g One of the harmonics in an open-closed tube has frequency of 500 Hz. The next harmonic has a frequency of 700 Hz. Assume that the speed of sound in this problem is 340 m/s. a. What is the length of the tube

Explanation:

(a) Given that,

Area of a parallel plate capacitor, [tex]A=1.8\ cm^2=1.8\times 10^{-4}\ m^2[/tex]

The separation between the plates of a capacitor, [tex]d=0.01\ mm = 10^{-5}\ m[/tex]

The dielectric constant of, k = 2.1

When a dielectric constant is inserted between parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance is given by :

[tex]C=\dfrac{k\epsilon_o A}{d}[/tex]

Putting all the values we get :

[tex]C=\dfrac{2.1\times 8.85\times 10^{-12}\times 1.8\times 10^{-4}}{0.01\times 10^{-3}}\\\\C=3.345\times 10^{-10}\ F\\\\C=334.5\ pF[/tex]

(b) We know that the Teflon has dielectric strength of 60 MV/m, [tex]E=60\times 10^6\ V/m[/tex]

The voltage difference between the plates at this critical voltage is given by :

[tex]V=Ed\\\\V=60\times 10^6\times 0.01\times 10^{-3} \\\\V=600\ V[/tex]

or

V = 0.6 kV

We have that the Capacitance and potential difference is mathematically given as



Question Parameters:

having a plate area of 1.80 cm2 and a plate separation of 0.010 0 mm

having a plate area of 1.80 cm2 and a plate separation of 0.010 0 mm.

a)

Generally the equation for the Capacitance  is mathematically given as

[tex]C=\frac{ke_0A}{d}\\\\Therefore\\\\C=\frac{2.1*1.80e-4*8.85e12}{0.01e-3}\\\\[/tex]

C=334.68pF

b)

Generally the equation for the Capacitance  is mathematically given as

[tex]Vmax=\frac{Q}{C}[/tex]

Where

Q is the charge on the plates, and hence not given

Therefore, maximum potential difference is

[tex]Vmax=\frac{Q}{334.68pF}[/tex]

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Answer:

Explanation:

To solve for the power consumed by the trains motor we have to employ the formula for power which is

Power= current * voltage

Given that

voltage V= 800 V

current I= 2130 A

Substituting in the formula for power we have

Power= 2130*800=  1704000 watt

Power = 1704 kW

This is the amount of energy consumed, transferred or converted per unit of time

Hence the power consumed  by the trains motor is 1704 kW

1. The ocean water collects back in the ocean.

2. Condensation is the process by which water vapor in the air is changed into liquid water. Condensation is crucial to the water cycle because it is responsible for the formation of clouds.

3. an excessive amount of water flowing from downslope along earths surface

4. A.Evaporation occurs when water is warmed by the sun.

5. The water returns into the ocean by the water cycle . It evaporates , then it condensates , then it participates ( Rains ) and then goes back into the ocean.

Hope this answer correct ✌️

Answer:

Explanation:

Using the Continuity equation

v X A = v' xA'

so if A is 1/2of A' then A velocity must be 2 times the A'

after-contraction v = 2 x 5.0m/s = 10m/s

Using the Bernoulli equation

p₁ + ½ρv₁² + ρgh₁ = p₂ + ½ρv₂² + ρgh₂

, the "h" terms cancel

3.5 x 10^ 5Pa + ½ x 1000kg/m³x (5.0m/s)² = p₂ + ½ x 1000kg/m³ x (10m/s)²

p₂ = 342500pa

Answer:

The frictional force the road applies to the rear tire is static friction and it acts opposite to the direction in which the car is traveling.

Explanation:

This question suggests that the car is accelerating forward. Thus, the easiest way for us to know what friction is doing is for us to know what happens when we turn friction off.

Now, if there is no friction and the car is stopped, if we push down on the accelerator, it will make the front wheels to spin in a clockwise manner. This spin occurs on the frictionless surface with the rear wheels doing nothing while the car doesn't move.

Now, if we apply friction to just the front wheels, the car will accelerate forward while the back wheels would be dragging along the road and not be spinning. Thus, friction opposes the motion and as such, it must act im a direction opposite to where the car is going. This must be static friction.

The frictional force the road applies to the rear tire is static friction and it acts opposite to the direction in which the car is traveling.

Answer:

The  radius of the earth is [tex]r = 6365.4 \ km[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The distance at  Alexandria is  [tex]d_a = 800 \ km = 800 *10^{3} \ m[/tex]

      The angle of the sun is  [tex]\theta = 7.2 ^o[/tex]

So we want to first obtain the circumference of the earth

   So let assume that the earth is  circular ([tex]360 ^o[/tex])

  Now from question we know that the sun made an angle of [tex]7.2 ^o[/tex] so with this we will obtain how many  [tex](7.2 ^o)[/tex]  are in [tex]360^o[/tex]

 i.e    [tex]N = \frac{360}{7.2}[/tex]

=>      [tex]N = 50[/tex]

     With this  value we can evaluate the circumference as

             [tex]c = 50 * 800[/tex]

              [tex]c = 40000 \ km[/tex]

Generally circumference is mathematically represented as

        [tex]c = 2\pi r[/tex]

         [tex]40000 = 2 * 3.142 * r[/tex]

=>        [tex]r = 6365.4 \ km[/tex]

Answer:

b) True. potencial diferencie does not depend on orientation

Explanation:

In this exercise we are asked to show which statements are true.

The expression the potential with respect to earth or the electric field with respect to earth refers to the potential or electric charge of the planet that is assumed to be very large and does not change in value during work.

It does not refer to the height of the system.

We can now review the claims

a) False. Potential not to be refers to height

b) True. Does not depend on orientation

c) False The potential does not refer to the altitude but to the Earth's charge

Answer:

Vrel= 0.75c

Explanation:

See attached file

Answer:

The  charge on the dust particle is  [tex]q_d = 6.94 *10^{-13} \ C[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The length is  [tex]l = 2.0 \ m[/tex]

    The width is  [tex]w = 4.0 \ m[/tex]

   The charge is  [tex]q = -10\mu C= -10*10^{-6} \ C[/tex]

    The mass suspended in mid-air is [tex]m_a = 5.0 \mu g = 5.0 *10^{-6} \ g = 5.0 *10^{-9} \ kg[/tex]

Generally the electric field on the carpet is mathematically represented as

           [tex]E = \frac{q}{ 2 * A * \epsilon _o}[/tex]

Where [tex]\epsilon _o[/tex] is the permittivity of free space with value [tex]\epsilon_o = 8.85*10^{-12} \ \ m^{-3} \cdot kg^{-1}\cdot s^4 \cdot A^2[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]E = \frac{-10*10^{-6}}{ 2 * (2 * 4 ) * 8.85*10^{-12}}[/tex]

           [tex]E = -70621.5 \ N/C[/tex]

Generally the electric force keeping the dust particle on the air  equal to the force of gravity acting on the particles

        [tex]F__{E}} = F__{G}}[/tex]

=>     [tex]q_d * E = m * g[/tex]

=>      [tex]q_d = \frac{m * g}{E}[/tex]

=>      [tex]q_d = \frac{5.0 *10^{-9} * 9.8}{70621.5}[/tex]

=>     [tex]q_d = 6.94 *10^{-13} \ C[/tex]

Answer:

C $0.75 my friend I wish it is right answer

Answer:

a) 5.5×10^17 Hz

b) visible light

Explanation:

Since the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation must be about the size of the about itself, this implies that;

λ= 5.5 × 10^-10 m

Since;

c= λ f and c= 3×10^8 ms-1

f= c/λ

f= 3×10^8/5.5 × 10^-10

f= 5.5×10^17 Hz

The electromagnetic wave is visible light

The researchers need to compare those who contracted the disease to those who did not.

Answer:

12.2 m

Explanation:

Given:

v₀ = 15.6 m/s

v = 0 m/s

a = -10 m/s²

Find: Δy

v² = v₀² + 2aΔy

(0 m/s)² = (15.6 m/s)² + 2 (-10 m/s²) Δy

Δy = 12.2 m

[tex] \LARGE{ \boxed{ \rm{ \green{Answer:}}}}[/tex]

Given,

Finding the initial kinetic energy,

[tex]\large{ \boxed{ \rm{K.E. = \frac{1}{2}m {v}^{2}}}}[/tex]

⇛ KE = (1/2)mv²

⇛ KE = (1/2)(0.042)(15.6)²

⇛ KE = 5.11 J

|| ⚡By conservation of energy, the potential energy at the highest point will also be 5.11 J, since there is no kinetic energy at the highest point because the ball is not moving (we neglect energy lost due to air resistance, heat, sound, etc.) ⚡||

So, we have:

[tex] \large{ \boxed{ \rm{P.E. = mgh}}}[/tex]

⇛ h = PE/(mg)

⇛ h = 5.11 J /(0.042 × 9.8)

⇛ h = 12.41 m

✏The ball will rise upto a height of 12.41 m

━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━━

Answer:

Apparent depth (Da) = 60.15 cm (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Distance from fish (D) = 80 cm

Find:

Apparent depth (Da)

Computation:

We know that,

Refractive index of water (n2) = 1.33

So,

Apparent depth (Da) = D(n1/n2)

Apparent depth (Da) = 80 (1/1.33)

Apparent depth (Da) = 60.15 cm (Approx)

The apparent depth of the fish is 60 cm.

To calculate the apparent depth of the fish, we use the formula below.

Formula:

Where:

Make D' The subject of the equation.

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 2

Hence, the apparent depth of the fish is 60 cm

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Answer:

a. to the west.

Explanation:

An electron in a magnetic field always experience a force that tends to change its direction of motion through the magnetic field. According to Lorentz left hand rule (which is the opposite of Lorentz right hand rule for a positive charge), the left hand is used to represent the motion of an electron in a magnetic field. Hold out the left hand with the fingers held out parallel to the palm, and the thumb held at right angle to the other fingers. If the thumb represents the motion of the electron though the field, and the other fingers represent the direction of the field, then the palm will push in the direction of the force on the particle.

In this case, if we point the thumb (which shows the direction we shot the electron) to the south (towards your body), with the palm (shows the direction of the force) facing up to the roof, then the fingers (the direction of the field) will point west.

Answer:

Explanation:

The phase angle of an RLC circuit  ϕ is expressed as shoen below;

ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \dfrac{X_l-X_c}{R}[/tex]

Xc is the capacitive reactance = 1/2πfC

Xl is the inductive reactance = 2πfL

R is the resistance = 25.0Ω

Given C = 35.5 μF, L = 0.0940 H, and frequency f = 70.0Hz

Xl = 2π * 70*0.0940

Xl = 41.32Ω

For the capacitive reactance;

Xc = 1/2π * 70*35.5*10⁻⁶

Xc = 1/0.0156058

Xc = 64.08Ω

Phase angle ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \frac{41.32-64.08}{25} \\\\[/tex]

ϕ = [tex]tan^{-1} \frac{-22.76}{25} \\\\\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\phi = tan^{-1} -0.9104\\\\\phi = -42.31^0[/tex]

Since tan is negative in the 2nd quadrant;

[tex]\phi = 180-42.31^0\\\\\phi = 137.69^0[/tex]

Hence the phase angle ϕ of the circuit in degrees is 137.69°

The phase angle ϕ of the series RLC circuit that is driven at a frequency of 70.0 Hz is ϕ = 137.69°

Given that:

capacitance C = 35.5 μF,

Inductance L = 0.0940 H,

The resistance R = 25.0Ω

and frequency f = 70.0Hz

The capacitive reactance is given by:

Xc = 1/2πfC

Xc = 1/2π × 70 × 35.5× 10⁻⁶

Xc = 1/0.0156058

Xc = 64.08Ω

The inductive reactance is given by:

Xl = 2πfL

Xl = 2π × 70 × 0.0940

Xl = 41.32Ω

The phase angle of an RLC circuit ϕ  is given by:

[tex]\phi=tan^{-1}\frac{X_l-X_c}{R}\\\\\phi=tan^{-1}\frac{41.32-64.08}{25}[/tex]

Ф = -42.31°

Since tan is negative in the 2nd quadrant, thus:

ϕ = 180° - 42.31°

ϕ = 137.69°

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Answer:

386.13 N

Explanation:

The kinetic energy of the baseball is converted into workdone in moving the glove backward( work energy theorem).

Therefore, KE of the ball

[tex]\frac{1}{2} mv^2 =\frac{1}{2}(0.145)35^2\\ = 88.81 \text{J}[/tex]

Now, workdone in moving the glove

W= Fd

where F = Force applied, d = displacement of the glove= 0.23 cm.

88.81 = F×0.23

F= 88.81/0.23 = 386.13 N

Answer:

they must be affordable because they have to pay for it or they wont get the stuff they are bying.

Explanation:

need a brainliest please.

Answer: B, they must be affordable.

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

Let the race be of a fixed distance x

[tex]Average Speed = \frac{Total Distance}{Total Time}[/tex]

Troy's Average speed = 3 miles/hr = x / 0.2 hr

x = 0.6 miles

Abed's Average speed = 0.6 / 0.125 = 4.8 miles/hr

Answer:

C. planetary accretion

Explanation:

Astronomers think planets formed from interstellar dust gases that clumped together in a process called planetary accretion.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{\sf C. \ planetary \ accretion }[/tex]

Explanation:

Astronomers think planets formed from interstellar dust and gases that clumped together in a process called planetary accretion.

Planetary accretion is a process in which huge masses of solid rock or metal clump together to produce planets.

Answer:

1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Explanation:

Applying,

E = 1/2CV²................... Equation 1

Where E = Energy stored in the capacitor, C = capacitance of the capacitor, V = Voltage of the battery.

Given; C = 1.0 nF,  = 1.0×10⁻⁹ F, V = 1.5 V

Substitute into equation 1

E = 1/2(1.0×10⁻⁹×1.5²)

E = 1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Hence the energy stored by the capacitor is 1.125×10⁻⁹ J

Answer:

D. A convex lens in air

Explanation:

This is because the air tight plastic under water will reflect light rays in the same manner as a convex lens

Answer:

(a) The magnitude of induced emf in the loop while the magnetic field is increasing is 9.5 mV

(b) The magnitude of the induced voltage at a constant magnetic field is 124.7 mV

Explanation:

Given;

radius of the circular loop, r = 31.0 cm = 0.31 m

initial magnetic field, B₁ = 0.7 T

final magnetic field, B₂ = 2.3B₁ = 2.3 X 0.7 T = 1.61 T

duration of change in the field, t = 29

(a) The magnitude of induced emf in the loop while the magnetic field is increasing.

[tex]E = A*\frac{\delta B}{\delta t} \\\\[/tex]

[tex]E = A*\frac{B_2 -B_1}{\delta t}[/tex]

Where;

A is the area of the circular loop

A = πr²

A = π(0.31)² = 0.302 m²

[tex]E = A*\frac{B_2 -B_1}{\delta t} \\\\E = 0.302*\frac{1.61-0.7}{29} \\\\E = 0.0095 \ V\\\\E = 9.5 \ mV[/tex]

(b) the magnitude of the induced voltage at a constant magnetic field

E = A x B/t

E = (0.302 x 1.61) / 3.9

E = 0.1247 V

E = 124.7 mV

Therefore, the magnitude of the induced voltage at a constant magnetic field is 124.7 mV

Answer:

The moment of inertia is  [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The  mass of the platform is   m =  137 kg

     The radius is  r  =  1.53 m

    The mass of the person is  [tex]m_p = 68.7 \ kg[/tex]

    The distance of the person from the center is  [tex]d_c =1.19 \ m[/tex]

    The mass of the dog is  [tex]m_d = 25.9 \ kg[/tex]

     The distance of the dog from the person [tex]d_d = 1.45 \ m[/tex]

Generally the moment of inertia of the system is mathematically represented as

      [tex]I = I_1 + I_2 + I_3[/tex]

Where [tex]I_1[/tex] is the moment of inertia of the platform which mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_1 = \frac{m * r^2}{2}[/tex]

substituting values

           [tex]I_1 = \frac{ 137 * (1.53)^2}{2}[/tex]

           [tex]I_1 = 160.35 \ kg\cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_2[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the person about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_2 = m_p * d_c^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_2 = 68.7 * 1.19^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_2 = 97.29 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Also  [tex]I_3[/tex]  is the moment of inertia of the dog about the axis which is mathematically represented as

          [tex]I_3 = m_d * d_d^2[/tex]

substituting values

          [tex]I_3 = 25.9 * 1.45^2[/tex]

          [tex]I_3 = 54.45 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Thus  

        [tex]I= 160.35 + 97.29 + 54.45[/tex]

        [tex]I= 312.09 \ kg \cdot m^2[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

Charge on an electron (q) = 1.6 * 10 ^ -19 C

Velocity of electron (v) = 0.3037 * 300,000,000 = 91,110,000 m/sec

We know that, Force exerted on moving particle moving through a magnetic field :

[tex]F= q * v * B ( q,v\ and\ B\ are\ mutually\ perpendicular)[/tex]

1.2498 * 10 ^ -12 = 1.6 * 10^ -19 * 91110000 * B

B =  0.08573 T

Answer

76200meters

Explanation:

we know that 1km=1000meters

to convert km into meters we we divide km by meters

=76.2/1000

=76200meters

Answer:

E = -8.23 ​​10⁻¹⁷ N / C

Explanation:

In the Bohr model, the electric potential for the ground state corresponding to the Bohr orbit is

         E = k q₁ q₂ / r²

in this case

q₁ is the charge of the proton and q₂ the charge of the electron

         E = - k e² / a₀²

let's calculate

         E = - 9 10⁹ (1.6 10⁻¹⁹)² / (0.529 10⁻¹⁰)²

         E = -8.23 ​​10⁻¹⁷ N / C

Answer:

it is going to D. all of these are resistors

Answer:

I know the answer

Explanation:

We want to choose the film thickness such that destructive interference occurs between the light reflected from the air-film interface (call it wave 1) and from the film-lens interface (call it wave 2). For destructive interference to occur, the phase difference between the two waves must be an odd multiple of half-wavelengths.

You can think of the phases of the two waves as second hands on a clock; as the light travels, the hands tick-tock around the clock. Consider the clocks on the two waves in question. As both waves travel to the air-film interface, their clocks both tick-tock the same time-no phase difference. When wave 1 is reflected from the air-film boundary, its clock is set forward 30 seconds; i.e., if the hand was pointing toward 12, it's now pointing toward 6. It's set forward because the index of refraction of air is smaller than that of the film.

Now wave 1 pauses while wave two goes into and out of the film. The clock on wave 2 continues to tick as it travels in the film-tick, tock, tick, tock.... Clock 2 is set forward 30 seconds when it hits the film-lens interface because the index of refraction of the film is smaller than that of the lens. Then as it travels back through the film, its clock still continues ticking. When wave 2 gets back to the air-film interface, the two waves continue side by side, both their clocks ticking; there is no change in phase as they continue on their merry way.

So, to recap, since both clocks were shifted forward at the two different interfaces, there was no net phase shift due to reflection. There was also no phase shift as the waves travelled into and out from the air-film interface. The only phase shift occured as clock 2 ticked inside the film.

Call the thickness of the film t. Then the total distance travelled by wave 2 inside the film is 2t, if we assume the light entered pretty much normal to the interface. This total distance should equal to half the wavelength of the light in the film (for the minimum condition; it could also be 3/2, 5/2, etc., but that wouldn't be the minimum thickness) since the hand of the clock makes one revolution for each distance of one wavelength the wave travels (right?).

Answer:

f. 80 and 90

Explanation:

1 x 10⁻¹² W/m² sound intensity falls within 0 sound level

1 x 10⁻¹¹ W/m² sound intensity falls within 10 sound level

1 x 10⁻¹⁰ W/m² sound intensity falls within 20 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁹ W/m² sound intensity falls within 30 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁸ W/m² sound intensity falls within 40 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁷ W/m² sound intensity falls within 50 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁶ W/m² sound intensity falls within 60 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁵ W/m² sound intensity falls within 70 sound level

1 x 10⁻⁴ W/m² sound intensity falls within 80 sound level

1 x 10⁻³ W/m² sound intensity falls within 90 sound level

Given sound intensity (3.66 x 10⁻⁴ W/m²) falls with 1 x 10⁻⁴ W/m² of intensity which is within 80 and 90 sound level.

f. 80 and 90