heterozygous geneotype codes for a blending of phenotypes in _______ inheritance.

Answers

Answer 1

Heterozygous genotype codes for a blending of phenotypes in incomplete dominance inheritance. In incomplete dominance, one allele is not completely dominant over the other. This results in a phenotype that is a blend of the two alleles.

For example, if the dominant allele codes for a red flower and the recessive allele codes for a white flower, then the heterozygous geneotype would result in a pink flower. In incomplete dominance, the phenotype of the offspring is neither the same as the phenotype of the dominant parent nor the phenotype of the recessive parent. Instead, the offspring's phenotype is a blend of the two. The genotype of the offspring is heterozygous, meaning it contains two different alleles, one from each parent.

Incomplete dominance is different from codominance, which results in two phenotypes present in the same individual. An example of codominance is the red and white stripes of a zebra, in which both the red and white alleles are expressed. Inheritance patterns such as incomplete dominance, codominance, and multiple alleles all have one thing in common - they result in the expression of more than one phenotype from the same gene.

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Related Questions

the industrial revolution has led to an increased reliance on fossil fuels to

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electric farming equipment as well as the creation of pesticides and fertilisers. The industrial revolution resulted in a substantial change in energy sources by the middle of the 19th century with the use of coal.

Coal first powered the Industrial Revolution, which was afterwards fuelled by oil and gas. An enormous increase in the amount of useful energy available to humanity was made possible by the use of fossil fuels to power electrical and steam machines. Fossil fuels were the main source of energy during the first three industrial revolutions, but their consumption continued to fall as time went on. Secondly, following the third industrial revolution, economic expansion increasingly decoupled from the rise in fossil fuel use.

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Meiosis and mitosis are both forms of cell division. However, the outcomes of these processes differ. Consider a diploid organism with two sexes. Select the reasons why meiosis typically produces genetic variation, whereas mitosis does not.

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Meiosis and mitosis are both forms of cell division. However, the outcomes of these processes differ. Meiosis produces genetic variation.

Homologous chromosomes move randomly to opposite poles of the cell during metaphase of meiosis I. Random fertilization of gametes leads to offspring with various combinations of genetic traits. Synapsis and crossing over occur during prophase I of meiosis, resulting in the formation of new gene combinations. During metaphase of meiosis I, homologous pairs line up randomly along the metaphase plate. During the production of gametes in a diploid organism, meiosis takes place. Meiosis leads to genetic variability in the offspring. Each gamete contains only one set of chromosomes, which results in haploid cells. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material, allowing for the creation of novel combinations of genes. Thus, meiosis typically results in genetic variation.

however , Mitosis does not typically produce genetic variation since the parent cell and the resulting daughter cells contain the same number of chromosomes and have the same genetic makeup. Mitosis results in genetically identical daughter cells. Hence, mitosis doesn't lead to genetic variation.

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the products of protein and carbohydrate digestion are absorbed into the __________; while the products of lipid digestion are absorbed into the _________.

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The products of protein and carbohydrate digestion are absorbed into the duodenum or proximal jejunum of the small intestine.

while, the products of lipid digestion takes place in the small intestine.

they are digested also with the help of pancreas and enzymes the lipids are digested as they are water insoluble.

small intestine is the location where the gastrointestinal tract between the stomach and the large intestine, and is where most of the end absorption of food takes place.

parts of small intestine is,

Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

The other function of small intestine is,  to breakdown food, absorb the nutrients, extracts water and also move food along the gastrointestinal tract.

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What would be the effect of a mutation in the gene that encodes RNA polymerase so that it does not bind to the late gene promoter of bacteriophage T4?

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The effect of a mutation in the gene that encodes RNA polymerase so that it does not bind to the late gene promoter of bacteriophage T4 will be the suppression of the late gene expression, according to the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology.

What is a mutation?

Mutation refers to a change in the DNA sequence of a cell or an organism's genome. In biology, it is the procedure by which DNA sequences can be altered or changed, resulting in different genetic variations that may or may not be beneficial to an organism. It is the source of all hereditary variations or biodiversity.

What is RNA?

RNA stands for Ribonucleic Acid. It is a single-stranded nucleic acid molecule that is a key biological molecule. RNA is responsible for gene expression or the process by which the information stored in DNA is used to create proteins or other cellular machinery.

RNA polymerase

RNA polymerase is an enzyme that is responsible for RNA synthesis or transcription. The polymerase reads DNA's genetic code and then synthesizes an RNA molecule with a complementary sequence.

What is Bacteriophage T4?

Bacteriophage T4 is a virus that infects bacteria. It has a double-stranded DNA genome and an icosahedral head. It is a model organism for the study of virology and genetics. Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria and are used in molecular biology research.

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When the muscle is no longer actively contracting, ATP is used to ______.
break the bond between actin and myosin
initiate the binding of ATP to myosin and begin the power stroke
move calcium back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
re-energize the myosin head

Answers

When the muscle is no longer actively contracting, ATP is used to "re-energize the myosin head". This energy is required to reposition the myosin head. Thus, the correct option is D.

What is a muscle?

A muscle is a tissue found in animals that performs various functions. It's made up of a large number of muscle cells that work together to achieve a specific function. Muscles are critical for motion since they enable limbs and other body areas to move.

Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a molecule that transports energy within cells. ATP is made up of three phosphate groups linked to a ribose sugar and an adenine base. ATP is a type of nucleotide, which is a building block of nucleic acids. ATP hydrolysis releases energy that is essential for many biological reactions. ATP is also required for muscle contraction because it fuels the power stroke.

When a muscle is no longer contracting, ATP is used to re-energize the myosin head. The cross-bridge between the myosin head and the actin filament is broken when ATP is bound to myosin. The ATP is then hydrolyzed into ADP, releasing the energy required to reposition the myosin head into the high-energy conformation. The cross-bridge is then established again when the myosin head binds to a new actin monomer, starting the cycle again.

Therefore, the correct option is D.

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Most of the genetic material of eukaryotes is located in the [1] of the cells. The [2] of the organism is organized on linear pairs of [3], each of which consist of a long, unbroken [4] molecule of [5] whose sequence of [6] carries the genetic information to make [7]. Hence, it is the action of the proteins encoded by your [8] that links your unique set of genetic information, your [9], to your physical, observable [10].

Answers

Most of the genetic material of eukaryotes is located in the genome of the cells. The structure of the organism is organized on linear pairs of chromosomes, each of which consist of a long, unbroken DNA molecule of nucleotides whose sequence of bases carries the genetic information to make proteins. Hence, it is the action of the proteins encoded by your genes that links your unique set of genetic information, your genotype, to your physical, observable traits.

What is a chromosome?

A chromosome is a DNA molecule that has been packaged into a thread-like structure. Chromosomes are linear and have a centromere, which separates the chromosome into two arms. The arms are referred to as the q arm (long arm) and the p arm (short arm). Chromosomes, along with the nucleic acids RNA and DNA, are found in the nucleus of cells.

Chromosomes are a component of cell division and reproduction. The sequence of genes on a chromosome determines the genetic traits and characteristics of an organism.

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differences between a human foot and a primate foot exemplify which type of evolution
Microevolution
Convergent
Divergent
Parallel

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The differences between a human foot and a primate foot exemplify divergent evolution.

The correct option is C.

What is divergent evolution?

Divergent evolution occurs when a common ancestor gives rise to two or more species that have different adaptations and characteristics due to the pressures of their respective environments. In this case, the human and primate foot evolved differently to suit their different environments and lifestyles.

While both human and primate feet have some similarities, such as a grasping ability, the human foot has evolved to support bipedalism and walking on two legs, while the primate foot has evolved to facilitate climbing and grasping. These differences are the result of divergent evolution over millions of years of separate evolution.

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18. Which ypes of mutations positve, ngative or neutral,are mase lilely to sen i firing neutral, are most likely to be seen in offspring several generations after the mutation occurred? Explain your reasoning. 19. Consider the following scenarios. State whether the mutation is likely to be passed on to the offspring of the organism. Explain your reasoning. a. A single bacteria cell contains a positive mutation in its DNA b. A skin cell on a cat contains a positive mutation in its DNA. c. A sperm cell in a whale contains a positive mutation in its DNA.

Answers

The type of mutations, positive, negative or neutral, which are most likely to be seen in offspring several generations after the mutation occurred, are neutral mutations.

A neutral mutation is a type of genetic mutation that occurs when there is a slight alteration or shift in the genetic code of an organism that does not affect the phenotype or survival of that organism or its offspring. Neutral mutations can, however, accumulate over time, providing evolutionary raw material for later adaptation or speciation events. Neutral mutations are more likely to be passed down to the next generation because there is no selection pressure acting against them.

a. A single bacteria cell contains a positive mutation in its DNA: As bacteria reproduce by binary fission, the positive mutation is highly likely to be passed on to the offspring .b. A skin cell on a cat contains a positive mutation in its DNA: The positive mutation is unlikely to be passed on to the offspring because skin cells are not involved in reproduction. Only mutations that occur in cells that form eggs or sperm are likely to be passed down. c. A sperm cell in a whale contains a positive mutation in its DNA: As sperm cells are involved in reproduction, the positive mutation is highly likely to be passed on to the offspring.

However, Neutral mutations are more likely to be passed down to the next generation because there is no selection pressure acting against them.

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which of the following is a major difference between monocot and eudicot roots?
a. in monocots, the xylem and phloem are found at the periphery of the stele, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the center of the stele. b. in monocots, the xylem and phloem are at the center of the root, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the periphery of the root. c. in monocots, the xylem and phloem are found at the center of the stele, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the periphery of the stele. d. in monocots, the xylem and phloem are found at the periphery of the root, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the center of the root.

Answers

The major difference between monocot and eudicot roots is that in monocots, the xylem and phloem are found at the periphery of the stele, whereas in eudicots, the xylem and phloem are located at the center of the stele. Thus, the correct option is A.

Monocotyledons, often known as monocots, are flowering plants that are part of the group Liliopsida, one of the two major lineages of flowering plants or angiosperms. Monocots have only one cotyledon or embryonic leaf in their seeds, which first emerge during germination. The eudicots or dicotyledons are the other major lineage of flowering plants or angiosperms. Dicots have two cotyledons or embryonic leaves in their seeds, which are the first to emerge during germination. In monocots, the vascular tissue is scattered and found at the periphery of the root, whereas, in dicots, the vascular tissue is arranged in a ring or cylinder at the center of the root.

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which muscle is a superficial anterior flexor muscle?

Answers

pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi ulnaris

what is the difference between adult and embryonic stem cells in differentiated organs/tissues?

Answers

Adult stem cells are found in specialized organs and tissues and are limited to replenishing the particular cell type found in that organ on the other hand, stem cells can differentiate into any type of cell in the body.

Embryonic stem cells are  set up in early stage embryos and are undifferentiated, meaning they're able of forming any type of cell. They're used for regenerative purposes,  similar as repairing damaged towel and organs,

and can also be used to  produce new organs , They're more  important than adult stem cells, but also more controversial due to the ethical counteraccusations  of using embryonic stem cells.

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Which type of bond occur between bases in a DNA base-pair?
a. covalent bonds
b. ionic bonds
c. hydrogen bonds

Answers

The type of bond that occurs between bases in a DNA base-pair is hydrogen bonds. Therefore the correct option is option C.

DNA is a double-stranded helix that is made up of nucleotides that are paired with complementary nucleotides via hydrogen bonds. The base pairs, adenine, and thymine or guanine and cytosine, are held together by hydrogen bonds.

Nucleotides are small molecules that function as the building blocks of DNA. The nucleotides found in DNA are comprised of three distinct components: a nitrogenous base, a five-carbon sugar called deoxyribose, and a phosphate group. The nitrogenous bases are compounds that contain nitrogen and other elements.

There are four different nitrogenous bases in DNA, each of which has a unique structure and chemical composition. Adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), and cytosine (C) are the four nitrogenous bases that are present in DNA.

In DNA, the nucleotides are joined together by covalent bonds between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the next nucleotide. The base pairs are held together by hydrogen bonds. Therefore the correct option is option C.

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studying competition between the peaks of otter salamander and the eastern redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the level.

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Studying the competition between the peaks of otter salamander and the eastern redback salamander would be an example of studying ecology at the population level.

Ecology is a scientific discipline that studies living organisms and their interactions with the environment. The different levels of ecology are population ecology, community ecology, ecosystem ecology, and biosphere ecology.

Population ecology is the study of how populations of organisms interact with their environment, including competition between species, predator-prey relationships, and reproductive behavior, among other things.

The peaks of Otter salamander (Plethodon hubrichti) are a group of salamanders found in the Appalachian Mountains in the eastern United States. They are highly adapted to their habitat, which is often moist and cool, and are known for their unique breeding habits.

The eastern redback salamander (Plethodon cinereus) is another species of salamander found in the Appalachian Mountains. It is a common species, and is often found in moist, wooded areas where it feeds on insects and other small invertebrates.

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which structure is part of the respiratory division of the respiratory system?a) eyesb) heartc) trachead) eardrum

Answers

Trachea is part of the respiratory division of the respiratory system therefore the correct option is C.

The trachea is a tube that connects the larynx to the bronchi and lungs. It's also known as the windpipe. The trachea is made up of  multitudinous C- shaped cartilage rings that help to keep it open. The trachea is lined with mucous membranes that help to keep the airway open and trap any  inhaled patches.  

The walls of the trachea are made up of smooth muscle that can contract and relax in order to control the  fringe of the airway. This helps to regulate the number of air that enters and leaves the lungs. The trachea also contains cartilage that helps to support the airway and help it from collapsing.

Hence the correct option is C.

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12. The green revolution
depended on
a. new biodegradable
pesticides.
b. high-yielding grain
varieties.
c. clearing forest for crop
land.
d. organic fertilizers.

Answers

Answer: b. high-yielding grain varieties.

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal pancreatic cancer. is called

Answers

A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal pancreatic cancer. is called palliative care who focuses on providing comfort and relief from pain and other symptoms of the disease.

A nurse who works in the palliative care unit is responsible for providing comfort and pain relief to patients who are in their last phase of life. Patients who have a terminal illness require palliative care because they cannot be cured.

Palliative care is an approach that involves a combination of medications, therapies, and emotional support. Its primary aim is to provide comfort, maintain the patient's dignity and relieve their symptoms.

The primary objective of the palliative care nurse is to assist the patient in having the highest quality of life possible while coping with a life-limiting condition.

They are also responsible for helping patients and their families in developing an end-of-life care plan. Palliative care nurses frequently collaborate with social workers, chaplains, and other healthcare professionals to create a holistic approach to care.

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at the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, its sodium-potassium exchange pump transports

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At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, the sodium-potassium exchange pump transports 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell.

The sodium-potassium exchange pump moves 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions in at the usual resting membrane potential of a typical neuron. The electrochemical gradient across the cell membrane, which is essential for appropriate neuronal function, must be maintained by this process. In order to operate, the exchange pump, an active transport system, needs ATP as fuel. The resting membrane potential, which is normally approximately -70 mV in neurons, is established with the aid of the electrochemical gradient produced by the exchange pump. It is crucial for neuronal excitability and signal transmission that this potential exists.

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The complete question is:

Fill in the blanks,

At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, the sodium-potassium exchange pump transports ____________.

Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?A. chymotrypsinB. lipaseC. amylaseD. pepsin

Answers

The enzyme responsible for splitting short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk in preparation for absorption is lipase. So the correct answer is option B.

Triglycerides are a type of fat found in your blood. When you consume more calories than you require, your body converts them to triglycerides and stores them in fat cells. High triglyceride levels in your blood can raise your chances of developing heart disease, high triglycerides are frequently caused by obesity and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. Lipase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of fats. They play a critical role in digestion by breaking down dietary fats into smaller fatty acids that can be consumed and metabolized by the body.

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1 pts Question 8 The area of the brain behind the forehead that helps us to think, strategize, and control emotions is the O dendrites O prefrontal cortex O corpus callosum O myelination 1 pts Question 9 Angela is 7 years old, and her little sister, Maurya is 2 years old. How are Angela's visual pathways likely to differ from those of her sister? Angela's visual pathways are likely to be less mature, allowing her illustrations to more clearly reflect what she visualizes. Angela's visual pathways are likely to be more mature, allowing her illustrations to more clearly reflect what she visualizes There is no way to predict this, because visual pathway development depends on the individual child and his/her situation Angela's visual pathways are not likely to be different from those of her sister.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

m

The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to...
a) provide nutrients to spores
b) make spores less dense and able to disperse more readily
c) reduce dehydration
d) repel toxic chemicals

Answers

The functional role of sporopollenin is primarily to reduce dehydration. Therefore the correct option is option C.

Sporopollenin is a polymer substance that is composed of fatty acids, carotenoids, phenylpropanoids, and other compounds. This substance is found in the outer layer of the spore wall or pollen grain wall. It is not digestible by most organisms and is chemically stable.

Sporopollenin's properties: Sporopollenin is a substance that is durable, chemically stable, and insoluble in water. It is one of the most chemically resistant organic substances known. It is not degraded by digestive enzymes or strong acids and bases, making it an excellent preservation agent.

Sporopollenin's properties make it essential for plants' reproduction since spores and pollen grains need to survive in adverse environments, and sporopollenin is responsible for making them less susceptible to dehydration. Therefore, the correct option is c) reduce dehydration.

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The endocrine system regulates the release of hormones and enzymes
needed to digest food. The digestive system breaks down food into nutrients
that can be absorbed into the circulatory system. These functions are part of
which process?
O A. Reproduction
B. Nutrition
OC. Regulation
OD. Defense

Answers

The functions described in the question are part of the process of

B.nutrition.

Nutrition refers to the process by which organisms obtain and use nutrients from food to support growth, repair tissues, and maintain bodily functions. The endocrine system plays a crucial role in regulating the release of hormones and enzymes needed for digestion, while the digestive system breaks down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed into the circulatory system and transported to the body's cells for energy and other functions. Together, these systems work to ensure that the body receives the necessary nutrients for optimal health and functioning.

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Make a food chain using the following organisms: Grasshopper, Snake, Grass, Frog, and Hawk. Put them in order in which it shows the flow of energy from one organism to the next

Answers

Food chain is given below-

Grass ===> Grasshopper ===> Frog ===> Snake ===> Hawk

The group of organisms that each trophic level's members form in an ecosystem to transfer food and energy is known as the food chain. The grass is the producer, on which the grasshopper depends, making it the principal consumer. The frog eats on the grasshopper, the snake feeds on the frog, and the hawk, which is at the top of the food chain, gets its nutrients from the snake.

An apex predator species (like grizzly bears or killer whales), detritivores (like earthworms or woodlice), or decomposer species are at the end of a food chain, which is a linear network of links in a food web starting from producer organisms (such as grass or algae that produce their own food through photosynthesis) (such as fungi or bacteria).

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Both cellular respiration and photosynthesis rely on electron transport chains embedded in membranes to produce ATP molecules. Which of the following correctly describes the difference between the two types of electron transport chains?
in cellular respiration the electron source is the hydrogens in energy rich food and the final electron destination is oxygen.

Answers

The correct response is: in cellular respiration, the electron source is the hydrogens in energy-rich food and the final electron destination is oxygen.

Both cellular respiration and photosynthesis rely on electron transport chains embedded in membranes to produce ATP molecules. Both cellular respiration and photosynthesis are metabolic processes that occur in living organisms. However, in photosynthesis, the electron source is H2O, and the final electron destination is NADPH.

Cells generate energy through a metabolic process called cellular respiration, while plants use photosynthesis to create energy. The electron transport chain is an essential part of cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

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you are studying the movement of a positively charged substance into epithelial cells grown in culture. you determined that you can only find the substance inside the cell when atp is present. how is this particular substance getting through the membrane?

Answers

The positively charged substance is moving through the membrane through active transport when ATP is present.

Active transport refers to the movement of molecules or ions through the cell membrane against their concentration gradient, which is from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration.

Active transport necessitates the use of cellular energy (ATP) to transport molecules across the cell membrane. Active transporters are a type of integral membrane protein that is often responsible for this task. The positively charged substance, in this case, is likely being transported by a type of active transport known as primary active transport.

Primary active transport uses ATP to move molecules against their concentration gradient. To achieve this, transporters must directly utilize ATP as an energy source, such as through the hydrolysis of ATP. The positively charged substance is transported against the concentration gradient in this way.

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What 3 part chamber is shared between the respiratory and digestive systems?

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The pharynx is a three-part chamber that is shared between the respiratory and digestive systems. The nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx are the three parts of the pharynx. The respiratory and digestive systems share the pharynx to maintain respiration and digestion.

The pharynx is a muscular tube that connects the oral cavity and the nasal cavity with the esophagus and larynx. It's a common route for food, liquids, and air. The pharynx also helps in the vocalization of sound. It has three parts: the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The nasopharynx begins at the back of the nasal cavity and extends to the soft palate. The pharyngeal tonsils are found in the nasopharynx.

The oropharynx is situated behind the oral cavity and is found in the back of the mouth. The palatine and lingual tonsils are located in the oropharynx. The laryngopharynx is situated beneath the oropharynx and extends to the esophagus. The opening of the larynx and the esophagus are found in the laryngopharynx. Therefore, we can conclude that the three-part chamber shared between the respiratory and digestive systems is the pharynx.

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Through what body part do Chloe and Nurb enter to begin their respiratory system journey?

Answers

Chloe and Nurb enter their respiratory system journey through the nostrils located in the nose.

The respiratory system is responsible for the intake and outflow of air in the body. It helps in the exchange of gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide. The respiratory system comprises of the lungs, nasal passages, bronchi, trachea, and other respiratory muscles. It is the most critical system of the human body as it is responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, which is essential for survival. The process starts when the oxygen enters through the nasal passages, reaches the lungs where it is exchanged for carbon dioxide through the alveoli.The process of inhalation and exhalation takes place in the lungs. The oxygen enters the lungs through the nasal passage and the mouth. It then moves through the trachea and bronchi and enters the alveoli, which is responsible for the gas exchange. It is here that the oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged. Once the exchange takes place, the oxygen travels to the blood, and the carbon dioxide is exhaled out of the body.

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20 In pea plants, round pods are dominant to wrinkled and green pods are dominant to yellow. A plant with
wrinkled and homozygous green pods is crossed with a plant that is heterozygous for both traits.
Determine the phenotypic ratio. If they have 8 offspring, how many will express both dominant traits?

Answers

The phenotypic ratio of the offspring from the cross between a wrinkled, homozygous green pea plant and a heterozygous plant for both traits is 2 round-green : 2 round-yellow : 1 wrinkled-green : 1 wrinkled-yellow. Out of 8 offspring, 2 will express both dominant traits.

The Punnett square for the cross between a wrinkled, homozygous green pea plant (rrGG) and a heterozygous plant for both traits (RrGg) is:

   R       r

G

G|RrGG|RrGg

g|RrGg|rrGg

From the Punnett square, we can see that the possible offspring genotypes are RrGG, RrGg, rrGg, and rrGG. The corresponding phenotypes are:

Round, green: RrGG and RrGg

Round, yellow: rrGg

Wrinkled, green: rrGG

Wrinkled, yellow: none

So the phenotypic ratio is 2 round-green : 2 round-yellow : 1 wrinkled-green : 0 wrinkled-yellow, which can be simplified to 2:2:1:0. Out of 8 offspring, the 2 round-green individuals express both dominant traits (round and green).

What is phenotypic ratio?

Phenotypic ratio refers to the ratio of different physical traits or characteristics that are expressed in offspring resulting from a genetic cross. It describes the observable traits or features that are determined by the genotype (genetic makeup) of an individual.

What are genotypes and phynotypes?

Genotype and phenotype are two fundamental concepts in genetics that describe the genetic makeup and physical appearance of an organism, respectively.

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In the disphotic zone, there is some light but not enough to support photosynthesis. However, in the __________ zone, above there is enough light, and in the ____________ zone, below there is no light.

Answers

In the disphotic zone, there is some light but not enough to support photosynthesis. However, in the euphotic zone, above there is enough light, and in the aphotic zone, below there is no light. o the answer to filling in the first underscore is the euphotic zone and to fill in the second underscore is the aphotic zone.

The euphotic zone, disphotic zone, and aphotic zone are the three vertical habitats of the ocean. Each zone is characterized by distinct ecological characteristics and is dependent on depth and light intensity. The euphotic zone is where sunlight penetrates the ocean and photosynthesis occurs, it extends from the surface down to about 200 meters. The disphotic zone, sometimes referred to as the twilight zone, extends from the bottom of the euphotic zone down to about 1,000 meters. The aphotic zone is the deep ocean below 1,000 meters, It is the deepest, darkest part of the ocean, with no light at all.

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Correctly identify the function of each structure that comprises a tendon reflex by dragging the appropriate label into place. - Carries impulses to the spinal cord when a muscle contraction pulls on a tendon - Proprioceptors located in a tendon- Portion of the tendon that joins to the muscle fibers - Contractile fibers that pull on the tendon when the muscle contracts

Answers

Structure Function Label Carries impulses to the spinal cord when a muscle contraction pulls on a tendon It transmits nerve impulses from sensory receptors to the spinal cord sensory neuron Proprioceptors located in a tendon.

They are receptors that send nerve impulses to the CNS when the muscle is stretched Muscle spindles. A portionn of the tendon that joins to the muscle fibers The part of the muscle that contracts Muscle fibers Contractile fibers that pull on the tendon when the muscle contracts They are the connective tissues that attach muscles to bones Tendon. When a muscle contracts, a tendon reflex is initiated. The tendon reflex is caused by the Golgi tendon organ, which is a sensory receptor that is activated by changes in the tension of the muscle. This receptor is found in tendons that connect muscles to bones. A tendon reflex can help to prevent muscle injuries by inhibiting excessive muscle contractions. The tendon reflex is initiated when a muscle contracts, causing tension in the muscle fibers. The tension causes the Golgi tendon organ to be activated, which sends signals to the spinal cord. The spinal cord then sends signals to the muscles, causing them to relax. This reflex helps to prevent damage to the muscle or tendon by inhibiting excessive muscle contractions.

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two different proteins have different amino acid sequences. these proteins will have: please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices;
a. the same shape with different functions. b.different shapes with the same function. c.the same function different shapes.
d.and different functions. the same shape.

Answers

The correct option is (d) different functions and different shapes. When two different proteins have different amino acid sequences, these proteins will have different shapes with different functions.

Proteins are a type of macromolecule that is made up of amino acids. Amino acids are linked together through a peptide bond to form a long chain called a polypeptide chain. Proteins are the result of the folding of polypeptide chains into specific three-dimensional shapes.

The three-dimensional shape of a protein is determined by its amino acid sequence. Each protein is unique and has a distinct amino acid sequence. The structure of a protein is crucial for its function. Proteins can be enzymes, hormones, structural components, or transporters. Some proteins can perform multiple functions.

If two different proteins have different amino acid sequences, it means that they will have different shapes. As a result, they will have different functions. A change in a single amino acid can result in a change in the protein's shape, and thus, its function.

For example, sickle cell anemia is caused by a single amino acid substitution in hemoglobin. This substitution changes the shape of hemoglobin, which affects its function. Hemoglobin in sickle cell anemia is less efficient at carrying oxygen than normal hemoglobin.

Therefore, proteins with different amino acid sequences will have different shapes and functions.

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