HELPpppp WITH 6 & 7 pleaseeeeee

You have to switch the 8 to the left and the y to the right which would change the equation to 9-8=y

y=1

Answer: y =-1

Step-by-step explanation:y =-1

Last option is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given equation is

In order to solve for y, we need to isolate y.

In this equation 9 is added with y and hence in order to eliminate 9 from the left hand side, we do reverse operation of addition.

The reverse operation of addition is subtraction. Hence, we subtract 9 to both sides of the equation

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

50 an hour for 2 hours. 50(2) is 100

plus the 99 consultation fee.

Assuming there's no taxes because you're one of the lucky ones that doesn't have to pay, the total charge would be $199 dollars

Work Shown:

x = number of hours she babysits

1 hour = 7 dollars

x hours = 7x dollars (multiply both sides by x)

She earns 7x dollars after babysitting x hours if we ignore the $10 base fee. Add on the $10 base fee to get 7x+10 dollars total.

Therefore y = 7x+10 is the equation we want.

Answer:

I thought it would be y=10x+7 because the base fee which is the starting fee is 10 and your adding 7 every hour so that would be +7.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5 times twice in 8.65 and three times in.003

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Y = -1/4x + 5

(0, 5) (4, 4)

Answer:

88.493%

Step-by-step explanation:

We solve this question using z score formula.

Z score = x - μ/σ

where

x is the raw score = 120lb

μ is the population mean = 138lb

σ is the population standard deviation = 15lb

Hence,

z = 120 - 138/15

= -1.2

Probability value from Z-Table:

P(x<120) = 0.11507

P(x>120) = 1 - P(x<120)

1 - 0.11507

= 0.88493

Converting to percentage

= 0.88493 × 100

= 88.493%

The percentage of women in that country weigh more than 120 lb is 88.493%

Answer:

im sorry but i tried to do it but too dumb  

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:$9.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer/Step-by-step explanation:

✅m<1 = 90° (right angle)

✅m<2 = 90° (<1 and <2 are supplementary, and also linear pair)

✅m<3 = 90° (<1 and <3 are supplementary, and also linear pair)

✅m<4 = 115° (vertical angles theorem)

✅m<5 + m<4 = 180° (linear pair)

m<5 + 115° = 180° (substitution)

Subtract 115 from each side

m<5 = 180 - 115

m<5 = 65°

✅m<6 = m<5 (vertical angles are congruent)

m<6 = 65° (substitution)

✅m<7 = m<1 + m<6 (exterior angle theorem)

m<7 = 90° + 65° (substitution)

m<7 = 155°

✅m<8 = 180 - m<7 (linear pair theorem)

m<8 = 180 - 155 (substitution)

m<8 = 25°

✅m<9 = m<7 (vertical angles are congruent)

m<9 = 155° (substitution)

Answer:

7:4

Step-by-step explanation:

7:4 because if 13 is the total amount of games, that minus the amount of games won and tied equals the amount of games loss which is 4. Since it says wins to losses, the wins will come first in the ratio. Therefore the correct answer would be 7:4.

Answer:

7:4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

30 + .40(30) =  30(1 + .40)  = 30(1.4)  = $42

Answer:

1. 26.4

2. 23

3. 20.3

4. 15

5. 114.75

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 19.20/8= 2.4

   2.4 *11= 26.4

2. 270/15=18

   414/18=23

3. 34.80/12= 2.9

    2.9*7=20.3

4. 9/5=1.8

      27/1.8=15

5. 51.00/4= 12.75

    12.75*9=114.75

Answer:

15.71

Step-by-step explanation: I did It on a peice of paper and it's a mess so yeah......

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

fist take y2-y1 to get 16 that do x2-x1 to get 2 the do 16 divided by to to get 8

Answer:

3/2 (this is the slope using the points (1,7) and (3,10)

Step-by-step explanation:

we're going to use

[tex]\frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1\\}[/tex]

plug in the numbers to make

[tex]\frac{10-7}{3-1}[/tex]

=

3/2

Answer:

y = 25x + 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the formula, y = mx + b we can find out what this equation would be.

m = the rate of change/slope

b = the y- intercept

25 per month is telling us that this is the rate of change.

Since the $40 is only paid once, you can tell that this is the y intercept.

The equation will look like:

y = 25x + 40

On a graph it would look like:

Let the total cost of a gym membership be y, with the number of months as x.

The total cost would be 40 dollars, the initial fee, plus 25 times the number of months (x).

y = 40 + 25x

Answer:

P = (8T) / V

Step-by-step explanation:

P*V=8*T*P/P multiply both sides by P

P*V=8*T because P/P=1

P = 8T/V divide both sides by V

Answer:

your going to have t set it up like a proportion i'll help

Step-by-step explanation:

5 times 120 then divide by 3 hope i helps you byeeee

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

when a system of equation has no solution it means that both X's are 0

If it is on a graph then two lines would be parallel to each other

Step-by-step explanation:

for example

-6x +7y= -6x+12y

automatically you would add six to the negative six and you would not have any X's. so it has no solution

-6x +7y= -6x+12y

+6           +6

-------------------

7y=12y

Hopefully you understand what no solution is

have a great day

A system of equations having no solution implies that the equations in the system cannot be solved

A system of equation is a collection of at least two equations i.e. two or more equations

A system of equation can have any of the following number of solutions

When a system of equations have no solution then the equations in the system cannot be solved

Read more about system of equations at:

https://brainly.com/question/14323743

#SPJ2

Answer:

...............................

Answer:

Domain: -inf to +inf

Range: -inf to 4

Inc: - inf to 4

Dec: 4 to - inf

Answers:

D'' = (1, -3)

E'' = (1, -1)

F'' = (3, -1)

G'' = (3, -4)

A diagram is shown below.

========================================================

Explanation:

The center of dilation is point E, which means this point does not move when the dilation is applied. Every other point will move.

As your diagram indicates, segment DE is 4 units long. If we apply the scale factor 1/2, then D'E' will be half as long meaning D'E' = 2. So point D' is 2 units above point E at (1,3)

Point F is 4 units away from point E. The scale factor 1/2 will bring F closer to E leading to segment F'E' = 2. So we'll start at E and move 2 units to the right to land on F ' (3, 1)

From F to G is 6 units, which cuts in half to 3. So from F' to G' is 3 units telling us we start at F ' (3, 1) and go up three units to get go G ' (3, 4)

So far we have

D ' = (1, 3)

E ' = (1, 1) ... fixed point doesn't move

F ' = (3, 1)

G ' = (3, 4)

-------------

From here we'll apply the reflection over the x axis rule which says

[tex](x,y) \to (x, -y)[/tex]

the x coordinate stays the same, and the y coordinate flips from positive to negative (or vice versa).

Based on what was mentioned for D', E', F' and G', we get the following

D'' = (1, -3)

E'' = (1, -1) .... this point does move now

F'' = (3, -1)

G'' = (3, -4)

Points E' and E'' are in different locations because all fixed points in this reflection are along the mirror line y = 0 (aka the x axis). In other words, if E was on the x axis, then it would not move if we applied this reflection.

Check out the diagram below see a visual summary of what happened. Note how the red points moved in closer to point E (since the distances from the center E have been cut in half) compared to the blue counterparts.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

12000 feet equals about 2 miles.

5280 is about half of 12000 so it is about 1 mile.

Answer:

D)54

Explanation:

hope this helps you...