functional gene product such as a protein. The gene expression process, which includes transcription and translation, enables an organism to produce the necessary protein required for life. To produce a human gene in goat's milk, a human gene coding region must be fused with the coding region of a goat gene.

Therefore, The correct answer is D. regulatory elements from a human protein to the coding region of a protein produced in goat's milk.

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what is the process that pushes food through the esophagus called

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The process that pushes food through the esophagus is called peristalsis.

A series of coordinated muscle contractions known as peristalsis move the food bolus towards the stomach by occurring along the length of the esophagus. The smooth muscle in the esophagus walls contracts behind the food as it passes through while relaxing in front of it, causing the food to move down the esophagus in a wave-like manner. When the meal reaches the lower esophageal sphincter, the procedure is repeated, and the sphincter opens to let the food enter into the stomach.

The neurological system controls the automatic and involuntary process of peristalsis, which doesn't require any conscious effort or thought. It is a crucial step in the swallowing process and ensures that food moves smoothly and effectively through the digestive system.

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How is the stoma in the gymnosperm leaf different from the stoma in the typical leaf?

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The stoma in the gymnosperm leaf differs from the stoma in the typical leaf in that the gymnosperm leaf has a large epidermal cell and an unpaired guard cell that surrounds the stoma opening.

What is a gymnosperm? Gymnosperms are a group of plants that reproduce using seeds but do not produce flowers. They are usually evergreen and have needle-like leaves. Pine trees, cycads, ginkgoes, and others are examples of gymnosperms.

The structure of the stoma in gymnosperm leaves is the same as that in angiosperm leaves. The stoma is a small, slit-like opening in the epidermis, surrounded by two specialized cells, the guard cells.

What is the difference between the stoma in gymnosperm and typical leaves? The stoma in the gymnosperm leaf differs from the stoma in the typical leaf in that the gymnosperm leaf has a large epidermal cell and an unpaired guard cell that surrounds the stoma opening.

On the other hand, in the typical leaf, the stoma is surrounded by two specialized cells called guard cells, which are also accompanied by a large epidermal cell. In the gymnosperm leaves, the stoma is directly connected to the air chamber inside the leaf. The gymnosperms have a thicker cuticle and a smaller number of stomata than angiosperms.

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which of the following is a major difference between monocot and eudicot roots?
a. in monocots, the xylem and phloem are found at the periphery of the stele, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the center of the stele. b. in monocots, the xylem and phloem are at the center of the root, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the periphery of the root. c. in monocots, the xylem and phloem are found at the center of the stele, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the periphery of the stele. d. in monocots, the xylem and phloem are found at the periphery of the root, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the center of the root.

Answers

The major difference between monocot and eudicot roots is that in monocots, the xylem and phloem are found at the periphery of the stele, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the center of the stele. Thus, the correct option is A.

Monocotyledons, often known as monocots, are flowering plants that are part of the group Liliopsida, one of the two major lineages of flowering plants or angiosperms. Monocots have only one cotyledon or embryonic leaf in their seeds, which first emerge during germination. The eudicots or dicotyledons are the other major lineage of flowering plants or angiosperms. Dicots have two cotyledons or embryonic leaves in their seeds, which are the first to emerge during germination. In monocots, the vascular tissue is scattered and found at the periphery of the root, whereas, in dicots, the vascular tissue is arranged in a ring or cylinder at the center of the root.

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studying competition between the peaks of otter salamander and the eastern redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the level.

Answers

Studying the competition between the peaks of otter salamander and the eastern redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the population level.

Ecology is a scientific discipline that studies living organisms and their interactions with the environment. The different levels of ecology are population ecology, community ecology, ecosystem ecology, and biosphere ecology.

Population ecology is the study of how populations of organisms interact with their environment, including competition between species, predator-prey relationships, and reproductive behavior, among other things.

The peaks of Otter salamander (Plethodon hubrichti) are a group of salamanders found in the Appalachian Mountains in the eastern United States. They are highly adapted to their habitat, which is often moist and cool, and are known for their unique breeding habits.

The eastern redback salamander (Plethodon cinereus) is another species of salamander found in the Appalachian Mountains. It is a common species, and is often found in moist, wooded areas where it feeds on insects and other small invertebrates.

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differences between a human foot and a primate foot exemplify which type of evolution
Microevolution
Convergent
Divergent
Parallel

Answers

The differences between a human foot and a primate foot exemplify divergent evolution.

The correct option is C.

What is divergent evolution?

Divergent evolution occurs when a common ancestor gives rise to two or more species that have different adaptations and characteristics due to the pressures of their respective environments. In this case, the human and primate foot evolved differently to suit their different environments and lifestyles.

While both human and primate feet have some similarities, such as a grasping ability, the human foot has evolved to support bipedalism and walking on two legs, while the primate foot has evolved to facilitate climbing and grasping. These differences are the result of divergent evolution over millions of years of separate evolution.

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the energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is ; the energy source for the calvin reactions is

Answers

The energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is light energy, while the energy source for the Calvin reactions is ATP and NADPH.

Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy. Photosynthesis is a method that uses light energy to generate organic compounds. The process of photosynthesis is critical for life on the planet because it produces the oxygen that organisms require to survive.

The Calvin cycle, also known as the light-independent reactions, is a sequence of chemical reactions that convert carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose, a simple sugar.

During the Calvin cycle, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH, which are used to produce glucose.

The light reactions are dependent on light, while the Calvin cycle is independent of light.

The energy source for the light reactions of photosynthesis is light energy, which is absorbed by pigments in the chloroplasts. During the light reactions, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH, which are used in the Calvin cycle.

In contrast, ATP and NADPH are used as energy sources for the Calvin cycle. This cycle takes place in the stroma of the chloroplasts and is used to create glucose from carbon dioxide.

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Make a food chain using the following organisms: Grasshopper, Snake, Grass, Frog, and Hawk. Put them in order in which it shows the flow of energy from one organism to the next

Answers

Food chain is given below-

Grass ===> Grasshopper ===> Frog ===> Snake ===> Hawk

The group of organisms that each trophic level's members form in an ecosystem to transfer food and energy is known as the food chain. The grass is the producer, on which the grasshopper depends, making it the principal consumer. The frog eats on the grasshopper, the snake feeds on the frog, and the hawk, which is at the top of the food chain, gets its nutrients from the snake.

An apex predator species (like grizzly bears or killer whales), detritivores (like earthworms or woodlice), or decomposer species are at the end of a food chain, which is a linear network of links in a food web starting from producer organisms (such as grass or algae that produce their own food through photosynthesis) (such as fungi or bacteria).

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12. The green revolution
depended on
a. new biodegradable
pesticides.
b. high-yielding grain
varieties.
c. clearing forest for crop
land.
d. organic fertilizers.

Answers

Answer: b. high-yielding grain varieties.

which of the following best describes an event during step 2 in the simplified model above? responses A. a new rna molecule is synthesized using a dna template. B. a new polypeptide is synthesized using an rna template. C. thymine nucleotides in an rna molecule are replaced with uracil nucleotides. D. noncoding sequences are removed from a newly synthesized rna molecule.

Answers

Step 2 in the simplified model of protein synthesis is where a new RNA molecule is synthesized using a DNA template. Therefore, the correct option is (A).

Transcription and translation are the two stages of protein synthesis, the process by which the genetic code is utilized to generate proteins. Transcription is the process of generating a complementary RNA copy of a portion of the DNA sequence. It's the DNA sequence that determines the RNA sequence. This step occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells, and the mRNA produced is transported out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm, where translation takes place. Translation is the process of utilizing the genetic information found in mRNA to create a polypeptide chain of amino acids.The following is a brief overview of the mechanism: DNA, which contains all of the genetic information, resides in the cell's nucleus. A segment of DNA is used to create an mRNA molecule through transcription. mRNA is transported from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where it serves as a guide to manufacture a polypeptide chain in the ribosome, using amino acids as building blocks, through the process of translation.A new RNA molecule is synthesized from a DNA template in the second stage of protein synthesis. The RNA polymerase enzyme performs this function. RNA polymerase has a high affinity for a promoter sequence located in front of a DNA sequence, and it binds to the promoter sequence to begin the transcription process.The RNA molecule has a nucleotide sequence that corresponds to the DNA sequence in the gene being transcribed. As a result, RNA nucleotides are added to the RNA molecule, and the new RNA molecule is synthesized in the process. The RNA molecule, which serves as a template for the synthesis of a polypeptide chain, is created in this step.

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Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu. a cement factory near the gulf coast burns fossil fuels and emits a large amount of co2. two steps that the factory manager can take to make the factory more carbon neutral are to and to .

Answers

Two steps that the factory manager can take to make the factory more carbon neutral are recycle waste from production capture and store Co2 emissions.

The factory manager should use unit operations for CO2 capture to get rid of the carbon dioxide pollutants. One illustration is the use of commercial CO2 absorbents, such as soda lime, in the absorption process. About 82% of the gases produced while making cement contain carbon dioxide, making it one of the main gas constituents. Limestone can be created by capturing and combining the gas released during calcination with calcium hydroxide. As a result, no carbon is released into the atmosphere during this cycle. Making cement carbon-negative is another way to reduce carbon dioxide emissions.

The question is incorrect the correct question will be "A cement factory near the Gulf Coast burns fossil fuels and emits a large amount of CO2.Two steps that the factory manager can take to make the factory more carbon neutral are to and to?"

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dna analysis indicates that the genes for antibiotic resistance are not normally present in bacterial chromosomal dna. which of the following statements best explains how the genes for antibiotic resistance can be transmitted between bacteria without the exchange of bacterial chromosomal dna? responses the antibiotic-resistant bacteria release a hormone that signals neighboring bacteria to become resistant. the antibiotic-resistant bacteria release a hormone that signals neighboring bacteria to become resistant. the genes for antibiotic resistance are located on a plasmid that can be passed to neighboring bacteria. the genes for antibiotic resistance are located on a plasmid that can be passed to neighboring bacteria. the antibiotic-resistant bacteria are the result of bacteria that specifically modify their own chromosomal dna to neutralize the antibiotics. the antibiotic-resistant bacteria are the result of bacteria that specifically modify their own chromosomal d n a to neutralize the antibiotics. the antibiotic alters the bacterial genome of each bacterium, which results in an antibiotic-resistant population.

Answers

The suitable option is "the genes for antibiotic resistance are located on a plasmid that can be passed to neighboring bacteria'.

Genes for antibiotic resistance are not normally present in bacterial chromosomal DNA, so they must be transmitted between bacteria without the exchange of chromosomal DNA. This is achieved through a plasmid, which is a piece of extrachromosomal DNA that is capable of autonomous replication, meaning it can be passed from one bacterium to another. The plasmid is capable of carrying genes for antibiotic resistance, which is then transmitted between bacteria.

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What 3 part chamber is shared between the respiratory and digestive systems?

Answers

The pharynx is a three-part chamber that is shared between the respiratory and digestive systems. The nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx are the three parts of the pharynx. The respiratory and digestive systems share the pharynx to maintain respiration and digestion.

The pharynx is a muscular tube that connects the oral cavity and the nasal cavity with the esophagus and larynx. It's a common route for food, liquids, and air. The pharynx also helps in the vocalization of sound. It has three parts: the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The nasopharynx begins at the back of the nasal cavity and extends to the soft palate. The pharyngeal tonsils are found in the nasopharynx.

The oropharynx is situated behind the oral cavity and is found in the back of the mouth. The palatine and lingual tonsils are located in the oropharynx. The laryngopharynx is situated beneath the oropharynx and extends to the esophagus. The opening of the larynx and the esophagus are found in the laryngopharynx. Therefore, we can conclude that the three-part chamber shared between the respiratory and digestive systems is the pharynx.

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Decide if each statement is true or false.
The paper record of a seismic event is called a SEISMOGRAPH. *
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Students at a virtual school are allowed to sign up for one math class each year. The numbers of students signing up for various math classes for the next school year are given in the following table:Grade Geometry Algebra I Pre-Calculus AP Statistics TotalA student calculated the joint relative trequency of 10th grade students in geometry as being 71.4%. What did the student actually calculate and what is the correct answer?A) The student calculated the conditional relative frequency for students who are in 10th grade, given that they are enrolled in Geometry. The correct value of the joint relative frequency of 10th grade students in geometry is 20.7%.B) The student calculated the conditional relative frequenc for students who are in 10th grade, given that they are enrolled in Geometry. The correct value of the joint relative frequency of 10th grade students in geometry is 29%.C) The student calculated the marginal relative frequency for 10th grade students in geometry. The correct value of the joint relative trequency of 10th grade students in geometry is 20.7%.D) The student calculated the marginal relative frequency for 10th grade students in geometry. The correct value of the joint relative frequency of 10th grade students in geometry is 29% A barista mixes 12lb of his secret-formula coffee beans with 15lb of another bean that sells for $18 per lb. The resulting mix costs $20 per lb. How much does the barista's secret-forumula means cost per pound? A band of color appears behind text in paint whe we choose the option____ Which of the following methods discussed in the text requires generating several alternative aggregate plans?A. Trial and errorB. Production smoothingC. Graphing and chartingD. Aggregate plan simulationE.Cut and try Which of the following statements about automatic mimicry in NOT true? a. People tend to like those who mimic them more than those who do not b. People who have been mimicked tend to engage in more prosocial behavior afterwards C. People who have been mimicked tend to feel irritated with the person who mimicked them d. People tend not to mimic individuals toward whom they hold negative attitudes contrecarreurs de project A boat is heading towards a lighthouse, whose beacon-light is 139 feet above the water. The boats crew measures the angle of elevation to the beacon, 5 degrees. What is the ships horizontal distance from the lighthouse (and the shore)? Round your answer to the nearest hundredth of a foot if necessary. TRUE/FALSE.a person who does not own a laptop or smartphone is not a digital citizen and so does not need to be concerned about digital ethics. How does the number of dissolved ions in solution affect the boiling point of that solution? This purpose of joint operations is to defend national interests, not only in conflict but throughpreventative measures to deter potential adversaries who could threaten the vital interests of theU.S. or its partners.Project power despite anti-access/area denial challengesDeter and defeat aggressionMaintain a safe, secure, and effective nuclear deterrent People who get Botox treatments consider it to be a private matter, therefore, they do not discuss it with others. This lowers the level of _____, slowing down the diffusion process.trialabilitycomplexityobservabilitycompatibilityrelative advantage l need serious help!!!! Paraphrase the 2 main reasons Macbeth fears Banquo in act 3 Find an expression for the oscillation frequency of an electric dipole of dipole moment P and rotational inertia I for small amplitudes of oscillation about its equilibrium position in a uniform electric field of magnitude E. On June 25, 1950, the United States united North Korea and South Korea.T or F A package is delivered 3 hours 25 minutes after it is collected, it is collected at 15:39 at what time is the package delivered which two statements correctly relate RNA, amnio acids, and proteins of all the factors that investors consider, the is/are paramount. a. firm's target market b. firm's competitive advantage c. entrepreneur's educational achievements d. quality of the management team wilson was born deaf. at 3 years of age his parents had the doctor put in this device so he will be able to hear: what is the relationship between the laser wavelength , the angle of the mth bright fringe, and the diffraction grating spacing d?